319 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

During childhood, long bones

A

Increase in diameter and length

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2
Q

During adolescence, rapid growth occurs. Bone growth is completed by age

A

20

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3
Q

Ligaments and cartilage soften and become elastic in who?

A

Pregnant women

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4
Q

Fetus at 3 months has “scale model” and skeleton is made of

A

Cartilage

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5
Q

Subjective ROS Musculoskeletal (5)

A

Bones

Joints

Muscles

ADLs

Self-care

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6
Q

Genu ValGum

A

Knees toGether

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7
Q

Genu vaRum

A

Knees apaRt

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8
Q

With adolescent musculoskeletal, keep in mind

A

Sports injuries

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9
Q

Nutrition
Lordosis
Kyphosis
Loose joints

Should be considered in who?

A

Pregnant women

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10
Q

Nutrition
Kyphosis
Falls

Should be considered for who?

A

Elderly

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11
Q

This test should be conducted on people over 60

A

Get up and go test

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12
Q

The Get up and go test should be completed in under

A

10 seconds

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13
Q

Inspection for most joints includes (6)

A
Size
Contour 
Color 
Swelling 
Masses 
Deformity
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14
Q

Palpation for most joints includes (5)

A
Temperature 
Bony articulations
Muscles
Tenderness
Swelling
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15
Q

If active ROM is limited, then use

A

Passive ROM

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16
Q

Normal range of motion should have no

A

Limitations
Pain
Tenderness
Crepitation

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17
Q

What is done for muscle strength?

A

The same ROM with resistance

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18
Q

Lowest to highest, what is the muscle strength scale

A

0-5

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19
Q

What is the biggest sign of joint disease?

A

Limited ROM

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20
Q

Anything below 2 means

A

No motion

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21
Q

Difference between 1 and 0?

A

Zero means no contraction

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22
Q

Palpate as person opens mouth

A

TMJ

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23
Q

Palpate muscles of mastication

A

TMJ

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24
Q

Hands back to back with no problems indicates a normal

A

Phalen Test

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25
Q

Percussing the median nerve produces no symptoms in a normal

A

Tinel Sign

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26
Q

Inspect hip while person

A

Stands

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27
Q

Palpate hip with person

A

Supine

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28
Q

3 steps of the bulge sign

A

Stroke up medial aspect 3 times

Tap lateral aspect

Look for bulge on medial side

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29
Q

2 steps of Ballottement

A

Compress suprapatellar pouch

Push patella into femur

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30
Q

If there is no fluid, then the patella is already snug against the

A

Femur

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31
Q

It is also important to check the knee while the patient is

A

Walking

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32
Q

Inspect the ankle and foot in these 3 positions

A

Sitting

Standing

Walking

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33
Q

Inspect the spine while the patient

A

Stands

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34
Q

For the spine what should be palpated?

A

Spinous processes

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35
Q

Which arthritis is autoimmune and has inflammation and hyperplasia?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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36
Q

Which arthritis involves articular cartilage degeneration, bone against bone, and new bone formation?

A

Osteoarthritis

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37
Q

Drugs that increase fall risk (8)

A
Antihypertensives
Diuretics 
Digoxin/anti-arrhythmics
Psychotropic drugs
Antidepressants
Antihistamines 
Benzodiazepines 
Anticoagulants
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38
Q

Digestive organs begin to form at

A

4 weeks gestation

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39
Q

Infants abdomen less

A

Muscular

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40
Q

During pregnancy (7)…

A
Abdominal muscles lose tone
Hemorrhoid formation 
Stomach displaced upward 
Reduced peristalsis
Increased water absorption 
Decreased gallbladder emptying 
Bladder compression
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41
Q

Liver size decreases leading to altered metabolism in what population?

A

Elderly

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42
Q

Esophageal emptying is decreased in the

A

Elderly

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43
Q

Altered intestinal motility is observed in the

A

Elderly

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44
Q

ROS concerns specifically for elderly (LID)

A

Laxatives

Incontinence

Dietary intake

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45
Q

Abdominal inspection components (7)

A
Contour 
Symmetry 
Umbilicus
Skin
Pulsations
Hair distribution 
Demeanor
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46
Q

Cullen sign indicates

A

Intraabdominal bleeding

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47
Q

Auscultate for (2)

A

Bowel sounds

Vascular sounds

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48
Q

What part of the stethoscope should be used for abdominal?

