Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

NURSING School > 301 Final > Flashcards

301 Final Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Pharmacology flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards Family Nurse Practitioner (FNP) flashcards
1
Q

how many bones are in the head?

A

22 bones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

bones of the cranium

A

frontal, parietal, occipital, and temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

bones in the head stay where they are supposed to be because of

A

sutures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

sutures

A

join the bones of the head together include the coronal, sagittal, and lambdoidal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

coronal suture

A

ear to ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

lambdoidal suture

A

along the occipital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

sagittal suture

A

front to back

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

corners of the eye

A

lateral and medial canthus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

sclera

A

white part of the eye. helps to maintain the size and shape of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

cornea

A

clear covering. allows light rays to enter, responsible for blink reflex, and highly sensitive to touch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

iris

A

eye color and regulates the amount of light that enters the pupil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

ciliary body

A

produces aqueous humor and contains the muscle that controls the shape of the lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pupil

A

open and closes to permit light to enter the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

lens

A

sits behind the pupil, retracts and focuses light on to the retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

choroids

A

cover the recessed portion of the eye and are a network of blood vessels to the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

vitreous humor

A

clear gel in the posterior segment of eye. maintains intraocular pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

rods

A

work in dim light and peripheral vision receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cones

A

bright light and provide sight to color

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

retina

A

innermost layer of the eye. covering of the back of the eye. extension of the optic nerve. receives and transmits visual stimuli to the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

optic disc

A

where the optic nerve comes into the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

macula

A

responsible for central vision. on retina with greatest concentration of cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

anterior chamber

A

space between the cornea in the front

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

posterior chamber

A

starts behind the iris and goes to the lens and filled with aqueous humor that helps nourish the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

superior rectus

A

cranial nerve 3 - elevates the eye upward and adducts and rotates the eye medially

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

inferior rectus

A

rotates eye downward and adducts and rotates the eye medially - cranial nerve 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

lateral rectus

A

moves eye laterally - cranial nerve 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

medial rectus

A

moves. eye medially - cranial nerve 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

superior oblique

A

turns the eye downward and abducts and rotates the eye medially - cranial nerve 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

inferior oblique

A

turns eye upward and abducts and turns the eye laterally - cranial nerve 3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

explain the visual pathway

A

light rays enter the cornea and are refracted on the central fovea which is inverted, reversed, and focused on the retina. It then goes to the brain where the image returns to its original form

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

cerumen

A

earwax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

middle ear contain

A

the tympanic membrane, bone Eustachian tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

bones of the ear

A

maleus, incus, and stapes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what does the inner ear do to sounds?

A

conducts sound vibrations from external ear to inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

eustachian rube helps with

A

equalizing pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

explain the sound pathway

A

sounds hit the tympanic membrane, tympanic membrane vibrate, ossicles vibrate, vibrations travel via fluid of the cochlea, hair cells of organ of corti, cranial nerve 8 (acoustic), sent to temporal lobe of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

ossicles

A

bones of the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

nose does what

A

humidifies, filters, and warms air. identifies odor, gives resonance to laryngeal sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

dosum

A

anterior slope of the nose which ends inferiorly at the tip and laterally at the ala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

nasal bone attaches

A

superiorly at the bridge of the frontal bone and laterally to the lacrimal and maxillary bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

turbinates

A

inferior, middle, and superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what do turbinates do?

A

provide large surface area of nasal mucosa for heat and water exchange as air passes through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

most anatomically significant area involved in chronic sinusitis

A

middle turbinate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

bone that forms and separates the roof of the nose from the brain

A

ethmoid bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

where is mucous that empties into the nasal cavity produced

A

sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

sinuses

A

frontal, ethmoid, and maxillary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

outlet for sinuses

A

middle meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

nasolacrimal duct drains

A

inferior meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

how does air and mucus pass into the nasopharynx

A

through the choana (opening) of the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

linea frenulum

A

also called the median fold, connects the base of the tongue to the floor of the mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

vallate papillae

A

tastebuds that are on the anterior 2/3 of the tongue and identify. sweet, sour, salty, and bitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what makes saliva

