2016 51 Monochorionic Twins Flashcards

1
Q

How is monochorionic twin pregnancy diagnosed?

A
  1. US 11-13+6
  2. By number of placental masses, appearance of membrane attachment to placenta, membrane thickness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How do the outcomes of monochorionic pregnancy compare to dichorionic?

A
  1. Higher fetal loss, esp 2nd trimester
  2. Neurodevelopmental morbidity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What ultrasound regime is recommended for monochorionic twins?

A
  1. Every 2 weeks from 16/40 if uncomplicated
  2. DVP, UAPI, fetal bladders, EFW, discordance
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is TAPS?
How is it screened for?

A

Twin anaemia polycythaemia sequence
Complication of LASER ablation for TTTS
MCA PSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What level of growth discordance is associated with increased perinatal risk?

A

> 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What umbilical artery features are associated with perinatal M&M?

A
  1. Absent or reversed end-diastolic velocity
  2. Cyclical waveforms (intermittent AREDV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What system is used to stage TTTS?

A

Quintero system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How should TTTS be managed?

A

<26/40:
LASER ablation, using Solomon technique
Weekly US for 2 weeks, then fortnightly
US examination of fetal hearts
Delivery 34-36+6/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How should selected growth restriction be managed?

A
  1. Consider selective reduction
  2. Fortnightly Doppler surveillance
  3. Consider delivery if abnormal DV waveforms or cCTG
  4. Early delivery (separate card)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When should birth be planned on selective growth restriction?

A
  1. Type 1: 34-36/40
  2. Types 2 & 3: 32/40 or sooner if growth velocity significantly abnormal or worsening Dopplers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In monochorionic single twin demise, what are the risks of a) death & b) neurological abnormality for the other twin?

A

a) 15%
b) 25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How can neurological abnormality in the surviving twin be detected after single twin demise?

A

MRI 4 weeks after demise
If this would inform Mx planning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How should fetal anaemia be monitored following single twin demise?

A

Doppler: MCA PSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When & how should uncomplicated MCDA twins be delivered?

A

36/40
IOL unless other reason for CS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When & how should MCMA twins be delivered?

A

32-34/40
Due to higher risk of fetal death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the standards for centres managing monochorionic twins?

A
  1. Minimum 2 experienced operators
  2. More than 15 cases per year
17
Q

What proportion of twin pregnancies are monochorionic?

18
Q

What complications are increased in twin pregnancies?

A
  1. Preterm birth
  2. FGR
  3. PET
  4. PPH
  5. Infant feeding difficulties
  6. Adverse puerperal mood change
19
Q

What are the risks specific to monochorionicity?

A
  1. TTTS
  2. sGR
  3. TAPS
  4. TRAP
  5. Single intrauterine demise
20
Q

What proportion of monochorionic twins are MCMA?

21
Q

In monochorionic twins, what proportion of vascular anastomoses are bidirectional?

22
Q

What proportion of monochorionic pregnancies are affected by TTTS?

23
Q

What proportion of monochorionic twins pregnancies are affected by TTTS?

A

Without TTTS: 15%
With TTTS: 50%

24
Q

What are the 5 Quintero stages of TTTS?

A

I: significant discordance amniotic fluid volume; oligo <2cm donor, poly >8cm recipient (10cm after 20/40)
II: bladder of donor twin not visible
III: Dopplers abnormal in either twin
IV: ascites, pericardial or pleural effusion, scalp oedema, overt hydrops
V: one or both babies have died

25
Q

How is TAPS characterised?

A
  1. Donor fetal anaemia
  2. Recipient polycythaemia
  3. Donor raised MCA PSV > 1.5 MoM
  4. Recipient low MCA PSV < 1.0 MoM
26
Q

What are the types of sGR?

A

I: growth discordance but +ve diastolic velocities in both umbilical arteries
II: with AREDV in 1 or both twins
III: with cyclical UA waveforms

27
Q

What is TRAP?

A

Twin reversed arterial perfusion sequence
Acardiac twin perfumed by cardiac twin through large arterial anastomoses

28
Q

What proportion of twins are oriented laterally vs vertically?

A

90% lateral
10% vertical

29
Q

What is the proportion of fetal loss at <24/40 in a) monochorionic, b) dichorionic pregnancy?

A

a) 14%
b) 3%

30
Q

What is the perinatal mortality rate for a) monochorionic & b) dichorionic twins?

A

a) 12%
b) 5%

31
Q

What is included in the combined screening for aneuploidy?

A
  1. Nuchal translucency
  2. β-hCG
  3. PAPP-A
32
Q

What is included in the quadruple test for aneuploidy?
When should it be used?

A
  1. AFP
  2. β-hCG
  3. Unconjugated E3
  4. Inhibin A
    Use after 14/40
33
Q

What structural abnormalities are more common in twins than singletons?

34
Q

What structural abnormalities are more common in monozygotic twins?

A

Midline:
1. Holoprosencephaly
2. Neural tube defects
3. Cardiac abnormalities

35
Q

What are the survival rates of at least 1 twin for TTTS at different Quintero stages?

A

I: 91%
II: 88%
III: 67%
IV: 50%

36
Q

How can selective termination in twin pregnancy be carried out?

A

Vaso-occlusive techniques:
1. Bipolar cord occlusion
2. Radiofrequency ablation
Not KCl due to anastomoses

37
Q

What proportion of women with uncomplicated twin pregnancies give birth spontaneously before 37/40?

38
Q

What is the prevalence of conjoined twins?

A

1 in 100,000

39
Q

What is the lambda sign/T sign indicative of?

A

Dichorionicity