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Pharmo Test Two Old Test Review > 2021 exam > Flashcards

2021 exam Flashcards

1
Q

Beta adrenoreceptor blocks (beta blockers) are in which Vaugh williams classification for antiarrhythmic medications?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

class II

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2
Q

Which of the following substances is released by the adrenal medulla and is considered to be a neurohormone?

a. Epinephrine
b. Norepinephrine
c. Dopamine
d. Acetylcholine

A

epinephrine

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3
Q

In older pt or those over the age of 65, it is not uncommon to see a decrease in hepatic activity, especially ______ metabolism which can lead to drug accumulation

a. Phase I
b. Phase 2
c. Phase 3
d. Phase 4

A

phase 1

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4
Q

Which antianginal medication has a risk of QT prolongation and may cause an arrhythmia called torsade de points (TdP)?

a. Atenolol
b. Isosorbide mononitrate
c. Ranolazine
d. Verapamil

A

Ranolazine

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5
Q

Beta 1 receptor agonist leads to all of the following except

a. increase d HR
b. Bronchodilation
c. Positive inotropy
d. Increased conduction

A

Bronchodilation

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6
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is a side effect that has been associated MOST COMMONLY with which one of the following antiseizure medications?

a. Iamotrtigine
b. Topiramate
c. Phenytoin
d. Levetiracetam

A

Phenytoin

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7
Q

Cardiac output is a function of HR and other factor ?

a. Afterload
b. End diastolic volume
c. End systolic volume
d. Stroke volume

A

stroke volume

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8
Q

Which of the following agents has the greatest risk causing orthostatic hypotension when your pt goes from sitting to standing

a. Tamsulosin
b. Clonidine
c. Dexmedetomidine
d. Terazosin

A

Terazosin

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9
Q

Which of the following agents is considered first line treatment to increase HR and to dry secretion in patients exposed to nerve agents?

a. Glycopyrrolate
b. Atropine
c. Edrophonium
d. Pralidoxime

A

atropine

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10
Q

Which medication increased cardiac contractility by stimulating myocardial beta 1 receptors?

a. Digitoxin
b. DOBUTamine- stress test?
c. Levosimendan
d. Milirinone

A

dobut amine stress test???

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11
Q

Which of the following is a good surrogate marker of myocardial oxygen demand?

a. Afterload
b. Double product (heart x systolic BP)
c. Preload
d. Troponin

A

Double product (heart x systolic BP)

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12
Q

A patient is utilizing the beta agonist albuterol (ventolin) on an as needed basis for asthma. Which on the following meds is most likely to result in a pharmacodynamic interaction and negate the beneficial effect of albuterol?

A

propanoid a beta blocker

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13
Q

Individual drug variation can result from pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic differences and may also be categorized as idiosyncratic. Which of the following statements provides an example of a pharmacodynamic effect?

a. Metabolism by liver enzyme CYP3A4
b. Protein binding to albumin
c. Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptor
d. Increased distribution

A

Sedation from blocking histamine 1 receptor

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14
Q

Which one of the following med is more likely to be association w the development of anaphylactic shock?

a. Clozapine
b. Valproic acid
c. Sulfamethoxazole trimethoprim (bactrim)
d. Penicillin (pen VK)

A

Penicillin (pen VK)

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15
Q

During dental procedure which drugs should you avoid in pt w history of asthma?

a. Aspirin
b. Opiates
c. Antihistamines
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

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16
Q

Which of the following neuromuscular blockers is classified as depolarizing paralytic?

a. Pancuronium
b. Rocuronium
c. Succinylcholine
d. Vecuronium

A

Succinylcholine

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17
Q

Grapefruit juice inhibitor of which liver enzyme

a. Cyp2d6
b. cyp3A4
c. Cyp2c9
d. Cyp2b19

A

cyp3A4

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18
Q

Ventricular repolarization represented on the ECG by the

a. P wave
b. PR interval
c. QRS complex
d. T wave

A

T wave

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19
Q

Which of the following agent is a phosphodiesterase 3 inhibitor

a. Dobutamine
b. Dopamine
c. Milirinone
d. Phenylephrine

A

Milirinone

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20
Q

Which of the following is an example of an irreversible indirect acting cholinergic agent?

