2019 Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

If a drug is not producing the effect that it’s supposed to, the FDA has the right to take it off the shelves

A

true

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2
Q

A patient with gingivitis hates the taste of chx mouthwash. What else could they use?

A

.2%TTO

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3
Q

What drug has a similar effect of captopril without the side effect of cough

A

sartans

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4
Q

All of the following ultimately result in an increase in cGMP EXCEPT

A

Hydralazine

MOA: decreases Ca++ through direct acting interference on IP3, so there is no increase in CGMP or CAMP.

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5
Q

Fibrates work by

A

Binding to the PPAR alpha nuclear receptor and increasing its activity

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6
Q

Which drug decreases the cholesterol of absorption and can be combined with statins?

A

Ezetimibe

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7
Q

Which drug has the major side effect of flushing?

A

niacin

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8
Q

What does PCSK-9 do?

A

Answer:
promotes degradation of the LDL receptors

Explanation

that is why to lower LDL, we must use a PCSK-9 Inhibitor to keep the PCSK-9 to degrade LDL.

—-> that is my explanation, let me know if you disagree.

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9
Q

Named a statin. What is the major ADR

A

myopathy

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10
Q

What drug inhibits VKORC1?

A

warfarin

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11
Q

Argatroban is monitored using what 0parameter?

A

aPTT

Argatroban is `a Direct thrombin inhibitor.

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12
Q

what converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I

A

renin

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13
Q

What is the key mediator in fibrinolysis?

A

plasmin

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14
Q

St John’s wart is a major inducer of drugs that are metabolized by what

A

3A4

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15
Q

What binds to the PAR-1 receptor?

A

thromboxane A2

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16
Q

Which of the following is true o0f cAMP?

A

Increased cAMP leads to vasodilation

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17
Q

Which of the following blocks L type calcium channels?

A
  • dipines

explanation: these are direct acting vasodilators. The example given was amlodipine.

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18
Q

Which of the following has the side effect of hair growth?

A

minoxidil

this drug opens Katp channels and turns off the voltage gated Ca2+ channels

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19
Q

Which increases intracellular NO?

A

Sodium nitroprusside

20
Q

Someone with marked limitation is classified as what by WHO?

A

Class III

explanation:

this is referring to pulmonary hypertension

21
Q

Which of the following is a PDE-5 inhibitor?

A

Sildenafil

explanation: this is a drug that has drug to drug interaction with Sodium Nitroprussides.

22
Q

When does IP3 cause vasoconstriction?

A

When Ca is released from the SR

EXPLANATION
Hydralazine works to combat this

23
Q

Which of the following has the highest proportion of TGs

A

chylomicrons

Descending order: chylo-, VLDL, LDL, and HDL

24
Q

Which of the following is good cholesterol

25
10 year risk assessment is
ASCVD Atherosclerotic Cardiovascular Disease markers
26
When cholesterol and TGs are taken in from the diet, what pathway are they metabolized by?
exogenous
27
Which of the following has intense GI problems?
welchol MOA: binds bile acid preventing resorption. Mainly has GI effect.
28
Which of the following affects Xa and thrombin?
heparin MOA: heparin activates antithromin III which inhibits thrombin and factor Xa
29
Negative effect of bile acid binding agents?
increased TGs
30
Which of the following is a PCSK9 inhibitor?
Evoloumab PCSK9 prmotoes the degradation of LDL receptors, but evoloumab, which is a PCSK9 inhibitor keeps the LDL receptors around to degrade LDL.
31
If supplements have a proprietary blend, they do not have to list out the individual ingredients?
true
32
Which of the following interferes with the final platelet aggregation?
Eptifibatide is a glycoprotein IIb/IIIa inhibitors
33
Patient wants supplement that increases salivary flow
Co-Q
34
Which of the following helps with burning mouth?
Alpha lipoic acid
35
Which of the following has the shortest onset of action?
cangrelor Cangrelar is a P2Y12 inhibitor and has an onset action time of 2 minutes.
36
Which factor is not vitamin K dependent
factro IV
37
Which of the following is an anti-fibrinolytic agent?
Aminocaproic acid this antifibrinic agent works to prevent plasminogen to plasmin and fibrin to clot formation..
38
Which of these can be taken orally, inhalation, intravenous, and subcutaneously? - Sildenafil - Treprostinil - Bosentan
treprostinil
39
A patient wants to take 250mg of ginger before treatment and 250mg after treatment. What should you tell her?
That’s fine as long as she takes the dose as she described above
40
A patient likes to take Valium but you know they also took Echinacea, which inhibits the enzyme that normally metabolizes Valium. What should you tell the patient?
Be careful driving home bc the effects will be increased
41
A patient undergoes radiation therapy. Which of the following can you use to prevent oral mucositis? ``` a- Tea tree oil B- Chamomile C- Co-enzyme Q10 D- Tumeric E- B and D ```
B and D
42
Which of the following should have a warming to avoid drinking alcohol?
Valerian
43
You colleague does not believe in taking or prescribing dietary substances. Which of the following would you NOT do? A- Ask because it can have drug interactions with medications you prescribe B-Ask because it could cause increased risks in the procedure C-Both of the above are true D- There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.
d- There is no need to ask the patient about these supplements.
44
The 4 Gs cause increased bleeding risk due to what mechanism?
Decrease platelet activation and platelet aggregation
45
Which of the following does IIb/IIIa receptor do?
Platlet Aggregation