A

salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

opens into the mouth in the buccal mucosa just opposite the second molar

A

paratoid duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

where is the submental gland

A

just beneath the body of the mandible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

where is the sublingual salivary gland

A

within the floor of the mouth under the tongue with openings along the submandibular duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what can decrease salivary flow

A

emotional response, aging, damage to the glands, certain medications, and certain disorders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

xeroxima

A

dry mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

blood supply of the neck is through

A

the carotid artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

muscle that arises from the sternum and medial clavicle and extends behind the ear

A

sternocleidomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

muscle that arises from the occipital bones and vertebra and fans out to the clavicle and scapula

A

trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what creates the Adams apple

A

thyroid cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

thyroid crosses the

A

trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

parathyroid plasma a role in

A

serum calcium and phosphate levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

lymphatic drainage from the nose leads to

A

preauricular and submandibular lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

-itis

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

-post

A

after, behind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

extra

A

outside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

-graphy

A

process of recording

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

opthalm

A

eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

-opia

A

vision condition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

photo-

A

light

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

gloss-

A

tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

naso/rhin

A

nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

oro-

A

mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

ot-

A

ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

ringing or buzzing in the ears

A

tinnitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

vertigo indicates

A

dysfunction of the bony labyrinth in the inner ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

malodorous discharge=

A

bacterial infection. its thick/green discharge from the nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

could smelling unilateral discharge fro nose

A

foreign body in nose or chronic sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

profuse watery discharge from nose

A

allergies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

bloody discharge from nose

A

neoplasm, trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

name for normal face

A

normocephalic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

ptosis

A

dropping of the eyelids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

exophthalmos

A

protrusion of the eyeball anteriorly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

chalazion

A

cyst in/around the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

pterygium

A

abnormal thickening of the conjunctiva from the limbus over the cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

blepharitis

A

inflammation of the eyelash follicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

conjunctivitis

A

allergic/bacterial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

hordeolum

A

stye of the eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

chart used to test eye sight

A

snellen chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

20/40 eye sight means

A

that the person can read at 20 feet what a normal person reads at 40 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is considered legally blind

A

20/200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what do you use to test near vision

A

jaeger card

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

a result of 14/20 means

A

the person can read at 14 inches what a normal sighted person can read at 20 inches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

strabismus light reflex

A

eyes not aligned with each other. Shine a penlight at their eye and note where the light reflects on the cornea of each eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

esotropia light reflex

A

one eye turns inwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

exotropia light reflex

A

one eye turns outwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

hypotonia light reflex

A

one eye turns downwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

hypertropia light reflex

A

one eye turns upwards

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what are you looking for in the cover/uncover test in the eyes

A

strabismus, cross eyed, or eye weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

cover test in the eyes tests what

A

presence and amount of ocular deviation. inspecting for any movement in the uncovered eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

aniscoria

A

one pupil is bigger than the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

nystagmus

A

An involuntary eye movement which may cause the eye to rapidly move from side to side, up and down, or in a circle, and may slightly blur vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what does accommodation of the eyes test

A

shifting gaze from far to near

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what do you look for during accommodation of the eyes

A

pupils constrict when focusing on a close object and converge (turn inward)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

pupils ____ when focusing on a distant object

A

dilate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

PERRLA

A

pupils equal, round, and react to light and accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

coloboma

A

irregularly shaped iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

anisocoria

A

unequal pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

miosis

A

pinpoint pupils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

mydriasis

A

fixed and dilated pupils. happens when people have a concussion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

why would you not be able to elicit a red light reflex

A

cancer or detached retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

otoscope inspection on adults vs children

A

adults pull pinna upward and outward and in children pull pinna downward and out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

cone of light reflex

A

5 o’clock right ear and 7 o’clock left ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

rinne test

A

test if hearing is equal in both ears and for conductive and sensorineural hearing loss. start with pitch fork on the bone and end with pitch fork next to ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Bone conduction will be greater or less than Air Conduction with conductive hearing loss?