a. Sarin
b. Donepezil
c. Galantamine
d. Rivastigmine

A

sarin

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21
Q

Toxin induced cell damage from drug metabolites can occur through a series of non covalent and covalent interactions. Which one of the following is considered a non covalent type of interaction

a. Exposed hepatocytes resulting in hepatoxicity
b. Increase protein resulting in nephrotoxicity
c. Increased build up of glutathione
d. Formation of h2o2

A

Formation of h2o2

22
Q

A patient present to the dental clinic for routine cleaning. The pt complains of extreme dry mouth and feeling sleepy. You review the medication profile, which one of the following medications is most likely to result in dry mouth and sedation due to pharmacodynamic based receptor effects at the histamine receptor?

a. Diphenhydramine, benadryl - allergy med
b. Sertraline (zoloft), depression
c. Propranolol, blood pressure medication
d. Valproic acid, anti seizure medication

A

Diphenhydramine, benadryl

allergy med

23
Q

What are the 3 endogenous catecholamines?

a. Norepinephrine, dopamine, epinephrine
b. Dopamine, vasopressin, phenylephrine
c. Norepinephrine, dobutamine, epinephrine
d. Dobutamine, vasopressin, norepinephrine

A

Norepinephrine, dopamine, epinephrine

24
Q

Which of the following results from covalent modification and alteration of DNA?

a. Teratogenicity
b. Mutagenesis
c. Carcinogenicity
d. Cardiotoxicity

A

mutagenesis

25
Q

Which of the following beta blockers would be considered be safest to use in a pt with severe asthma?

a. Timolol
b. Metoprolol
c. Carvedilol
d. Propranolol

A

Metoprolol

26
Q

Sympathetic post ganglionic neuron released which of the following

a. Norepinephrine
b. Acetylcholine
c. Dopamine
d. Tyrosine

A

Norepinephrine

27
Q

A new drug is in developement that is designed to treat chronic dry mouth. In order to minimize the potential for adverse effects and unwanted clinical effects while maximizing the ability to stimulate saliva secretion, which of the following receptors should this new drug be a selective agonist of?

a. M1
b. M2
c. M3
d. Post ganglionic nicotinic receptor

A

M3

28
Q

Physical state of pregnancy can contribute to the drug variation. Which of the following statement is a correct observation of a physiologic change that commonly occurs during pregnancy?

a. Increased renal blood flow and decreased GFR
b. Increased renal blood flow and GFR
c. Increased maternal plasma protein
d. Decreased cardiac output

A

Increased renal blood flow and GFR

29
Q

Calcium channel blockers are in which vaughan-williams classification for antiarrhythmic medications?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

Clsss IV

30
Q

Which of the following anticholinergic drugs is considered a quaternary amine, meaning it has greater peripheral effects and low CNS effects?

a. Atropine
b. Benztropine
c. Dicyclomine
d. Glycopyrrolate

A

Glycopyrrolate

31
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of alpha 1 adrenergic receptor activation?

a. Inhibitory peripheral response
b. Increases sympathetic tone
c. Decreases blood pressure
d. Causes bronchodilation

A

Increases sympathetic tone

32
Q

In a patient who presents w severe cholinergic toxicity, which of the following symptoms would atropine not be effective in treatment

a. Bradycardia
b. Hypersalivation
c. Paralysis
d. Urination

A

paralysis

33
Q

Which potent alpha agonist can be used both as a nasal decongestant and for short term management for hypotension

a. Epinephrine
b. Phenylephrine
c. Dobutamine
d. Dopamine

A

Phenylephrine

34
Q

An example of adverse effect that is independent of the drug’s main pharmacological mechanism of action is which of the following

a. Aspirin and tinnitus
b. Sertraline and stomach upset
c. Clozapine and sedation
d. Hydroxyzine and dry eye

A

Aspirin and tinnitus

35
Q

Which type of arrhythmia with a HR greater than 100 beats pr minute?