A

Diaphragm

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49
Q

Bowel sounds can only be deemed absent after

A

5 minutes

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50
Q

High pitched bowel sounds may indicate

A

Obstruction

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51
Q

What are the 4 vascular sounds?

A

Aorta
Renal
Iliac
Femoral

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52
Q

Percuss abdomen for (3)

A

General tympany

Liver span

Spleen span

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53
Q

If you percuss and hear hyperresonance, it means

A

Gaseous distention

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54
Q

If you hear dullness, it may be (2)

A

Liver

Full bladder

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55
Q

What is located right MCL at the 5-7 intercostal space?

A

Liver

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56
Q

Liver span range

A

6-12cm

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57
Q

Place the stethoscope over the liver

Scratch upward from the RLQ

When sound is magnified, you are at the liver

What is this?

A

Scratch test

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58
Q

What intercostal space is the spleen located at?

A

9-11 behind axillary line

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59
Q

The patient takes a deep breath while percussing for the spleen and it should remain

A

Tympanic

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60
Q

The _______ form the CVA with the spine

A

12th rib

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61
Q

Put one hand over the 12th rib and thump for

A

CVA tenderness

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62
Q

2 tests for Ascites

A

Fluid Wave

Shifting Dullness

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63
Q

Fluid wave steps

A

Have patient hold hand midline

Strike left side

Feel tap of fluid wave on the right side

64
Q

Bottle up bottle down is used to remember

A

Shifting dullness

65
Q

When palpating abdomen do it both

A

Light

Deep

66
Q

How deep is light palpation?

A

1 cm

67
Q

When palpating lightly, use

A

Finger pads

68
Q

How deep is deep palpation?

A

4 cm

69
Q

Palpate deeply using fingertips or

A

bimanual technique

70
Q

What is felt during light palpation? (2)

A

Masses

Tenderness

71
Q

What is felt during deep palpation? (4)

A

Liver

Spleen

Kidneys

Aortas

72
Q

Three steps for liver palpation

A

Place left hand under patient at 11/12 ICS and lift

Place hand parallel to midline in RUQ

Press deeply down and under while pt inhales

73
Q

Another acceptable method of liver palpation is

A

Hooking

74
Q

For palpating the spleen do

A

Exact same thing on opposite side

75
Q

Which kidney uses duckbill?

A

Right kidney

76
Q

Which kidney should not be palpable?

A

Left kidney

77
Q

Should feel round and smooth

A

Kidney

78
Q

Use your thumb and fingers to palpate

A

Aorta

79
Q

How wide is the aorta normally?

A

2.5-4cm

80
Q

Press deeply into abdomen away from painful area, then withdrawl rapidly and assess for sharp pain. This is called…

A

Rebound tenderness

81
Q

Two steps of Murphy’s sign

A

Hold finger under liver border

Ask the patient to breathe deeply

82
Q

Normally performing the Murphy’s sign should cause

A

No pain

83
Q

The iliopsoas muscle test is for

A

Appendicitis

84
Q

Which test is for ruptured appendix or pelvic abscess?

A

Obtuator muscle test

85
Q

The Ballottement technique (abdomen) is for a

A

Floating mass

86
Q

Abdominal diagnosis (3)

A

Altered urinary elimination r/t catheterization

Self concept disturbance r/t loss of bowel or bladder control

Altered patterns of elimination r/t urinary tract infection

87
Q

Newborn skin is (3)

A

Thin

Smooth

Elastic

88
Q

Sebaceous glands develop during

A

Adolescence

89
Q

Sweat/eccrine glands mature at

A

2 months

90
Q

Increased pigmentation
Both type gland activity increased
Subcutaneous development in butt and hips
Striae gravidarium

In who?

A

Pregnant women

91
Q

Epidermis and dermis thinner in

A

Elderly

92
Q

Decreased function of sweat and sebaceous glands in

A

Elderly

93
Q

Melanocytes decrease function in

A

Elderly

94
Q

Older females may develop facial hair. This condition is called

A

Hirsutism

95
Q

Elderly nails become (4)

A

Thick
Brittle
Yellow
Hard

96
Q

Two most important review of systems

A

Change in mole

Medications

97
Q

An acquired condition involving absence of melanin in patchy pattern

A

Vitiligo

98
Q

Turgor can reveal

A

Dehydration

99
Q

Where to pinch for turgor?