A

greater, air conduction should be 2:1 with bone conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

conductive hearing

A

air conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

sensorineural hearing

A

bone conduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

weber’s test

A

strike tuning fork and place on the top of the patients head. helps with unilateral hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

in webers test if the sounds is lateralized to impaired ear

A

it is conductive hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

in webers test if the sound is lateralized to good ear

A

it is sensorineural

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

halitosis

A

bad breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

gingivitis is highest among what group of people

A

hispanics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

cleft lip and palates are highest among what group of people

A

native Americans and asian Americans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

if a lymph node is palpable you want to note which characteristics

A

location, size, consistency, and mobility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

if palpable the thyroid should feel like

A

smooth, rubbery, contender, symmetrical, and barely palpable beneath the sternocleidomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

presbyopia

A

diminished ability to focus on near objects. normal process of aging. usually starts to happen over 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

AMD

A

age related macular degeneration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

age related macular degeneration

A

destroys sharp, central vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

risk factors of age related macular degeneration

A

age (over 60), smoking, obesity, being caucasian, family history, and being a woman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

presbycusis

A

a common form of sensorineural hearing loss which results from gradual degeneration of nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

cerumen becomes ______ as you age

A

thicker, you do not produce more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

otosclerosis

A

as you age bones start to remodel so the bones in your ears have less vibration and you can’t hear as well

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what happens with a patients nose and mouth over 60

A

there is a decrease in olfactory sensory fibers, production of saliva, and number of taste buds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

common general assessment findings with inflammation

A

redness, swelling, warmth, drainage, fever, and enlarged lymph nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

lymph nodes can be swollen from

A

infection, autoimmune disease, and cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

rhinitis

A

inflammation of the nasal mucosa can be either allergic or nonallergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

objective findings of rhinitis

A

excessive clear watery nasal drainage, pale blue boggy mucosa, redness or inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

sinusitis

A

infection of one or more of the paranasal sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

objective findings of sinusitis

A

redness and inflammation of nasal mucosa with thick purulent drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

tonsillitis

A

inflammation in lymphoid tissue of oropharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

objective findings of tonsillitis

A

redness of pharyngeal walls, exudate, fever, rash, and in severe cases airway obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

diplopia

A

double vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

glaucoma

A

group of eye conditions that lead to damage to the optic nerve. often times there is damage to the optic nerve due to increased pressure in the eye (intraocular pressure-IOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what can you do for glaucoma

A

give beta blocker in form of eye drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

cataracts

A

opacity or clouding of the eye’s lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

risk factors for cataracts

A

age, exposure to ultraviolet B light, DM, smoking, alcohol, diet low in antioxidant vitamins, HTN, eye injuries, steroid use, female gender, gout, abdominal obesity, and beta blocker use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

conductive hearing loss

A

occurs when sound wave transmission through the external or middle ear is disrupted.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

sensorineural hearing loss

A

occurs from a problem somewhere beyond the middle ear. often from dysfunction in the cochlea, organ of corti, auditory nerve or auditory cortex

150
Q

common assessment findings with alteration in nutrition

A

swallowing impairment, ill fitting dentures, mouth sores, weight changes, dry, brittle, fine nails/hair, fatigue, weakness

151
Q

hypothyroidism manifestations

A

fatigue, anorexia, cold intolerances, dry skin, brittle/coarse hair, menstrual irregularities, weight gain,

152
Q

emergency manifestations with hypothyroidism

A

called myxedema coma - hypothermia w/o shivering, hypoventilation, hypotension, hypoglycemia, lactic acidosis, coma, death

153
Q

hypothyroidism labs

A

primary - high TSH with low T4

secondary - low TSH and T4

154
Q

hyperthyroidism manifestations

A

fatigue, anxiety, palpitations, tachycardia, enlarged thyroid, exophthalmos, fine/limp hair, diaphoresis, muscle weakness

155
Q

labs for hyperthyroidism

A

low TSH, and high T4

156
Q

emergency manifestations of hyperthyroidism

A

called thyrotoxic coma (thyroid storm) - tachycardia, diarrhea, anxiety, fear, weakness, psychosis, coma, death

157
Q

candidiasis

A

yeast infection of the buccal mucosa and tongue (thrush)

158
Q

candidiasis manifestations

A

white/cheesy mucus on tongue or buccal mucosa

159
Q

constipation can lead to what with the bladder

A

bladder retention

160
Q

three phases of the menstrual cycle

A

follicular, ovulation, and luteal

161
Q

onset of menses correlates with _____ release

A

estrogen release by the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis

162
Q

follicular stage

A

also called the proliferative phase - the wall begins to thicken. begins at the end of menstruation and lasts until ovulation