a. Asystole
b. bradycardia
c. Heart block
d. Tachycardia

A

Tachycardia

36
Q

Which of the following drugs is used to regenerated acetylcholinesterase following exposure to nerve agents

a. Atropine
b. Pyridostigmine
c. Pralidoxime
d. Succinylcholine

A

pralidoxime

37
Q

Which of the following medication improves angine by inhibiting calcium ions influx through L type of slow calcium channels?

a. Amlodipine (norvasc)
b. Metoprolol (lopressor/tropol XL)
c. Nitroglycerine (nitrostat)
d. Ranolazine (ranexa)

A

Amlodipine (norvasc)

38
Q

Which of the following is the preferred dose and route of epinephrine for management of anaphylaxis?

a. 0.3 mg IV
b. 0.3 mg subcutaneously
c. 0.3 mg IMG
d. 1 mg IV

A

0.3 mg IMG

39
Q

Fluoxetine is a SSRI antidepressant and inhibitor of cytochrome p450 2d6. Risperidone is antipsychotic and is a substance for cytochrome p450 2d6. What effect would you expect fluoxetine to have on risperidone in terms of concentration?

a. Risperidone levels increase
b. Risperidone leaves decrease
c. Risperidone levels not impacted

A

increased risperidone levels

40
Q

Which medication is an example of selective beta 2 agonist that provides short term control in patients w asthma?

a. Albuterol
b. Formoterol
c. Salmeterol
d. Budesonide

A

Albuterol

41
Q

Which of the following is TRUE regarding beta 2 adrenergic receptor

a. Enhanced myocardial contractility
b. Excitatory responses
c. Triggers bronchodilation
d. Increase in chronotropy and inotropy

A

triggers bronchodilation

42
Q

Which of the following medication has a risk of gingival hyperplasia ?

a. Acebutolol
b. Dilitazem
c. Ivabradine
d. Ranolazine

A

Dilitazem

43
Q

A drug that has an effect of increasing gastric emptying will have an effect on gastrointestinal absorption of drug?

a. Increased absorption
b. Decreased absorption
c. Initial decrease and then an increase in absorption
d. No effect on absorption

A

Increased absorption

44
Q

Ethnic variation is a possible contributor to the quantitative and qualitative responses that individuals experience to medication and other drugs. An example of this is that some individuals of chinese descent do not metabolize alcohol as well and may experience flushing and palpitations. This is because of a buildup of plasma concentrations of _________

a. Nitric oxide
b. Acetaldehyde
c. Renin
d. Acetic acid

A

acetaldehyde

45
Q

Which of the following neurotransmitters is released by postganglionic fibers of the parasympathetic system?

a. Norepinephrine
b. Epinephrine
c. Atropine
d. Acetylcholine

A

acetycholine

46
Q

Which of the following medication has a possible adverse drug reaction (ADR) of photosensitivity which may make it painful for pt to have a dental light in their eyes?

a. Amidraonine
b. Disopyramide
c. Metoprolol
d. Propafenone

A

Amidraonine

47
Q

Which ion is required to bind to actin and myosin to produce cardiac contractility?

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Magnesium

A

calcium

48
Q

Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to see in patient presenting with acute cholinergic toxicity?

a. Diarrhea
b. Dry mouth
c. Emesis
d. Miosis

A

Dry mouth

49
Q

Movement of this ion is responsible for the rapid repolarization phase (phase 3) of the cardiac action potential?

a. Calcium
b. Magnesium
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

A

potassium

50
Q

What is a common pharmacologic effect of alpha adrenergic antagonist that can occur if a dental patients gets up from their chair too quickly?

a. Alpha 2 blockade - orthostatic hypertension
b. Alpha 2 blockade - orthostatic hypotension
c. Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypotension
d. Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypertension

A

Alpha 1 blockade - orthostatic hypotension

51
Q

Which of the following enzymes is responsible for breaking down free acetylcholine in the serum?

a. Monoamine oxidase
b. catechol O methyl transferase
c. Acetylcholinesterase
d. Dopamine

A

Acetylcholinesterase

52
Q

What substance is released by PREGANGLIONIC fibers in the autonomic nervous system?

a. Acetylcholine
b. COMT
c. Epinephrine
d. Dopamine

A

Acetylcholine

Pharmo Test Two Old Test Review (8 decks)

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