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passmed qs > 23/06 > Flashcards

23/06 Flashcards

1
Q

Transudate (< 30g/L protein)

A

heart failure - most common
hypoalbuminaemia
hypothyroidism
meigs syndrome

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2
Q

Exudate (> 30g/L protein)

A

infection - PNEUMONIA (most common cause)
CTD
neoplasia
pancreatitis
PE
dressers
yellow nail

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3
Q

what to rule out in pts with urinary incontinence

A

diabetes and UTI

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4
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the upper zones

A

hypersensitivity pneumonitis
coal worker’s pneumoconiosis
silicosis
sarcoidosis
ankylosing spondylitis (rare)
histiocytosis
tuberculosis

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5
Q

Fibrosis predominately affecting the lower zones

A

idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
most connective tissue disorders (except ankylosing spondylitis) e.g. SLE
drug-induced: amiodarone, bleomycin, methotrexate
asbestosis

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6
Q

feltys syndrome

A

RA, splenomegaly and low white cell count

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7
Q

Plucking of clothes, smacking of lips, aura and feelings of de-ja-vu

A

temporal lobe seizures

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8
Q

Head/leg movements, posturing, post-ictal weakness, Jacksonian march

A

frontal lobe seizures

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9
Q

Paraesthesia

A

parietal lobe seizures

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10
Q

Floaters/flashes

A

occipital lobe seizures

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11
Q

positive femoral nerve stretch test

A

referred lumbar spine pain as a cause of hip pain

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12
Q

reduced reticulocyte count

A

aplastic crisis

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13
Q

increased reticulocyte count

A

sequestration crisis

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14
Q

opioids in pts severe renal impairment

A

buprenorphine or fentanyl

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15
Q

opioids in pts with mild renal impairment

A

oxycodone

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16
Q

axillary freckles

A

neurofibromatosis T1

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17
Q

lamotrigine adverse effect

A

steven johnsons syndrome

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18
Q

twisting injury with pain worse on straightening the knee

A

meniscal injury

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19
Q

how long should anti-depressants be continued

A

6 months AFTER remission of symptoms

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20
Q

carcinoid syndrome

A

5 HIAA

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21
Q

Renal transplant + infection

A

?CMV

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22
Q

low/normal phosphate

A

secondary hyperparathyroidism

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23
Q

high phosphate

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

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24
Q

excessive sodium chloride

A

hyperchloraemic metabolic acidosis

25
Q

contact lens assoc keratitis

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

26
Q

cortisol is not suppressed by low-dose dexamethasone but is suppressed by high-dose dexamethasone

A

cushings disease

27
Q

acute, severe, symptomatic hyponatraemia

A

hypertonic saline

28
Q

intussuception imaging

A

abdo USS

29
Q

differentiating true seizure from a pseudoseizure

A

prolactin

30
Q

h pylori eradication therapy

A

PPI
amox
clari

31
Q

CT head within 1 hour

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment
GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign).
post-traumatic seizure.
focal neurological deficit.
more than 1 episode of vomiting

32
Q

CT head within 8 hours

A

have experienced some loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury +
age 65 years or older
any history of bleeding or clotting disorders including anticogulants
dangerous mechanism of injury (a pedestrian or cyclist struck by a motor vehicle, an occupant ejected from a motor vehicle or a fall from a height of greater than 1 metre or 5 stairs)
more than 30 minutes’ retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury

33
Q

isolated raised ALP

A

pagets disease

34
Q

tx of pagets disease

A

bisphosphonates eg risendronate

35
Q

complication of fluid resus in DKA c

A

cerebral oedema

36
Q

when are IV fluids given for burns

A

in adults - second or third degree burns that cover 15% body surface area
in kids - when burns cover 10% of body surface area

37
Q

parkland formula

A

volume of fluid= total body surface area of the burn % x weight (Kg) x4
Half of the fluid is administered in the first 8 hours

38
Q

coarse red rash

A

scarlet fever

39
Q

loss of fine motor function in both upper limbs

A

DCM

40
Q

anti-nuclear and/or anti-smooth muscle antibodies

A

AI hepatitis

41
Q

anti-mitochondrial antibodies

A

primary biliary cirrhosis

42
Q

septic arthritis YA

A

gonorrhea

43
Q

early diastolic murmur that is louder on expiration and is best heard in the 3rd intercostal space left sternal edge

A

aortic regurgitation

44
Q

if 1st repeat smear at 12 months is still hrHPV +ve

A

repeat smear 12 months later (i.e. at 24 months)

45
Q

gout in someone taking warfarin

A

cochicine
avoid NSAIDs

46
Q

hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma

A

MSH2/MLH1 gene mutations

47
Q

Scrotal swelling you can’t get above

A

inguinoscrotal hernia

48
Q

endocrine disorder as a result of lithium therapy

A

hypothyroidism

49
Q

What is the latest time that HIV post-exposure prophylaxis may be given

A

72 hours after the event

50
Q

type of adrenaline given in cardiac arrest

A

INTRAVENOUS

51
Q

painful hernia

A

strangulated

52
Q

PE ABG

A

resp alkalosis

53
Q

mid shaft humeral fracture

A

radial nerve

54
Q

B blocker overdose

A

IV glucagon

55
Q

intermittent right iliac fossa pain

A

ileal crohns disease

56
Q

rheumatic fever tx

A

IM benzylpenicillin / oral penicillin V

57
Q

P TB med

A

pyrazinamide

58
Q

AFP

A

hepatocellular cancer

passmed qs (18 decks)

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