163
Q

which hormone targets the ovaries and triggers the maturation process of follicules

A

follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

164
Q

ovulation stage

A

release of LH (luteinizing hormone) matures the egg and fully developed follicle releases its secondary oocyte

165
Q

secondary oocyte matures into an

A

ootid and then becomes a mature ovum

166
Q

luteal phase

A

also called the secretory phase. progesterone and estrogen are secreted by the corpus luteum

167
Q

most fertile window

A

5 days before ovulation until 1-2 days after ovulation and corresponds with rise in body temperature

168
Q

anteverted uterus

A

most common - tipped towards the bladder - anterior end slightly concave

169
Q

retroverted uterus

A

tipped backwards towards the spine and anterior end convex

170
Q

ante flexion uterus

A

the fundus is pointing forward relative to the cervix

171
Q

retroflexion uterus

A

the fundus is pointing backwards relative to the cervix

172
Q

fundus

A

is the broad curved upper area in which the fallopian tubes connect to the uterus. top part of the uterus

173
Q

when is estrogen usually at zero for woman

A

around the age of 74

174
Q

mammograms begin at the age of

A

40 or 50 and should be done every 2 years and stopped at the age of 74

175
Q

paps are recommended to start when

A

upon the initiation of sexual activity and occur annually until 3 consecutive normal paps and then every 3 years

176
Q

most great cancer is found

A

up the tail of sense and outer quadrant

177
Q

basic signs of breast cancer

A

lump, skin dimpling, change in skin color or texture, change in nipple appearance, clear or bloody fluid leakage out of nipple, swelling of lymph nodes, pain/itchiness of the breast, swelling of one breast

178
Q

mastitis

A

infection of the breast tissue. happens in people who are breastfeeding or from rough sex

179
Q

HPV strain 16 and 18 correlate with

A

cervical cancer

180
Q

HPV strain 6 and 11 correlate with

A

genital warts

181
Q

most common STD in the US

A

HPV

182
Q

vaccines ofr HPV

A

Gardasil and cervarix

183
Q

condylomata acuminata

A

anogenital warts, are manifestations of anogenital human papillomavirus (HPV) infection

184
Q

discharge from gonorrhea

A

yellow, ph of less than 4.5 and painful

185
Q

discharge from chlamydia

A

clear/white, ph of less than 4.5

186
Q

trichomonas

A

parasite that causes trichomoniasis - discharge yellow, green, and frothy. ph is greater than 4.5

187
Q

PID

A

pelvic inflammatory disease

188
Q

pelvic inflammatory disease

A

chandelier sign and can cause infertility

189
Q

bacterial vaginosis

A

an imbalance of normal vaginal bacteria - discharge grey/white, fishy odor, ph greater than 4.5

190
Q

candida vaginitis

A

not an STD - yeast infection

191
Q

risk factors for ovarian cancer

A

history or HPV, smoking, immunosuppression, poor dietary choices, long term oral contraception, multiple full term pregnancies, multiple sex partners

192
Q

uterine fibroids

A

Noncancerous growths in the uterus that can develop during a woman’s childbearing years

193
Q

cystocele

A

weakening of the anterior vaginal wall and the bladder prolapses into vagina

194
Q

rectocele

A

building of the posterior vaginal wall and there is a rectal prolapse into vagina

195
Q

uterine prolapse

A

uterus prolapses into the vagina

196
Q

risk of uterine prolapse

A

several births and advanced age

197
Q

genital warts from HPV may not______ in males

A

they may not show up for weeks to months after sexual contact with a person who is HPV positive

198
Q

is there a test for men to see if they have HPV?