A

Anterior chest under the clavicle

100
Q

What is the scale for pitting edema?

A

+1 to +4

101
Q

What scale is for pressure ulcers?

A

Braden Scale

102
Q

Ulcer stage I

A

Non blanching erythema

103
Q

Ulcer stage II

A

Blister

104
Q

Ulcer stage III (2 things)

A

As deep as SQ fat

Potential tunneling and undermining

105
Q

Stage 4 ulcer (2)

A

As deep as bone

Slough and/or eschar

106
Q

Not palpable, simply a color change

A

Macule

107
Q

A macule greater than 1cm

A

Patch

108
Q

Elevated palpable mole less than 1 cm

A

Papule

109
Q

Elevated psoriasis >1cm

A

Plaque

110
Q

Raised, erythema, irregular. Example mosquito bite

A

Wheal

111
Q

Collection of wheals. Example hives

A

Urticaria

112
Q

Elevated cavity containing clear fluid

A

Vesicle

113
Q

Elevated cavity with clear fluid >1cm, blisters

A

Bulla

114
Q

Elevated cavity containing pus

A

Pustule

115
Q

Examples of pustule

A

Acne

Impetigo

116
Q

Encapsulated fluid filled cavity in dermis or subcutaneous

A

Cyst

117
Q

Expected with fever, local inflammation, and emotional reaction

A

Erythema

118
Q

Solid, elevated, larger than 1 cm

A

Nodule

119
Q

Larger than a few cm. firm or soft. Deeper into dermis. Benign or malignant.

A

Tumor

120
Q

When skin lesions run together they are described as

A

Confluent

121
Q

When skin lesions standalone, they are called

A

Discrete

122
Q

Depressed scar

A

Atrophic scar

123
Q

Hypertrophic scar

A

Keloid

124
Q

Prolonged intense scratching causes these tightly packed papules

A

Lichenification

125
Q

Small purple and red dots from points of blood

A

Petechiae

126
Q

Large purple spots caused by internal bleeding

A

Purpura

127
Q

Echymosis

A

Bruise

128
Q

Term for abrasion

A

Excoriation

129
Q

Example of fissure

A

Chelitis

130
Q

Sunspots/liver spots

A

Solar lentigo

131
Q

What color is kaposi’s sarcoma?

A

Purple

132
Q
A
B
C
D
E

For melanoma

A
Assymetry
Border
Color
Diameter
Elevation
133
Q

How many calories to gain/lose a pound?

A

3500

134
Q

Spinothalamic tract tests (3)

A

Superficial pain

Temperature

Superficial touch

135
Q

Superficial pain

A

Distinguish between sharp and dull

136
Q

Only done if superficial pain is impaired

A

Temperature

137
Q

Have client identify area touch with cotton

A

Superficial touch

138
Q

Posterior column tests (3)

A

Vibration

Proprioception

Tactile discrimination

139
Q

Five examples of tactile discrimination

A
Stereognosis
Graphesthesia
Point to location 
2 point discrimination 
Extinction
140
Q

What do we do for tone?

A

Passively move joints for resistance

141
Q

Heel to toe tandem walking for

A

Gait

142
Q

Romberg test for

A

Equilibrium

143
Q

REMEMBER cerebellum for both balance and coordination

A

Did I stutter?!?

144
Q

Superficial reflexes (2)

A

Plantar

Achilles

145
Q

DTR (4)

A

Biceps
Triceps
Brachioradialis
Quadriceps

146
Q

Ranking for DTR

A

0-4+

147
Q

Normal value for DTR

A

2+

148
Q

What do we do for tone?

A

Passively move joints for resistance

149
Q

Heel to toe tandem walking for

A

Gait

150
Q

Romberg test for

A

Equilibrium

151
Q

REMEMBER cerebellum for both balance and coordination

A

Did I stutter?!?

152
Q

Superficial reflexes (2)

A

Plantar

Achilles

153
Q

DTR (4)

A

Biceps
Triceps
Brachioradialis
Quadriceps

154
Q

Ranking for DTR

A

0-4+

155
Q

Normal value for DTR

A

2+