301 review Flashcards

1
Q

stage 1 pressure ulcer

A

purple/maroon discolored area/blood filled blister. the skin remains intact, nonblanchable redness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

stage 2 pressure ulcer

A

partial thickness loss of dermis, looks like an open blister, no slough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

stage 3 pressure ulcer

A

full thickness tissue loss, fat may be visible but not bone or tendon, can include undermining or tunneling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

stage 4 pressure ulcer

A

full thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. slough or eschar can be present. high risk of osteomyelitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

unstageable pressure ulcer

A

full thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered in eschar, slough, or both. eschar has to be surgically removed unless on heal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

1st degree burn

A

superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

2nd degree burn

A

superficial partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

3rd degree burn

A

partial thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

4th degree burn

A

full thickness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

normal respiratory rates

A
newborn - 30-60 
infant - 30-50
toddler - 25-32
child - 20-30
adolescent - 16-19
adult - 12-20
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

cystic fibrosis

A
  • mucus producing cells always secreting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

precuts excavatum

A

congenital posterior displacement of lower aspect of sternum. this gives the chest a hollowed out look

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

kyphosis

A

causes the patient to be bent forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

adventitious sounds during percussion

A

hyper resonance (sign of emphysema), dull sounds (signs of fluid, pneumonia, or mass), or no sound present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

expected findings of bronchophony

A

sounds should be muffled, is sounds are clear can indicate consolidation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

atelectasis

A
  • consolidation and closing of small airways. will have decreased breath sounds in the bases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

pleural effusion

A

fluid in pleural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

pneumothorax

A

air in pleural space - can cause tracheal deviation to good side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

paresthesia

A

numbness and tingling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

valve stenosis

A

valve opening is narrowed. tissue is stiffer. heard during diastole when valve is opening. forward flow of blood impaired

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

valve regurgitation

A

incomplete valve back flow of the blood. heard when valve is trying to close.

22
Q

cor pulmonale

A

right ventricle hypertrophy

23
Q

what objective finings would you predict to find with mitral valve regurgitation

A

Many people asymptomatic. Weakness, fatigue, Dyspnea on exertion, palpitations, systolic murmur, possible s3 heart sound. Could be acute- signs of pulmonary edema, thready pulse, cool, Clammy extremities

24
Q

people with burns are at risk for

A

hypovolemic shock

25
Q

normal albumin

A

3.5-5 gdL

26
Q

prealbumin normal levels

A

15-36 mg/dL

27
Q

normal levels of blood glucose

A

70-105 mg/dL

28
Q

how do you calculate BMI with inches and pounds

A

((weight in pounds/(height in inches x height inches)) X 703

29
Q

underweight BMI

A

18.5

30
Q

esophagus ph

A

6-8

31
Q

stomach ph

A

2-4

32
Q

liver functions

A

bile production, secretion to emulsify fat, transfer bilirubin, metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats, storage of glucose in form of glycogen, production of clotting factors and fibrinogen for coagulation, synthesis of plasma proteins, detoxification of substances, and storage of minerals and vitamins

33
Q

gallbladder

A

stores bile produced by liver and ducts drain bile into duodenum

34
Q

pancreas

A

produces endocrine secretions and exocrine secretions

35
Q

Right upper quadrant

A

liver, gallbladder, pylorus, duodenum, head of pancreas, right kidney, right adrenal gland, hepatic flexure of colon, portions of ascending and transverse colon

36
Q

left upper quadrant

A

stomach, spleen, left lobe of liver, body of pancreas, left kidney, left adrenal gland, splenic flexure of colon, and portions of transverse and descending colon

37
Q

left lower quadrant

A

portion of descending colon, sigmoid colon, left ureter, left ovary, left spermatic cord, bladder if distended, and uterus if enlarged

38
Q

right lower quadrant

A

cecum, appendix, right ovary, right ureter, right spermatic cord, bladder if distended, and uterus if enlarged

39
Q

peptic ulcer disease risk factors

A

H. Pylori, NSAIDS, ASA, corticosteroids

40
Q

tendon

A

muscle to bone

41
Q

ligament

A

bone to bone

42
Q

vagus

A
  • knocked knees and usually obese
43
Q

varus knees

A
  • bowed and usually skinny
44
Q

what is the screening for osteoporosis

A

Dexa

45
Q

what withdrawals can kill you

A

alcohol and benzo

46
Q

at risk for stroke (CVA)

A

coronary vascular disease

47
Q

Sepsis signs and symptoms

A

high HR, fever, shivering, fever, confusion, shortness of breath, pain, clammy, sweaty

48
Q

Artery carry no O2

A

pulmonary artery

49
Q

only joint that can circumduction

A

ball and socket

50
Q

Where do reflexes originate

A

reflex arc

51
Q

exception to direction of arteries and veins

A
  • pulmonary vein and artery