A

no

199
Q

testicular exams are recommended every

A

5 years

200
Q

hydrocele

A

collection of serous fluid in the scrotum outside the testes

201
Q

spermatocele

A

sperm filled cystic mass located on the epididymis

202
Q

varicocele

A

abnormal dilation of vein in the spermatic cord, veins will be palpable and could lead to infertility

203
Q

epididymitis

A

infection of the epididymis - scrotum will be enlarged, reddened, and swollen. extremely painful

204
Q

testicular torsion

A

twisting of the spermatic cord- scrotum will be swollen and reddened. extremely painful. usually in young men. affected side is generally higher

205
Q

BPH

A

benign prostatic hyperplasia

206
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

an enlargement of the prostate gland that usually affects older men

207
Q

benign prostatic hyperplasia symptoms

A

difficulty/pain urinating, urge to urinate soon after urinating, decrease strength of urine stream

208
Q

shift assessment focuses on

A

the patients immediate needs and potential complications related to their diagnosis

209
Q

goal of patient care at admission

A

to discharge home

210
Q

skin tears need to be documented separate from

A

pressure wounds as they are a result of acute, traumatic injury

211
Q

skin tears is seen most on

A

the very old or someone on chronic steroid therapy

212
Q

OLDCARTS

A

onset, location, duration, characteristics, aggravating and alleviating, related symptoms, treatment, and severity

213
Q

ABCDEF

A

asymmetric, border, color, diameter, elevation, and feel

214
Q

test for risk of pressure ulcers

A

BRADEN scale- based off sensory perception, moisture, activity, mobility, nutrition, and friction and shear

215
Q

macule

A

solely a color change ex: freckles, measles

216
Q

papule

A

something you can feel. ex: mole, lichen planus, wart

217
Q

plaque

A

papule that merge together, ex: psoriasis or lichen planus

218
Q

patch

A

macule that are larger than 1 cm

219
Q

wheal

A

superficial, raised, transient, slightly irregular due to edema. Ex: mosquito bite, allergic reaction, TB testing

220
Q

urticaria

A

Hives. very pruritic (itchy)

221
Q

vesicle

A

elevated cavity containing free fluid. Ex: varicella, herpes zoster

222
Q

bulla

A

usually single chambered/superficial in epidermis. Thin wall and ruptures easily. Ex: blister, burns, contact dermatitis

223
Q

pastule

A

turbid fluid (pus) in the cavity. elevated and circumscribed. Ex: impetigo and acne

224
Q

cyst

A

encapsulated fluid filled cavity in dermis or subcutaneous layer. Ex: sebaceous cyst

225
Q

fissure

A

linear crack with abrupt edges. extends into dermis, dry Ex: athletes foot, cheilosis

226
Q

cheilosis

A

painful inflammation and cracking of the corners of the mouth

227
Q

erosion

A

scooped out but shallow depression. moist but not bleeding

228
Q

lichenification

A

prolonged intense scratching eventually thickens the skin and produces tightly packed sets of papules. Ex: psoriasis

229
Q

purpura

A

small blood vessels join together or leak blood under the skin

230
Q

petechiae

A

when purpura spots are very small

231
Q

spooning

A

concave curves in nails. from iron deficiency

232
Q

jagged nails

A

shape in nails from chronic anxiety

233
Q

paronychia

A

infection of the nail folds

234
Q

stage 1 pressure ulcer

A

purple/maroon discolored area/blood filled blister. the skin remains intact, nonblanchable redness

235
Q

stage 2 pressure ulcer

A

partial thickness loss of dermis, looks like an open blister, no slough

236
Q

stage 3 pressure ulcer

A

full thickness tissue loss, fat may be visible but not bone or tendon, can include undermining or tunneling

237
Q

stage 4 pressure ulcer

A

full thickness loss with exposed bone, tendon, or muscle. slough or eschar can be present. high risk of osteomyelitis

238
Q

unstageable pressure ulcer

A

full thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered in eschar, slough, or both. eschar has to be surgically removed unless on heal

239
Q

first degree burn

A

superficial

240
Q

second degree burn

A

superficial partial thickness

241
Q

third degree burn

A

deep partial thickness

242
Q

fourth degree burn

A

full thickness

243
Q

5th and 6th degree burns

A

lethal and found during autopsy

244
Q

normal body temp

A

96.8-99

245
Q

diffusion

A

movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and red blood cells

246
Q

perfusion

A

the distribution of red blood cells to and from the capillaries

247
Q

upper respiratory tract

A

nose, mouth, sinuses, pharynx, larynx, and upper trachea

248
Q

lower respiratory tract

A

lower trachea, bronchi, and lungs

249
Q

cystic fibrosis

A

mucus producing cells always secreting

250
Q

vesicular breath sounds

A

soft, low pitched, found over fine airways and near sites of air exchange

251
Q

bronchovesicular breath sounds

A

found over major bronchi that have fewer alveoli

252
Q

rhonchi

A

low pitched continuous sounds. similar to wheezes. imply obstruction of the larger airways

