2019 Old Exam Flashcards

1
Q

All preganglionic autonomic releases

A

ACH

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2
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic releases

A

ACH

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3
Q

Postganglionic sympathetic releases

A

NE

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4
Q

If you have dry mouth, what receptor do you want to target

A

M3

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5
Q

Which of the following drugs has the greatest risk of causing orthostatic hypotension?

A

Terazosin

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6
Q

Which of the following drugs has anticholinergic side effects such as dry mouth

A

Lidocaine

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7
Q

What part of the EKG is ventricular repolarization

A

T wave

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8
Q

Irreversible indirect acting cholinergic

A

Sarin

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9
Q

Regeneration of AchE

A

Pralidoxidine

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10
Q

First line agent for someone that has been exposed to nerve gas

A

Pralidoxidine

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11
Q

What would not be fixed by atropine

A

paralysis

because it only works on muscarinic and not on nictoinic

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12
Q

Quaternary amine

A

Glycopyrrolate

used to dry secretions, quaternary amine

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13
Q

What would a pt not have if having cholinergic toxicity

A

Dry mouth

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14
Q

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker

A

Succinylcholine

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15
Q

Which relieves angina without changing HR or BP

A

Ranolazine

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16
Q

Which one increases intracellular cGMP

A

Isosorbide mononitrate

used for angina and HF, it is the one that increases intracellular cGMP

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17
Q

What breaks down Ach in the blood

A

AchE

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18
Q

Which alpha agonist ( i think it is supposed to be anatagonist) causes orthostatic __

A

Alpha one; hypotension

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19
Q

Which of the following does beta 1 NOT do

A

Bronchodilation

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20
Q

Which of the following does beta 2 do

A

Bronchodilation

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21
Q

KNOW THE ALPHA ONE EFFECTs

A

Vascoconstriction

mydriasis

urinary sphincter constriction

Increased BP

22
Q

In a pt with anaphylaxis, what do you give them

A

0.3 mg of IM EPI

23
Q

Alpha one agonist that helps with short term hypotension and nasal decongestion

A

phenylephrine

24
Q

Which is a PDE 3 inhibitor

A

Milirinone

25
The L in LOT stands for
Lorazepam
26
Short acting beta 2 agonist for asthma
albuterol
27
What do you not use in asthmatic patients a. Aspirin, NSAIDS b. Opiates c. Antihistamines d. All of the above
all above
28
Aspirin and coumadin adverse effect
bleeding
29
What beta blocker should you give an asthmatic patient
metaprolol (beta 1 selective)
30
drug variation can be classified as idosyncratic, pharmacokinetic or
pharmacodynamic
31
Different outcomes with same concentration and same outcome with different concentrations for drug variation
true
32
Lipid distribution increases as you age because of
increased body fat
33
What phase of metabolism is not prone to aging
2
34
In pregnancy patients, they have increased CO and __ GFR and __ RBF
increased, increased
35
Non-covalent modification is depletion of glutathione. What does this do?
disrupts the cell defense
36
Anti-epileptic that causes gingival hyperplasia
phenytoin
37
How many mutations do you have to have for malignancy?
more than 1
38
Teratogens are detrimental and cause cell division issues during
blastocyte formation
39
Phase III is caused by
K+ movement
40
Product of CO
sv x hr
41
What class does Na+ fall under
class I
42
Class IV are selective for myocardium
nondihydropyridine
43
What drug causes dry mouth
disopyramides
44
What drug inhibits the Na/K ATPase
digoxin
45
Which one is not a part of acute coronary syndromes a. Stable ischemic heart disease b. STEMI c. NSTEMI d. Unstable
stable ischemic heart disease
46
More than 100 bpm is classified as
tachycardic
47
Allergic reactions are often dose independent and not related to the drug’s MOA
true
48
When someone an adverse effect to a drug how do you fix it?
dose redcuction
49
A drug that inhibits gastic emptying
slows absorption
50
Which of the following are endogenous catecholamines
NE, epi, dopamine
51
Epinephrine is produced by the adrenal medulla and is released directly into the bloodstream. This makes epi a
hormone