253
Q

expected findings of bronchophony

A

sounds should be muffled, is sounds are clear can indicate consolidation

254
Q

physical exam findings with COPD

A

hyperresonance, decreased chest exclusion, decreased fremitus, dyspnea, pallor, pursed lip breathing

255
Q

physical exam findings with asthma

A

tachypnea, tachycardia, retractions, wheezing, hyper expansion of the thorax

256
Q

physical exam findings of pneumonia

A

SOB, fever, decreased breath sounds, increased pulse, cough, phlegm, pain in chest, decreased SaO2

257
Q

atelectasis

A

consolidation and closing of small airways. will have decreased breath sounds in the bases

258
Q

pleural effusion

A

fluid in pleural space

259
Q

pneumothorax

A

air in pleural space - can cause tracheal deviation to good side

260
Q

hemothorax

A

blood in the pleural space

261
Q

shock

A

decrease perfusion systemically

262
Q

SA node

A

body’s natural pacemaker

263
Q

electrical condition of the heart

A

SA node, AV node, bundle of his, purkinje fibers

264
Q

what is going on during systole

A

mitral and tricuspid valves are closing

265
Q

what is going on during diastole

A

pulmonic and aortic valves are closing

266
Q

exception to direction of arteries and veins

A

pulmonary vein and artery

267
Q

pulse pressure

A

the pressure difference between the systolic and diastolic pressure. normal is 30-40

268
Q

S3

A

extra heart sound that occurs just after s2 can be normal in children. also called kentucky

269
Q

S4

A

extra heart sound occurs just before S1. normal in children. also called Tennessee

270
Q

NSTEMI

A

someone who we don’t see changes in EKG but think the are having MI. vessel is semi blocked bu still has some blood flow

271
Q

STEMI

A

see changes in EKG. means vessel is completely blocked

272
Q

intermittent claudication

A

pain that is relieved with rest

273
Q

arterial ulcer characteristics

A

tips of toes, heel, very painful, deep, circular shape, minimal edema

274
Q

venous ulcer characteristics

A

medial malleolus or anterior tibial, less painful than arterial, superficial depth, irregular border, granulated tissue, edema moderate to severe

275
Q

thrombophlebitis

A

inflammation of vein that may or may not be accompanied by a clot

276
Q

paresthesia

A

numbness or tingling

277
Q

assessing pitting edema and grade

A

apply pressure on shin.
0+ - no pitting edema
1+ - mild (2mm)
2+ - deeper pit (4mm) disappears in 10-15 sec
3+ - deep pit (6mm) last more than a minute
4+ - severe (8mm)- can last more than 2 minutes

278
Q

valve stenosis

A

valve opening is narrowed. tissue is stiffer. heard during diastole when valve is opening. forward flow of blood impaired

279
Q

valve regurgitation

A

incomplete valve back flow of the blood. heard when valve is trying to close.

280
Q

pericarditis

A

inflammation of the pericardial sac. chest pain that is worse with inspiration and lying flat and relieved by sitting up.

281
Q

if you can’t pump right

A

back up into systemic

282
Q

if you can’t pump left

A

back up into lungs

283
Q

What objective findings would you predict to find with pulmonary edema

A

SOB, 3 word dyspnea, increased work of breathing, tachypnea, cyanosis or pallor, crackles heard upon auscultation, increased tactile fremitus, Bronchophony potentially present, dull percussion

284
Q

What objective findings would you predict to find with left sided failure

A

Potentially anxious, pale, cyanotic. Dyspnea, tachypnea, left ventricular heave/palpable thrill, tachycardia, displaced apical pulse, S3 heart sound, Systolic murmur, Crackles (pulmonary edema)

285
Q

what objective finings would you predict to find with mitral valve regurgitation

A

Many people asymptomatic. Weakness, fatigue, Dyspnea on exertion, palpitations, systolic murmur, possible s3 heart sound. Could be acute- signs of pulmonary edema, thready pulse, cool, Clammy extremities

286
Q

what objective finings would you predict to find with right sided heart failure

A

Fatigue, JVD, dependent peripheral edema, dusky hyperpigmentation of LE skin, S3 heart sounds, systolic murmur, weight gain, enlarged liver, Right ventricle heave, tachycardia

287
Q

people with burns are at risk for

A

hypovolemic shock

288
Q

what lab do we look at to assess nutrition

A

total protein= prealbumin, albumin, and globulin

289
Q

normal albumin

A

3.5-5 gdL

290
Q

prealbumin normal levels

A

15-36 mg/dL

291
Q

normal levels of blood glucose

A

70-105 mg/dL

292
Q

what do alcohol and street drugs do to your nutrition

A

decrease nutritional absorption

293
Q

how do you calculate BMI with inches and pounds

A

((weight in pounds/(height in inches x height inches)) X 703

294
Q

esophagus ph

A

6-8

295
Q

stomach ph

A

2-4

296
Q

liver functions

A

bile production, secretion to emulsify fat, transfer bilirubin, metabolism of proteins, carbohydrates, and fats, storage of glucose in form of glycogen, production of clotting factors and fibrinogen for coagulation, synthesis of plasma proteins, detoxification of substances, and storage of minerals and vitamins

297
Q

plasma proteins

A

albumin and globulin

298
Q

gallbladder

A

stores bile produced by liver and ducts drain bile into duodenum

299
Q

endocrine secretions of the pancreas

A

insulin, glucagon, somatostatin, and gastrin

300
Q

exocrine secretions of the pancreas

A

bicarbonate, pancreatic enzymes

301
Q

kidneys

A

erythropoietin secretion for erythrocyte production, regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance, RAAS, production of active vitamin D

302
Q

Right upper quadrant ABD

A

liver, gallbladder, pylorus, duodenum, head of pancreas, right kidney, right adrenal gland, hepatic flexure of colon, portions of ascending and transverse colon

303
Q

left upper quadrant ABD

A

stomach, spleen, left lobe of liver, body of pancreas, left kidney, left adrenal gland, splenic flexure of colon, and portions of transverse and descending colon

304
Q

left lower quadrant ABD

A

portion of descending colon, sigmoid colon, left ureter, left ovary, left spermatic cord, bladder if distended, and uterus if enlarged

305
Q

right lower quadrant ABD

A

cecum, appendix, right ovary, right ureter, right spermatic cord, bladder if distended, and uterus if enlarged

306
Q

what could black stool indicate

A

bleeding internally due to ulcer or cancer

307
Q

what could light color or white stool indicate

A

it could mean a bile duct obstruction

308
Q

what could red stool mean

A

symptom of cancer

309
Q

what can brown urine indicate

A

increased bilirubin

310
Q

cola urine

A

rhabdomyolysis from muscle breakdown

311
Q

entero

A

intestine

312
Q

colo

A

large intestine

313
Q

procto

A

anus/rectum

314
Q

cysto or vesical

A

bladder

315
Q

uro

A

relating to urine

316
Q

findings with GERD

A

heartburn, regurgitation, dysphagia, often aggravated by lying down relived by sitting up antacids, eating, and mid epigastric pain with palpation

317
Q

peptic ulcer disease risk factors

A

H. Pylori, NSAIDS, ASA, corticosteroids

318
Q

peptic ulcer disease findings

A

burning pain in the LUQ/epigastric anywhere from 1-4 hours after eating

319
Q

hepatitis A

A

usually food-borne

320
Q

hepatitis B

A

uncommon secondary due to immunization

321
Q

hepatitis C

A

common. often undiagnosed, sometimes it doesn’t effect liver enzymes profoundly, leading cause of cirrhosis and liver transplant

322
Q

risk factors for gallstones

A

female, fat, flatulent, forty

323
Q

gallstones clinical finding

A

RUQ colicky pain that can radiate to right shoulder, indigestion, mild jaundice, nausea after eating high fat foods

324
Q

clinical findings of pancreatitis

A

sudden onset, LUQ can radiate to back, chronic, pain is deep, piercing, and heavy, weight loss, steatorrhea, tender abdomen, ascites, jaundice, hypotension, internal bleeding, shock, patient in fetal position

325
Q

nephrolithiasis

A

kidney stones

326
Q

clinical findings of kidney stones

A

fever, hematuria, severe pain at costovertebral angle

327
Q

radiculopathy

A

referred pain. pain that is causing/radiating somewhere else

328
Q

vagus knees

A

knocked knees and usually obese

329
Q

varus knees

A

bowed and usually skinny

330
Q

what is the screening for osteoporosis?

A

the Dexa scan

331
Q

lordosis

A

A curving inward of the lower back

332
Q

dysphasia

A

also called aphasia - difficulty speaking or understanding due to neurological changes

333
Q

dysarthria

A

slurring

334
Q

dysphagia

A

difficulty swallowing

335
Q

dementia that occurs in younger people

A

Korsakoff’s dementia and pick’s disease

336
Q

risk factors for dementia

A

age, brain/head injury, fewer years of education, female, genetics, alcohol

337
Q

visceral pain

A

originates from the abdominal organs. is crampy or gnawing

338
Q

somatic pain

A

originates from the skin, muscle, bones, and joints. aching or throbbing

339
Q

cutaneous pain

A

originates from the dermis, epidermis, and subcutaneous tissue. described as sharp

340
Q

referred pain

A

called radiculopathy. originates from a specific site but pain is at another site

341
Q

protective structures of the central nervous system

A

meninges

342
Q

layers of the meninges

A

dura matter - outer layer, arachnoid - middle layer, Pia matter - inner meningeal layer that contains blood vessels

343
Q

frontal lobe

A

primary motor cortex responsible for functions related to voluntary motor activity. controls intellectual function, awareness of self, personality, and autonomic responses related to emotion

344
Q

broca’s area

A

in the left frontal lobe. formulation of words

345
Q

parietal lobe

A

contains sensory cortex contains position sense, touch, shape, and texture objects

346
Q

temporal lobe

A

contains primary auditory cortex, wernickes area

347
Q

wernickes area

A

responsible for comprehension of speech, speech production, and interpreting sounds

348
Q

parkinsons causes

A

tremors at rest

349
Q

FAST

A

face- facial droop
arm - hemiparesis
speech - dysarthria/aphasia
timing - 3 hr window for t-PA

350
Q

hemiparesis

A

Muscle weakness or partial paralysis on one side of the body that can affect the arms, legs, and facial muscles.

351
Q

dementia vs delirium

A

delirium - Serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of surroundings.
dementia - A group of thinking and social symptoms that interferes with daily functioning.

352
Q

ligament

A

bone to bone

353
Q

tendon

A

muscle to bone

354
Q

Sepsis signs and symptoms

A

high HR, fever, shivering, fever, confusion, shortness of breath, pain, clammy, sweaty

355
Q

wheezes

A

hissing or resonant sounds

356
Q

emphysema will have what type of resonance

A

hyper resonance

357
Q

percussion of fluids such as pneumonia or a mass

A

sounds will be dull

358
Q

increased tactile remits would indicate

A

consolidation

359
Q

percussion of ABD will be _______ over hollow organs

A

tympanic

360
Q

MMT

A

manual muscle testing

361
Q

ataxia

A

Impaired balance or coordination, can be due to damage to brain, nerves, or muscles.

362
Q

apraxia

A

Inability to perform a movement or task when asked despite having the desire and physical capability to carry it out

363
Q

Obtunded

A

Louder, more vigorous stimuli will awaken patient, but patient promptly returns to “sleep

364
Q

stuporous

A

will withdraw from painful stimuli

365
Q

semicomatose

A

responds to painful stimuli with abnormal flexion or extension

366
Q

comatose

A

does not respond to any stimuli

367
Q

Glasgow coma scale

A

3 is the worst and 15 is best

368
Q

expressive aphasia

A

can comprehend but cannot speak (Broca)

369
Q

global aphasia

A

cannot understand or express

370
Q

receptive aphasia

A

cannot associate words and meaning but still able to speak (wernickes)

NURSING School (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions