2015 NRC RO Exam

Question 1

1. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A complete loss of CCP Mini-Loop cooling water to the Instrument Air system occurs.

What is the impact on the Instrument Air Compressors?

The operating Compressor trips on … Backup Compressors …

A. low cooling water flow. are blocked from starting.
B. high outlet air temperature. are blocked from starting.
C. low cooling water flow. start and eventually trip.
D. high outlet air temperature. start and eventually trip.

Answer 1

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: The compressors trip on high outlet air temperature. There is no interlock to prevent the lagging and backup compressors from starting. The backup air compressors will start and eventually also trip on high outlet air temperature.

Question 2

2. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Annunciator 852108, DIV 1 EMER BUS BYS 002A 125 VDC SYSTEM TROUBLE alarms
• Computer point BYSIC05, 125VDC DIV 1 BAT 2A GROUND, caused the alarm
• The operator taking grounds on the bus places the selector switch to POS then to NEG with the following results:
- POS - 85 Volts
- NEG - 25 Volts

Which ground indication(s), if any, require(s) action in accordance with N2-0P-74A?

A. Positive Bus Only
B. Negative Bus Only
C. Both Positive and Negative Susses
D. Neither Positive or Negative Susses

Answer 2

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Annunciator 852108 alarms due to a battery ground at+/- 75 Volts. The associated ARP directs the operator to N2-0P-74A, section H.14. Per section H.14, a value of 75VDC or greater for either positive or negative ground readings indicates a ground exists and action is required.

Question 3

3. The plant is in Mode 4 when 600V distribution panel 2NJS-PNL600 is de-energized.

Which one of the following is the affect of this loss on the Source Range Monitors (SRM)?

A. SRM Channels A and C de-energize immediately.
B. SRM Channels A and C de-energize after several hours.
C. SRM Channels B and D de-energize immediately.
D. SRM Channels B and D de-energize after several hours.

Answer 3

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: 2NJS-PNL600 powers chargers 2BWSCHGR3B1 and 2BWS-CHGR301. Although both chargers are lost, the SRMs remain energized via 2BWS-BAT3B/30. These batteries are sized to maintain voltage for up to 4 hours before voltage begins to decay. If the chargers are not restored, SRMs will eventually de-energize.

Question 4

4. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A small steam line break in the drywell occurs
• The mode switch is placed in shutdown due to rising drywell pressure
• Simultaneous with the event, a power supply failure occurs that results in the following annunciator:
- 601401, “DIVISION I LPCS SYSTEM INOPERABLE”
• When drywell pressure reaches 1.68 psig, Division 1 low pressure EGGS fails to initiate
• LPCI A / LPCS MANUAL INITIATION white initiation light remains extinguished
• RHR ‘A’ is needed for suppression chamber sprays
• 2RHS*P1A is manually started from 2CEC*PNL601 and placed in suppression chamber spray

Which of the following describes the potential source of power that was lost AND with the loss of power, if LPCS injection were to be needed, how can the LPCS system be lined up to inject to
the RPV?

Power source ; Method to lineup the LPCS system for RPV injection

A. 2BYS*PNL201A ; Start 2CSL*P1, PMP 1 by placing the pump control switch to start and manually open 2CSL*MOV104, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV from 2CEC*PNL601
B. 2BYS*PNL201B ; Manually initiate Division 1 Low Pressure EGGS by arming and depressing the LPCI A I LPCS MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton on 2CEC*PNL601 and verify system response
C. 2BYS*PNL201A ; Manually initiate Division 1 Low Pressure EGGS by arming and depressing the LPCI A I LPCS MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton on 2CEC*PNL601 and verify system response
D. 2BYS*PNL201B ; Start 2CSL *P1, PMP 1 by placing the pump control switch to start and manually open 2CSL*MOV104, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV from 2CEC*PNL601

Answer 4

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: For the first part of the answer, 2BYS*PNL201A (DC Power) supplies power to LPCS system initiation logic. With 2BYS*PNL201A de-energized, no automatic or manual initiation of LPCS will occur. See N2-SOP-04, Attachment 2, section 2BYS*PNL201 A:

See Picture

For the second part of the answer, per N2-SOP-04 attachment 2, manual initiation is not available, so the LPCS system would have to be aligned manually from control room panel 601.

Question 5

5. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A fault occurs on Division I 125 VDC Bus 2BYS*SWG002A
• A coolant leak in Drywell causes Drywell pressure to slowly rise to 8 psig
• Both Feedwater Pumps trip during the scram transient and none can be started
• RPV Pressure is 950 psig and slowly lowering
• RPV water level is 20 inches and lowering
• HPCS Initiation Seal In white light is OFF and pump is NOT running
• RCIC Initiation Seal In light is OFF and system is NOT running

Which one of the following actions is required to prevent RPV water level from lowering to the Top of Active Fuel (TAF) in accordance with N2-EOP-RPV?

A. Manually initiate RCIC and recover level using RCIC injection.
B. Manually initiate HPCS and recover level using HPCS injection.
C. Lower RPV pressure to 500 to 600 psig using SRV keylock switches on 2CEC*PNL601, then recover level with Condensate Booster Pump injection.
D. WAIT until level drops to 17.8 inches, then open 7 ADS valves at 2CEC*PNL601 or 2CEC*PNL628 and recover level using Low Pressure ECCS injection.

Answer 5

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation:
There are no conditions provided in the question that would prevent a successful HPCS injection, except that the pump is not running. The pump can be started, which will inject immediately and prevent level from lowering to TAF. The loss/malfunction of ADS is the loss of power to ADS logic and solenoids for Division I.
Loss or malfunction of this system will have the following effects on the following parameters:
Restoration of reactor water level after a break that does not depressurize the reactor when required. With the RPV pressurized water level control would be completely dependent on high pressure injection sources such as Feedwater, CSH, RCIC, and RDS. If the MSIVs are open, or can be opened, consideration can also be given to depressurizing using the bypass valves.

Question 6

6. A LOCA is in progress with the following:

• The reactor is scrammed and all control rods are inserted
• RCIC and Division 2 low pressure ECCS pumps failed to initiate and cannot be started manually
• All Division 1 low pressure ECCS pumps have responded as designed
• RPV pressure is 100 psig following an RPV blowdown.
• No other systems are available to inject

Using the given fuel zone correction curve and control room panel indications, which one of the following describes the current method and mechanism of adequate core cooling?

Method ; Mechanism
A. Core Spray Cooling ; Boiling heat transfer only
B. Core Spray Cooling , Submergence and spray flow
C. Steam Cooling ; Boiling heat transfer only
D. Steam Cooling ; Submergence and spray flow

Answer 6

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Per NER-2M-039, Rev 8.0, section 2.0 Definitions; Adequate Core Cooling is heat removal from the reactor sufficient to prevent rupturing the fuel clad. Three viable mechanisms for establishing adequate core cooling are used in the EOPs-core submergence, core spray cooling, and steam cooling.
Submergence is the preferred method of core cooling and exists when RPV water level is above the top of the active fuel (TAF). In this state heat removal is by boiling heat transfer. Core Spray Cooling is provided when design core spray flow requirements are satisfied (at least design core spray flow from either HPCS or LPCS) and RPV water level is at or above the elevation of the jet pump suctions. The covered portion of the core is then cooled by
submergence while the uncovered portion is cooled by the spray flow.
Steam cooling is the third method of core cooling and exists when RPV water level is below TAF and steam flow production in the covered portion of the fuel bundle is sufficient to cool the
uncovered portion of the fuel bundle.
Steam cooling is relied upon only if RPV water level cannot be restored and maintained above TAF, cannot be determined, or must be intentionally lowered below TAF. The core is adequately
cooled by steam if the steam flow across the uncovered length of each fuel bundle is sufficient to maintain the hottest peak clad temperature below the appropriate limiting value-1500°F if
makeup can be injected, 1800°F if makeup cannot be injected. The covered portion of the core remains cooled by boiling heat transfer and generates the steam which cools the uncovered
portion.
When RPV water level cannot be restored and maintained above TAF in EOP-RPV and when RPV water level is intentionally lowered to TAF in EOP-CS, adequate steam flow is established by maintaining RPV water level above the Minimum Steam Cooling RPV Water Level (MSCRWL).
In this question, RPV level can be read on the fuel zone level indicator as -60 inches, Using the fuel zone level correction curve with reactor pressure given at 100 psig, actual RPV level is between -39 and -58 inches, but above -62 inches. This is below the Minimum Steam Cooling Water Level. LPCS spray flow can be read on E12-R600 meter as 6800 gpm which meets N2-
EOP-RPV step L-17 requirements for adequate core cooling.

Question 7

7. 2SLS*P1A, “PMP 1A” control switch on 2CEC*PNL601 is taken to the ‘PUMP A RUN’ position.

Which one of the following describes the SLS and WCS System response?

Suction Valve, 2SLS*MOV1A, receives an open signal, …
A. Squib Valve 2SLS*VEX3A fires, RWCU Outboard Isolation valve receives a close signal, 2SLS*P1A starts when suction valve is full open. Boron is injected inside of the shroud and is sprayed across the core region.
B. Squib Valve 2SLS*VEX3A fires, RWCU Inboard Isolation valve receives a close signal, 2SLS*P1A starts when suction valve is full open. Boron is injected into the down comer area and is mixed with reactor coolant.
C. Squib Valves 2SLS*VEX3A and 2SLS*VEX3B fire, RWCU Outboard Isolation valve closes, 2SLS*P1A starts when suction valve full open. Boron is injected inside of the shroud and is sprayed across the core region.
D. Squib Valves 2SLS*VEX3A and 2SLS*VEX3B fire, RWCU Inboard Isolation valve closes, 2SLS*P1A starts when suction valve full open. Boron is injected into the down comer area and is mixed with reactor coolant.

Answer 7

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: The “A” squib fire, RWCU isolates and the “A” pump starts when the suction valve is fully open. Per USAR section 9.3.5.2, “The liquid is pumped into the HPCS line downstream
of the inboard containment isolation check valve. The sodium pentaborate solution is discharged radially over the top of the core through the HPCS sparger.

Question 8

8. A plant scram has occurred from rated conditions with the following:

• RPV water level dropped below Level 2, then recovered.
• Subsequently, RPV water level has exceeded the Level 8 setpoint and is rising slowly.

Which of the following indicates the current status of the HPCS system?

HPCS Pump ; Injection Valve ; Minimum Flow Valve

A. Running ; Open ; Closed
B. Running ; Closed ; Open
C. Off ; Closed ; Closed
D. Off ; Closed ; Open

Answer 8

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: HPCS will initiate on Level 2 resulting in pump running and injection valve opening. When level 8 is reached, the pump will continue running, the injection valve will go closed, and the min flow valve will open, allowing flow to the suppression pool.

Question 9

9. A reactor startup is in progress with the following:

• All Intermediate Range Monitors (IRMs) fully inserted and on range 5.
• Then, IRM channel “B” fails downscale.

Which one of the following is true if IRM “B” is bypassed?

A. All trips (rod blocks, scram signals, and annunciator inputs) associated with IRM “B” will be defeated.
B. The IRM “B” detector will not be able to be withdrawn.
C. The IRM “B” detector can be withdrawn but will result in a rod block unless the reactor mode switch is first placed in RUN.
D. The IRM “B” downscale rod block will continue to be in effect until IRM “B” is placed in range 1.

Answer 9

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: USAR paragraph 4.11 section 7.6.2.4.3.1 states “The NMS system is designed to permit a channel to be bypassed for maintenance or calibration without initiating protective action at the system level. Four IRMs supply RPS trip signals to RPS Division 1 or 3, and the four other IRMs supply scram trips to RPS Division 2 or 4. (A trip of Division 1 or 3 coincident with a trip of Division 2 or 4 will result in a full scram.) One IRM in each set of four may be bypassed. Removing more than one from each set of four will result in an IRM INOP condition, which is an automatic trip of the related RPS logic.”

USAR paragraph 4.7, section 7.6.2.4.3.1 states that ‘With one IRM channel bypassed in the group of IRM channels feeding RPS Division 1 or 3, one channel bypassed in the group of IRM channels feeding RPS Division 2 or 4, or one APRM/OPRM channel bypassed, and an additional single random failure in a control system requiring protective action, the remaining redundant protection channels (six IRM or three APRM/OPRM) will provide protective action with one-out-of-two twice logic for the IRMs.

Question 10

10. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the Div I EDG INOPERABLE due to maintenance when the following occurs:
    Time(mm:ss) ; Event
    00:00 A loss of 115KV Line 6 occurs.
    00:45 A LOCA in the drywell causes drywell pressure to rise above 1.68 psig.

Which one of the following identifies proper sequencing for 2RHS*P1A and 2RHS*P1B with the conditions listed above?

2RHS*P1A starts at time … 2RHS*P1 B starts at time …
A. 00:46 ; 00:46
B. 00:46 ; 00:50
C. 00:50 ; 00:46
D. 00:50 ; 00:50

Answer 10

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: The question stem states that the division 1 EDG is inoperable due to maintenance. With the division 1 EDG inoperable and out of service, the only impact of this would be if there was a loss of Line 5. At time 00:00 when the loss of line 6 occurs, the division II EDG immediately starts, comes up to speed and closes its output breaker at 00:10. At time 00:45 the LOCA event occurs. The LOOP signal for division II is still sealed in so the LOCA signal causes essentially a LOOP/LOCA signal which results in the following sequencing {T =0 is when the LOCA signal occurs):
• T =1 second, RHS*P1B starts (for this question the time would be 00:46)
For division I, there was no loss of power signal so, the LOCA signal alone will cause the following sequencing (T =0 is when the LOCA signal occurs):
• T =5 seconds, RHS*P1A starts (for this question the time would be 00:50)

Question 11

11. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Scram Pilot Valve (2RDS*SOV139) for fully withdrawn control rod 10-15 is stuck and will not reposition during a scram.
• Division II emergency DC bus 2BYS*SWG002B is de-energized.
• A full reactor scram occurs.

Control rod 10-15 …

A. will NOT insert.
B. will insert simultaneously with the other control rods at normal speed.
C. will insert simultaneously with the other control rods at slower than normal speed.
D. insertion will be delayed, once insertion commences rod will insert at normal speed.

Answer 11

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: The loss of DC will still leave one backup scram valve available to depressurize the header. Normally the scram pilot just has to depressurize a small segment of pipe at each HCU. The backup scram valve needs to depressurize the entire header. This will result in a delay in commencing rod motion. Once the scram inlet and outlet reposition, the rod will insert at normal speed

Question 12

12. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• RCIC is in a standby condition.
• Leaking valves cause Suppression Pool Level to increase such that annunciator 601717, “SUPPRESSION POOL LEVEL HIGH” alarms.

Which one of the following describes the response of the RCIC system to these conditions?

Note:
• 21CS*MOV129, ICS Pump Suction Isolation from CST
• 21CS*MOV136, ICS Pump Suction Isolation from Suppression Pool

A. Upon receipt of the High Suppression Pool Water Level alarm, 21CS*MOV129 from the CST will close, and then 21CS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool will open.
B. Upon receipt of the High Suppression Pool Water Level alarm, 21CS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool will open, and then 21CS*MOV129 from CST will close.
C. RCIC suctions will remain in standby configuration until a low CST Level condition occurs. The RCIC suctions will then transfer with 21CS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool opening, followed by the 21CS*MOV129 from the CST closing.
D. RCIC suctions will remain in standby configuration until a low CST Level condition occurs. The RCIC suctions will then transfer with 21CS*MOV129 from CST closing followed by the 21CS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool opening.

Answer 12

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: RCIC suctions will remain in standby configuration until a low CST Level condition occurs. The RCIC suctions will then transfer with 2ICS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool opening, followed by the 2ICS*MOV129 from the CST closing.
The correct answer properly describes that RCIC will not realign for the given conditions until a CST low level condition is detected, then 2ICS*MOV136 from the Suppression Pool opening followed by 2ICS*MOV129 from the CST closing.
USAR section, ll.K.3.22 “RCIC SUCTION SOURCE,” The modification of the RCIC system allows automatic switchover of pump suction from the CST to the suppression pool if the RCIC pump suction pressure falls to a preset low level. Two pressure transmitters are used to detect low pressure at the RCIC pump suction. If either transmitter senses low pressure (indicating low CST level), pump suction is automatically transferred to the suppression pool. These are different transmitters/trip units from those that activate switchover for the HPCS system. The CST suction valve will be signaled to close upon opening of the suppression pool suction valve.

Question 13

13. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Reactor water level is 183” and stable.
• The Feedwater master controller, 2FWS-HIC1600, is in AUTO.
• The individual Feedwater level control valve controllers, 2FWS-HIC1010A and 2FWS-HIC1010B, are in AUTO.

Then, Reactor power is lowered to 90% and plant conditions stabilize.

Which one of the following describes the effect of depressing the Feedwater master controller, 2FWS-HIC1600, MAN pushbutton at this time?
Feedwater flow will (1) . Feedwater flow may be adjusted by depressing the (2) OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons.

A. (1) rapidly rise
(2) 2FWS-HIC1600
B. (1) rapidly rise
(2) 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B
C. (1) remain near the current value
(2) 2FWS-HIC1600
D. (1) remain near the current value
(2) 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B

Answer 13

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Although Reactor power has been lowered by 10%, 2FWS-HIC1600 manual signal automatically tracks the current Feedwater flow. This feature allows a smooth transfer while placing the controller in MAN without any need for controller nulling. A small mismatch between steam and feed flow at the time of transfer may necessitate manual adjustments. In the given conditions, this would be performed by depressing the OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons on 2FWS-HIC1600. The OPEN/CLOSE pushbuttons on 2FWS-HIC1010A or 2FWS-HIC1010B will not cause a flow change while those controllers are still in AUTO.

Question 14

14. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Circ. Water tempering of Service Water is in progress per N2-OP-11, SERVICE WATER SYSTEM
• Chemistry determines that intake bay temperature is too warm and wants operations to LOWER intake bay temperature
• Indications on 2CEC*PNL601 for Service Water tempering are as follows:

-See Picture

Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?
In order to lower the intake bay temperature, the RO should (1) the INTAKE TEMPERING FLOW by taking the SLIDER on 2SWP*TIK512 to the (2)

A. Raise ; Left
B. Raise ; Right
C. Lower ; Left
D. Lower ; Right

Answer 14

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Per N2-0P-11, Section F.9.0, the notes within the section indicate that the 2SWP-TIK512 controller works in reverse of most controllers. In this case, 100% output is a fully closed tempering valve. When the controller output is at 0%, then the valve is fully open. In order to get the valve to go farther closed, you have to take the controller slider to the right. The more tempering flow you have, the warmer the intake bay will be. Since the question stem wants you to lower the intake bay temperature, then you have to lower the tempering flow.

Question 15

15. The plant has scrammed from rated conditions with the following:

• There is a small LOCA in the DRYWELL.
• Drywell pressure indication is unavailable.
• There is no indication of a bypass path in the containment.
• Suppression chamber pressure is 1.7 psig

Based on the above information, DRYWELL pressure is approximately (1) AND The Stand-by Gas Treatment system (2), per N2-EOP-PC.

A. (1)1.7psig
(2) is running in the desired containment venting lineup
B. (1) 6.7 psig
(2) is running in the desired containment venting lineup
C. (1) 1.7 psig
(2) requires operator action to establish a containment venting lineup
D. (1) 6.7 psig
(2) requires operator action to establish a containment venting lineup

Answer 15

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: There is differential of approximately 5 psig between drywell and suppression chamber pressure due to the submergence of the downcomers. Suppression chamber pressure of 1.7 psig correlates to approximately 6.7 psig, which is above the isolation setpoint for Reactor
Building Ventilation. When RB Vent isolates, SBGT starts automatically. Even though GTS automatically initiates, N2-EOP-PC directs the use of OP-61A, section H.1 to use GTS to vent the containment to try to maintain primary containment pressure. This requires manual operator action.

Question 16

16. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Safety Relief Valve (SRV) 2MSS*PSV120 inadvertently opens.
• All fuses are removed for the affected SRV, per N2-SOP-34, Stuck Open Safety Relief Valve.

Assuming the SRV shuts, what is the effect on Total Steam Flow INDICATION and an acceptable method to confirm the SRV is shut, per N2-SOP-34?

Total Steam Flow Indication ; Method to Confirm SRV is Shut
A. Lowers ; Closed indication on ERF computer
B. Rises ; Closed indication on ERF computer
C. Lowers ; Closed indication on panel P601
D. Rises ; Closed indication on panel P601

Answer 16

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Initially with the SRV open, total steam flow leaving the reactor remains the same as EHC closes down on the control valves an equivalent amount to control pressure. This causes a drop in total steam flow indication since the SRVs are upstream of the flow transmitters. When the SRV shuts total steam flow will rise and per USAR, section 11.D.3, “Unit 2 has two means of SRV position indication. The primary means is an acoustic monitoring system that monitors SRV tailpipe noise. This system is IE and is qualified for in-containment use. Valve position is indicated in the control room and is entered into the Emergency Response Facility (ERF) computer. The secondary means of valve lift monitoring is non-IE thermocouples on the SRV tailpipe. This monitoring means is only a backup/verification of valve lift. The output of the
acoustic monitoring system drives individual valve open/closed indications on control boards. The system also drives sequence of events (SOE) input computer points. When a valve lifts, the Operator is alerted via the alarm cathode ray tube (CRT) and alarm printer in the main control
room.” N2-SOP-34 directs the operator to confirm the SRV is shut using indications in Detail 1.

Question 17

17. Given the following circuit breakers:

(1) 1-3, Supply to 2NPS-SWG001 from Normal Station Transformer
(2) 1-1, Supply to 2NPS-SWG001 from Reserve Station Transformer A
(3) 3-14, Supply to 2NPS-SWG003 from Normal Station Transformer
(4) 3-1, Supply to 2NPS-SWG003 from Reserve Station Transformer B
(5) 13-6, Supply to 2NNS-SWG014 from 2NPS-SWG001
(6) 15-3, Supply to 2NNS-SWG015 from 2NPS-SWG003

Which one of the following indicates the circuit breakers that are expected to automatically OPEN following a Main Generator trip (Generator Lockout Trip) from rated conditions?

A. (1 ), (3)
B. (2), (4)
C. (1 ), (3), (5), (6)
D. (2), (4), (5), (6)

Answer 17

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: On a main generator trip, a fast transfer occurs, transferring 2NPS-SWG001 (003) from the Normal Station Transformer to the Reserve Station Transformers. Supply Breakers from the normal Station Transformer will automatically open.

Question 18

18. A manual scram has been attempted. Given the following three separate sets of conditions:
    (1) All control rod position indication is lost on the full core display. All APRMs indicate downscale.
    (2) Three control rods remain at position 02 and all other control rods fully insert. All APRMs indicate downscale.
    (3) All control rods indicate fully inserted on the full core display. All APRM indications are lost.

Which one of the following describes the ability of an Operator to determine that the Reactor will remain shutdown without boron in these conditions, in accordance with EOP Bases and OPNM-101-111-1001, Transient Mitigation Guidelines (TMG)?

An Operator can make the determination that the Reactor will remain shutdown without boron …

A. in condition (2) only.
B. in condition (3) only.
C. in conditions (1) and (2) only.
D. in conditions (2) and (3) only.

Answer 18

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: OP-NM-101-111-1001, Transient Mitigation Guidelines (TMG) provides two situations where an Operator is empowered to determine that the Reactor will remain shutdown without boron:
• All rods are fully inserted (position 00) or
• Only 1 rod is withdrawn beyond position 00 AND All other rods are fully inserted APRMs being downscale are not enough information to make this determination. Neither condition (1) or (2) fit the allowed situations to determine the Reactor will remain shutdown without boron.

Question 19

19. The plant is starting up during the winter months with the following:
    • RPV pressure is 850 psig and stable.
    • Main Steam tunnel temperatures are:

-See Picture

Which one of the following describes the expected alarms and indications on the 2CEC*PNL602 panel?
Annunciator (1) will be in alarm. Inboard and Outboard MSIVs, 2MSS*AOV6A-D and 2MSS*AOV7A-D will indicate (2) Inboard MSL Drain 2MSS*MOV111 AND/OR Outboard MSL Drains (2MSS*MOV112 AND
MOV208) will indicate (3)

A. (1) 602228, MN STEAM LINE PIPE TUNNEL TEMP Hl-Hl/DIFF TEMP HI
(2) SHUT
(3) OPEN
B. (1) 602234, MN STEAM LINE PIPE TUNNEL DIFF TEMP HIGH
(2) SHUT
(3) SHUT
C. (1) 602228, MN STEAM LINE PIPE TUNNEL TEMP Hl-Hl/DIFF TEMP HI
(2) OPEN
(3) SHUT
D. (1) 602234, MN STEAM LINE PIPE TUNNEL DIFF TEMP HIGH
(2) OPEN
(3) SHUT

Answer 19

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Annunciator 602228 alarms when a Trip Unit E31-N604A- D exceeds 163°F. The differential temperature high annunciator uses a different temperature sensor and would only cause an alarm (E31-N615 set for 56°F). With Logic inputs A and B tripped, ONLY the MSIVs will isolate, the MSL drains would remain open.

Question 20

20. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Annunciator 852503, UPS 1A SYSTEM TROUBLE, alarms in the Control Room.
• Approximately thirty (30) seconds later, annunciator 852503 clears.
• The Control Room Operators determined the alarm was due to a large 50 amp load being started on 2VBB-UPS1A.

Which one of the following describes the electrical supply currently supplying power to 2VBB-UPS1A and the required operator actions, per N2-ARP-852500?

Electrical Bus Supplying Power Required ; Operator Actions
A. Normal ; Secure the large load
B. Alternate ; Secure the large load
C. Normal ; Clear local alarms
D. Alternate ; Clear local alarms

Answer 20

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: ARP 852503 has a note that states when a large load (40 amps) is started on UPS 1A, the UPS may transfer to its maintenance supply until current stabilizes. The UPS will then automatically transfer back to its normal power supply. If a system trouble alarm is annunciated and then clears AND it is known that a large load has been added to or removed from the UPS, no action would be required except the clearing of local alarms.

Question 21

21. The reactor is in Mode 4 with the following:

• RHR Loop “A” is in Shutdown Cooling
• RHR Loop “B” is in Suppression Pool Cooling

Then a LOCA causes RPV level to lower to Level 1.

Which of the following describes the RHR system response?

A. RHR Loop A continues to operate in shutdown cooling and RHR B pumps trips.
B. RHR Loop A continues to operate in shutdown cooling and RHR Loop B realigns to the injection mode.
C. RHR pump A trips. RHR Loop B realigns to the injection mode and RHR B pump continues to run.
D. RHR pumps A and B trip. RHR Loop B realigns to the injection mode and RHR pump B restarts.

Answer 21

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: A RPV level 159.3 will cause a group 5 isolation. A group 5 isolation will cause the RHR Shutdown cooling valves to close. Without a suction source the “A” pump will trip. The 2RHS*MOV38B will go shut on a LOCA signal (Level 1) and the “B” RHR pump will continue to run and will inject when the 2RHS*MOV24B permissives are met.

Question 22

22. The plant is operating at rated conditions. During a panel walkdown, the following conditions are observed:

• Instrument Air Compressor 2IAS-C3A is operating
• INSTRUMENT AIR COMPRESSOR SELECTOR switch is in ABC position.
• Instrument Air Header Pressure is 110 psig and slowly lowering
• Instrument Air Compressor amperage indications are as follows:

-See Picture

Which one of the following identifies the status of 21AS-C3A and the required actions?

A. 2IAS-C3A is fully LOADED. Start 2IAS-C3B then place INSTRUMENT AIR COMPRESSOR SELECTOR switch in BCA position.
B. 2IAS-C3A is fully LOADED. Place INSTRUMENT AIR COMPRESSOR SELECTOR switch in BCA position then start 2IAS-C3B.
C. 2IAS-C3A is UNLOADED. Start 2IAS-C3B then place INSTRUMENT AIR
COMPRESSOR SELECTOR switch in BCA position.
D. 2IAS-C3A is UNLOADED. Place INSTRUMENT AIR COMPRESSOR SELECTOR switch in BCA position then start 2IAS-C3B.

Answer 22

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation:
The compressor is loaded and unloaded by discharge air pressure signal, which changes based on the rate of air consumption, and maintains the air pressure within a pre-selected band (115 psig - 125 psig). With IAS pressure below 115 psig, the operating compressor should be loaded and running current should be at about 170 amps. Since pressure is low and the compressor is unloaded, as indicated by a current reading of only 30 amps, action is needed to restore IAS header pressure. Entry into N2-SOP-19 is required and for a degraded compressor, another compressor is manually started by repositioning the selector switch and starting the compressor at P851. If the selector switch is not selected to the correct position, the compressor will not start when control switch is placed in start position.

Question 23

23. The plant is in a reactor startup with the following:

• Reactor power is 4%
• Reactor mode switch is in “Startup”
• IRM ‘E’ is bypassed due to equipment malfunction
• APRM #2 is bypassed due to a critical self test fault

In the event of a power excursion, which one of the following describes the neutron monitoring system(s) that will generate a scram signal that will trip RPS?

IRM’s ; APRM’s
A. Yes ; Yes
B. No ; No
C. No ; Yes
D. Yes ; No

Answer 23

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: NMP2 USAR section 7.2.1.2.1 states that the reactor mode switch determines whether IRM trips are effective in initiating a reactor scram. With the reactor mode switch in REFUEL, STARTUP, or SHUTDOWN, an IRM upscale or inoperative trip signal actuates a NMS trip of the RPS. Only one of the IRM channels must trip to initiate a NMS trip of the associated RPS trip channel.
Additionally it states that in addition to the IRM upscale trip, an APRM trip function with a setpoint of 15-percent power is active when the reactor mode switch is in the STARTUP position.

Question 24

24. The Standby Liquid Control System (SLS) quarterly operability test on 2SLS*P1A is about to be performed.

Which one of the following identifies how the automatic Reactor Water Cleanup System (WCS) isolation is avoided during this test?

A. WCS isolation signal is bypassed when using the SLS pump TEST switch to start the SLS pump.
B. WCS isolation bypass switches are placed in the BYPASS position prior to starting the SLS pump.
C. WCS system is shutdown and containment isolation valves closed prior to starting the SLS pump.
D. WCS containment isolation valve power supply breakers are opened prior to starting the SLS pump.

Answer 24

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Initiation of SLS would normally cause a group 7 isolation. Use of the TEST Switch for either pump bypasses the interlocks that open the MOV1 A/B valves, fire the squibs, and isolate the respective divisional WCS isolation valve. This allows operation of the pump to circulate the contents of the test tank for surveillance testing.

Question 25

25. The plant is performing a reactor startup with the following:

• Preparations are underway for rolling the main turbine
• 2ARC-P1A, “AIR REMOVAL PMP 1A” is in service
• It is desired to make 2ARC-MOV15A throttleable for rub mitigation concerns
• An Equipment Operator is in the field performing the actions to make 2ARC-MOV15A throttleable

Per N2-0P-9 Attachment 4, “Making 2ARC-MOV15A(B) Throttleable”, which one of the following describes the correct control room indications for 2ARC-MOV15A during this evolution?

Control room light indication while lead lifting evolution is being conducted ; Control Room light indication when lead
lifting evolution is complete

A. Green light OFF Red light ON ; Green light OFF Red light ON
B. Green light OFF Red light ON ; Green light ON Red light ON
C. Green light OFF Red light OFF ; Green light OFF Red light ON
D. Green light OFF Red light OFF ; Green light ON Red light ON

Answer 25

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Per N2-0P-9 Attachment 4, for making making 2ARC-MOV15A(B) Throttleable the first step is to open the power supply breaker for 2ARC-MOV15A, then lift and tape seal in circuitry leads, and then the final step is to reclose the power supply breaker. While the power supply breaker is opened, no light indication will be present for 2ARC-MOV15A on control room panel 851. All breaker light indication will remain off until the power supply breaker is reclosed at which point the red light indication only will illuminate since 2ARC-P1A was in service prior to the performance of attachment 4.

Question 26

26. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• 2NJS-US5 de-energizes due to a bus fault.

Which one of the following describes (1) the RPS component which de-energizes and (2) the effect of the bus fault on RPS?

A. (1) 2RPM-MG1A
(2) “A” logic de-energizes
B. (1) 2RPM-MG1A
(2) “A” scram solenoids de-energize
C. (1) 2VBB-UPS3A
(2) “A” logic de-energizes
D. (1) 2VBB-UPS3A
(2) “A” scram solenoids de-energize

Answer 26

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: 2RPM-MG 1 A is powered from 2NJS-US5 and will lose power on a bus fault.

Question 27

27. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• 851411, REHEATER DRN RCVR TK6A/6B WATER LEVEL HIGH, alarms
• Reheater Drain Receiver TK6A level determined to be greater than 8 inches above centerline
• 851401, REHEATER SYSTEM TROUBLE, alarms
• Reheater Drain Receiver TK6A level determined to be greater than 18 inches above centerline (TK6A WATER LEVEL HIGH-HIGH)

Which one of the following describes the response of the Moisture Separator Reheat steam supply valves below?

2MSS-AOV92A, “Reheater 1 A Steam Supply Valve”
2MSS-AOV92B, “Reheater 1 B Steam Supply Valve”
2MSS-MOV9A, “Reheater Steam Control Valve PV28A Drain Valve”
2MSS-MOV9B, “Reheater Steam Control Valve PV28B Drain Valve”

2MSS-AOV92A ; 2MSS-AOV92B ; 2MSS-MOV9A ; 2MSS-MOV9B
A. Closed ; Open ; Closed ; Closed
B. Closed ; Closed ; Closed ; Closed
C. Closed ; Closed ; Open ; Open
D. Open ; Open ; Open ; Closed

Answer 27

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: On a Hi Hi level in EITHER drain tank, the steam supplies are isolated and the drain valves are opened to both reheaters (prevents unbalancing the LP turbines.

Question 28

28. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• All three Condensate Booster Pumps are in service
• A bus fault occurs on 2NPS-SWG003
• Annunciator 852530, 13.8 KV NPS 003 Electrical Fault, is in alarm

Which one of the following describes (1) which Condensate Booster Pump(s) remain(s) available for use and (2) the required operator action in accordance with N2-SOP-29?

A. (1) 2CNM-P2A, only
(2) Perform a manual reactor scram
B. (1) 2CNM-P2A and 2CNM-P2C, only
(2) Perform a manual reactor scram
C. (1) 2CNM-P2A, only
(2) Insert the first 4 CRAM rods
D. (1) 2CNM-P2A and 2CNM-P2C, only
(2) Insert the first 4 CRAM rods

Answer 28

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: P2A is powered from 2NPS-SWG001. P2C can be powered from either 2NPSSWG001 or 2NPS-SWG003, therefore both pumps remain available for use. When 2NPSSWG003 is lost, the ‘B’ reactor recirculation pump will trip (‘A’ RCS Pump will remain running). This will require ent into N2-SOP-29, “Sudden Reduction in Core Flow’’

Question 29

29. One zone (loop) of Relay Room Underfloor Area fire detection is inoperable and has been placed in Alarm Only at 2CEC-PNL849. This area is protected by cross zone (two loop) detection.

Which one of the following identifies the impact of this failure if an actual fire occurs in the room?

The remaining zone (loop) will ……….. .

A. ONLY actuate control room alarms. Fire suppression must be manually actuated.
B. actuate local AND control room alarms. Fire suppression must be manually actuated.
C. ONLY actuate control room alarms. Fire suppression will be automatically actuated.
D. actuate local AND control room alarms. Fire suppression will be automatically actuated.

Answer 29

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Per N2-0P-47, Section B, page 14 (system description), If a fire occurs in a zone and the fire is determined to be an actual fire but the zone is in Alarm Only, the suppressant may be discharged manually from the control room or locally. Also, this zone is designated a cross zone area and N2-0P-47 states that “Zones designated by X are cross zones which contain two fire detection loops. One detector sensing a fire will bring in an alarm and no suppression. When a detector from the other loop senses a fire it will bring in an alarm and activate the fire suppression system.” In this case with one of the cross zones in alarm only, you will not be able to get one detector in each loop to sense the fire and will therefore not get automatic suppression.

Question 30

30. A plant startup is in progress with the following:

• Main Turbine SHELL WARMING is in progress
• Turbine Steam Chest Pressure is 109 psia and rising slowly

Which one of the following actions is required to restore Steam Chest Pressure to within shell warming limits and the basis for this action per N2-0P-21, Main Turbine?

At the MAIN STOP VALVE POSITION DEMAND FOR CHEST/SHELL WARMING controls, press the …

A. INCREASE pushbutton to prevent lengthening required soak time.
B. INCREASE pushbutton to prevent an automatic reactor scram.
C. DECREASE pushbutton to prevent lengthening required soak time.
D. DECREASE pushbutton to prevent an automatic reactor scram.

Answer 30

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Per N2-0P-21, E.3.0 Shell Warming. Per step E.3.19 pressure is to be maintained between 75 and 100 psia. 109 psia must be recognized as being above the high end limit and that the DECREASE pushbutton is used to throttle less steam flow through MSV #2 to restore pressure to the proper band.
A. Plausible - INCREASE will result in pressure approaching and exceeding the first stage pressure that will un-bypass the reactor scram on MSV position.

Question 31

31. A plant startup is in progress with the following:

• The Main Turbine is being rolled in accordance with N2-0P-21, Main Turbine System.
• Turbine speed is currently 1800 RPM.

Then …

• Annunciator 851140, TURBINE GENERATOR VIBRATION HIGH, alarms.
Which one of the following describes the requirements to trip the Turbine and break Main Condenser vacuum, in accordance with ARP 851140?

The Turbine should be tripped if any vibration level is (1) mils for 15 minutes and Main Condenser vacuum should be broken if vibration levels are projected to go above (2) mils following the Turbine trip.

(1) ; (2)
A. 7 ; 12
B. 7 ; 30
C. 10 ; 12
D. 10 ; 30

Answer 31

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: ARP 851140 requires tripping the Turbine if vibrations are above 10 mils for 15 minutes. ARP 851140 requires breaking Main Condenser vacuum if vibrations are projected to exceed 30 mils following the Turbine trip.

Question 32

32. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• The Position Indication Probe (PIP) connector for control rod 30-31 has disconnected.

The monitoring of which of the following Control Rod 30-31 indications will be affected based on the given conditions?

1 . Control Rod position

2. Control Rod Temperature
3. Control Rod HCU pressure

A. 1, 2 and 3
B. 1 and2 ONLY
C. 2 and 3 ONLY
D. 1 and 3 ONLY

Answer 32

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: RPIS monitors both control rod position and temperature. A thermocouple is installed in the position indicator tube at the top to monitor drive temperature.

Question 33

33. The plant is shutdown for refueling with the following:

• Personnel are working in the Drywell when a Traversin g In- Core Probe (TIP) trace is initiated.

Which of the following hazards is created by this action?

A. High radiation exposures to personnel in the Drywell
B. Damage to the Tl P machine if fuel movement is in progress
C. High radiation exposures to personnel on the Refuel Floor
D. Excessive drywell leakage when the TIP isolation valve is opened

Answer 33

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per N2-0P-96, section F, ‘While operating TIP machines, high radiation hazards can exist in the following places:
• TIP Drive Room (Rx Bldg. El. 250)
• TIP Shield Room (Rx Bldg. El. 250)
• Drywell (If open for personnel access)”

Question 34

34. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• The seals on the ‘A’ Reactor Water Cleanup Pump fail.
• Annunciator 851254, PROCESS AIRBORNE RADN MON ACTIVATED, is in alarm.
• ORMS indicates 2HVR*CAB-32A-1 and 2HVR*CAB-32B-1 are in alarm.
• The Reactor Building is isolated.
• The Emergency HVR Recirc Units are in service.

Which one of the following describes (1) the radiation monitor(s) that can be used to monitor Reactor Building airborne contamination levels and (2) the required operator actions for this condition in accordance with N2-ARP-851254?

A. (1) 2HVR-RE229
(2) Verify Group 9 Isolation has occurred
B. (1) 2HVR-RE229
(2) Verify GTS Train has initiated
C. (1) 2HVR*RE32A and B
(2) Verify Group 9 Isolation has occurred
D. (1) 2HVR*RE32A and B
(2) Verify GTS Train has initiated

Answer 34

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: ARP 851254 states that with the reactor building isolated, HVR-229 is used to monitor RB Vent and the RE32’s are not valid. The first step in the ARP is to verify the automatic response has occurred, which includes verifying GTS Train in operation.

Question 35

35. Which one of the following is the effect of a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA) coincident with a total Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) on Fuel Pool temperatures and what actions are required to re-establish temperature control?

Fuel Pool Temperature , To Re-establish Temperature Control
A. Lowers , Manually close the Filter/Demin Bypass Valve 2SFC-HIC113 only.
B. Rises , Wait 70 seconds then restart the Fuel Pool cooling only mode using CCP to the SFC Heat Exchanger.
C. Lowers , Manually close the Filter/Demin Bypass Valve 2SFC-HIC113 and place the Filter Demins back in service.
D. Rises , Wait 70 seconds then restart the Fuel Pool Cooling Pump and line up Service Water Backup Cooling to the SFC heat exchanger.

Answer 35

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: On a Loss of Coolant Accident (LOCA), the running Pump will continue to run but a Pump cannot be started or restarted during the first 70 seconds after receipt of the LOCA signal. If a Loss of Offsite Power (LOOP) and a LOCA occur simultaneously, the running Pumps will trip. A Pump may be manually restarted after 70 seconds using N2-SOP-03. The Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling Water supply to the SFC Heat Exchanger is also lost on a LOOP/LOCA and Service Water Backup Cooling to the SFC Heat Exchanger must be manually lined up by the operator.

Question 36

36. The plant is operating at rated conditions with a normal Reactor Building ventilation configuration. Reactor Building differential pressure is -0.6 inches WG when the following sequence of events occur:

1300: Drywell pressure rises to 14 psig
1300: GTS Trains A and B automatically start
1310: GTS Train A is shutdown by placing Train A Initiation control switch in Auto After Stop
1315: GTS Train B Fan trips due to a motor fault and cannot be restarted

Which one of the following describes the impact of these events on Reactor Building differential pressure (DP) immediately after the GTS Train B Fan trip and the actions required, per N2-0P-61B, to restore RB differential pressure?
Reactor Building DP ; Actions Required
A. Becomes less negative ; GTS Train A must be manually restarted
B. Becomes less negative ; Confirm automatic restart of GTS Train A
C. Remains the same ; GTS Train A must be manually restarted
D. Remains the same ; Confirm automatic restart of GTS Train A

Answer 36

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: GTS Train A restarts because the high Drywell pressure (> 1.68 psig) initiation signal is still present and with no running GTS train RB differential pressure will degrade toward 0. When pressure reaches -0.25 inches WG, the manually shutdown train will automatically restart.

Question 37

37. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A spurious reactor scram occurs
• Several control rods fail to insert
• Reactor power is indicating 10% on the APRM’s
• N2-EOP-C5 has been entered
• The crew has terminated and prevented all RPV injection except boron, CRD and RCIC and is in the process of lowering reactor water level to at least 100 inches in accordance with N2-EOP-C5
• As reactor water level is lowered reactor power has dropped to 2% on the APRM’s

A few moments later, the following indications are observed:

-See Picture-

Which one of the following describes the required action for the reactor recirculation pumps and the correct method to perform the action?
Action ; Method
A. Downshift the RCS Pumps ; Place RECIRC PUMP 1A MOTOR A BRKR 5A & 5B control switches to “PTUStop” position and release
B. Trip the RCS Pumps to off ; Place LOW FREQ MG SET DRIVE MOT BRKR 1 A & 1 B control switches to “Stop” position and release
C. Downshift the RCS Pumps ; Place LOW FREQ MG SET DRIVE MOT BRKR 1 A & 1 B control switches to “Transfer to MG” position and
release
D. Trip the RCS Pumps to off ; Place RECIRC PUMP 1A MOTOR A BRKR 5A & 5B control switches to “PTUStop” position and release

Answer 37

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: In the given, the wide range level indicator shows RPV level below 108.8 inches (100 inches) and the RCS pump speed and current indicators show that the recirc. pumps are running in slow speed. The recirc. pumps should have downshifted to slow (low frequency MG) at 159.3 inches (which is where they are currently) and they both should have tripped to off when wide range level reached 108.8 inches. In this case, per N2-EOP-C5 step L-9, the RCS pumps should be verified tripped. The correct method to trip the RCS pumps is contained in N2-EOP-HC, attachment 1 section 2.0.

Question 38

38. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Control rod 14-35 is currently at position 12 and has been determined to be mechanically stuck
• No other HCU’s are isolated

Which one of the following describes the preferred isolation action per N2-0P-30, for control rod 14-35?

Type of Isolation ; Cooling Water Status

A. Electrical with cooling water
B. Electrical without cooling water
C. Hydraulic with cooling water
D. Hydraulic without cooling water

Answer 38

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: For stuck control rods it is required that a hydraulic isolation be conducted. N2-OP-30, section F.8.2 states “A withdrawn control rod that is stuck should be disarmed hydraulically, preferably with cooling water flow (hydraulically disarming a withdrawn control rod that is stuck is required per Technical Specification 3.1.3)”. Also from Tech Spec bases “The control rod must be isolated from both scram and normal insert and withdraw pressure. Isolating the control rod from scram and normal insert and withdraw pressure prevents damage to the CRDM or reactor internals. The control rod isolation method should also ensure cooling water to the CRD is maintained.”

Question 39

39. The plant is operating at 70% power with the following:

• A complete loss of reactor building closed loop cooling water requires a reactor scram to be inserted.

Which of the following describes the reason for the required reactor scram?

The scram is directed because of the loss of cooling to the …..

A. Control Rod Drive (RDS) Pump seals.
B. Residual Heat Removal (RHR) Pump seal coolers.
C. Reactor Recirculation (RCS) Pump motors and seals.
D. Reactor Water Clean-Up (WCS) Non-Regenerative Heat Exchangers.

Answer 39

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Per USAR Table 9.2-3, the Reactor recirculation motor winding coolers, motor bearing coolers, and pump seal coolers have a combined heat load of 3.7 x 106 BTU/hr. Without cooling water, this heat load will result in rapidly rising temperatures on the recirculation pump motor windings, motor bearings and recirculation pump seals. Per N2-0P-29, section H.3.0 “The loss of CCP to the pump motor bearing or winding cooler will be a limiting factor in continuing pump operation.” If the recirculation pumps have to be tripped at power, a reactor scram will be required.

Question 40

40. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A grid disturbance has been experienced.
• Main Generator reactive load is 300 MVARs to the Bus.
• Main Generator hydrogen pressure is 76 psig.

Which one of the following is correct for these conditions, in accordance with N2-0P-27, “Generator H2 and C02 System” and N2-0P-68, “Main Generator”?

A. Main Generator parameters are satisfactory.
B. Raise Main Generator hydrogen pressure.
C. With Power Control concurrence, adjust the AC Voltage Regulator control switch to lower MVARs.
D. With Power Control concurrence, either adjust the AC Voltage Regulator control switch to lower MVARs or raise Main Generator hydrogen pressure.

Answer 40

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Explanation: N2-0P-27 directs Main Generator hydrogen pressure to be controlled 75-77 psig. N2-0P-68 limits Main Generator reactive load to a maximum of 233 MVARs to the Bus when at this hydrogen pressure. Therefore, reactive load must be lowered using the AC Voltage Regulator.

Question 41

41. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A manual reactor scram is performed
• An RPS circuit failure has occurred which fails to energize time delay relays associated with Scram reset prevention

What are the operational implications of this failure if the SCRAM were to be manually reset before 10 seconds has elapsed?

A. All control rods may fail to fully insert.
B. The Scram Air header may not re-pressurize.
C. Reactor water level may not recover above the scram setpoint.
D. The Scram Discharge Volume vent and drain valves may not close.

Answer 41

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per N2-0P-97, The purpose of the ten second time delay is to allow sufficient time for the rods to scram prior to allowing for the scram to be reset.

Question 42

42. The plant is in Mode 5 with the following:

• The Reactor Cavity is flooded and the gates are removed
• A loss of shutdown cooling has occurred
• The crew has entered N2-SOP-31 R, Refueling Operations Alternate Shutdown Cooling

In accordance with N2-SOP-31R which one of the following describes the system operating configuration when the Residual Heat Removal System (RHS) is aligned to the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (SFC) Assist Mode?

A. SFC system is required to be shutdown and isolated
B. RHS pump placed in series with the SFC pump thereby raising SFC system flow
C. RHS suction is directly from the fuel pool and returns through the RHS diffusers
D. One loop of RHS, and the opposite loop of SFC are placed in service for cooling

Answer 42

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Connections between the Spent Fuel Pool Cooling (SFC) System and the “A” and “B” RHR loop permit the “A” or “B” RHR heat exchanger to cool the spent fuel pool. Isolation valves are provided in each line in both the RHR and SFC systems. This RHR feature is used whenever an abnormally high heat load is placed on spent fuel pool
cooling or a loss of shutdown cooling occurs. The arrangement is established and secured by operator action. Operation of RHS in SFC assist mode requires that opposite loops be utilized. For example if RHS A loop is the only available loop of RHS, then SFC B must be the SFC loop in operation. This is due to RHS A returning to SFC A loop and RHS B returning to SFC B loop.

Question 43

43. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A fire is detected for a FPW pre-action area in the diesel generator building
• Motor Driven Fire Pump, 2FPW-P2, is running maintaining system pressure at 150 psig
• Diesel-Driven Fire Pump, 2FPW-P1, is in standby with its control switch in Auto
• A fault on 2NNS-SWG013 occurs and the bus de-energizes

Which one of the following describes the final configuration of the Fire Protection Water System?

Motor-Driven Fire Pump (2FPW-P2) ; Diesel-Driven Fire Pump (2FPW-P1)

A. Remains in operation ; Remains in standby
B. Remains in operation ; Starts on loss of power to 2ATX-XS3
C. Trips ; Starts on low system pressure
D. Trips ; Starts on loss of power to 2ATX-XS3

Answer 43

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Motor-Driven Fire Pump, 2FPW-P2 is supplied from NNS-SWG012 which in turn is normally fed from NNS-SWG011. NNS-SWG011 is not impacted by the NNS-SWG013 fault and the Motor-Driven Pump remains running. Since the Motor-Driven Pump remains running, pressure is maintained and the diesel driven pump remains in standby.

Question 44

44. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• Suppression Pool Water Level is slowly lowering and is currently at 196 ft.
• N2-EOP-PC has been entered
• Actions are being taken to fill the suppression pool using the HPCS pump
• Suppression chamber airspace is currently 30°F warmer than suppression pool water temperature

Which one of the following describes the indicated average suppression pool temperature reading as compared to the actual average suppression pool temperature?

A. Lower, due to CMS temperature elements becoming uncovered
B. Lower, due to CMS temperature element submergence
C. Higher, due to CMS temperature elements becoming uncovered
D. Higher, due to CMS temperature element submergence

Answer 44

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Suppression Pool Temperature Detector Locations are listed in Detail “X” of N2-EOP-PC. When suppression pool level is below elevation 197 ft. all of the temperature elements will be uncovered and will not respond to suppression pool temperature changes.

Question 45

45. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• APRM #1 is bypassed due to a failed computer module in the APRM chassis
• A spurious closure of all MSIV’s occurs
• Reactor Pressure peaked at 1071 psig
• RPS fails to trip automatically
• RRCS automatically initiates and the operator-at-the-controls manually initiates RRCS per US direction
• ARI functions, but limited control rod movement occurs
• 3 minutes following the start of the transient reactor power remains greater than 4%

Which one of the following describes the plant response to this transient?

A. SLS is injecting only
B. RCS pumps have tripped to off and SLS is injecting only
C. RCS pumps are operating in slow speed, FWS runback has occurred and SLS is injecting
D. RCS pumps have tripped to off, FWS runback has occurred and SLS is injecting

Answer 45

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Per N2-0P-36B, High pressure alone will:
- Initiate an ARI scram,
- Immediately trip the 60 Hz circuit breakers and initiate transfer of the
Recirculation Pumps to LFMG (low speed) operation.
- After 25 seconds, if the APRM channels are not downscale or are INOP,
the RRCS System trips the 15 Hz circuit breakers to complete the RPT.
- It also initiates a feedwater runback and the feedwater min flow valves
fail open which are both sealed in for 25 seconds.
- After an additional 73 seconds with the APRM channels still not downscale or are INOP, the RRCS System initiates the SLS System which isolates the WCS System.

Question 46

46. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A plant transient has occurred that has resulted in a high off-site release rate.

Which one of the following identifies the source(s) that will cause an isolation of the control room ventilation system and the reason for the isolation?

Source(s) ; To protect personnel in the ________ from receiving excessive radiation exposure from the outside air source.

A. Either 2HVC*RE18A OR B only ; control & relay rooms
B. Both 2HVC*RE18A AND C ; control & relay rooms
C. Both 2HVC*RE18A AND C ; control, relay & remote shutdown rooms
D. Either 2HVC*RE18A OR B only ; control, relay & remote shutdown rooms

Answer 46

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: USAR section 7.3.1.1.1 O and N2-0P-53A section H.1.0 state that the control building special filter train will automatically start when either 2HVC*RE18A & C OR 2HVC*RE18B & D exceed their alarm setpoint or have failed. The reason for this isolation is discussed in USAR section 9.4.1.2.2. It is to protect and preserve control room habitability for the control room staff during high supply air radiation levels.

Question 47

47. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A transient occurs that causes reactor pressure to rise to 1080 psig.
• Both Reactor Recirculation Pumps have tripped off.

Which one of the following describes the reason (Bases) for the trip of the Recirculation pumps?

A. It adds additional negative reactivity by increasing the voiding in the core
B. It increases core inlet subcooling which reduces Reactor power
C. It moves the boiling boundary up the fuel channel which adds negative reactivity
D. It overcomes the rise in power caused by the moderator temperature increase due to the rising RPV pressure.

Answer 47

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per Nine Mile Point Unit 2 USAR, section 15.8.3.3, the purpose of the RPT is to reduce core flow and create core voids to decrease power generation, thus limiting any power or pressure disturbance.

Question 48

48. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A control room evacuation is required
• N2-SOP-78 requires the main turbine tripped
• The main turbine is tripped from 2CEC*PNL852
• The following indications are present after the turbine trip pushbuttons are depressed:

-See Picture-

Which one of the following describes the current main turbine status and the next required action?

Turbine tripped ; Required Action
A. Yes ; Initiate condenser neck spray
B. Yes ; Verify Turbine Bypass Valves are controlling pressure
C. No ; Fast close the outboard MSIV’s only
D. No ; Locally trip the main turbine from the front standard

Answer 48

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Based on the indications provided, the main turbine is not tripped. For the given panel indications, 100% means full open and conversely 0% means full closed. The main stop valves and combined intermediate valves all show 100% open indicating that the turbine is not tripped. The turbine control valves indicate closed since the mode switch has been placed in shutdown and reactor is no longer making power. Per N2-0P-78, the Operator at the controls (OATC) is required to verify the main turbine tripped. N2-SOP-78 Upper Turbine building operator is directed to trip the main turbine from the front standard. N2-0P-21 also specifies the following:

-See Picture-

Therefore the next required step would be to trip the main turbine locally at the front standard using the manual trip handle.

Question 49

49. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• The reactor was manually scrammed
• The main turbine has tripped
• MWe is indicating approximately zero
• The main generator has failed to trip
• Main condenser vacuum is 28 inches Hg

Which one of the following describes the first action to be performed to address the failure of the main generator to trip in accordance with N2-SOP-21, Turbine Trip?

A. Immediately open R230 and R925 from 2CEC*PNL852 and then verify 41E and 41M open.
B. Transfer house loads from the normal station transformer to the reserve transformer.
C. Verify the main generator voltage regulator is in auto, lower MVAR to near zero, then open 345 KV motor operated disconnect switch MDS1/233N from 2CEC*PNL852.
D. Shift the main generator voltage regulator to manual, lower MVAR to near zero and verify that the main generator trips on reverse power.

Answer 49

Proposed Answer: D

Per N2-SOP-21, section 5.5, Following a Turbine trip, trip of the Main Generator should be verified. The Main Generator may operate in a motoring condition (Generator gross MWe reaching zero) within the following guidelines:

-See Picture-

If Main Generator output breakers R925 and R230 have not tripped shortly following the Main Generator reaching a motoring condition, initiation of a Main Generator breaker reverse power trip will be attempted by shifting Main Generator Voltage Regulator control to Manual and lowering generator MVARs to near zero with Generator load near zero. If the Main Generator fails to trip on reverse power after adjusting MVARs to near zero, breakers R925 and R230 must be manually opened to avoid damage to the Main Turbine (overheating of exhaust hood and last stage buckets), using the above table for guidance on allowable motoring durations. If the Main Generator Output Breakers (R230 and R925) must be opened manually, a Slow Transfer of Normal Station Service will occur.

Question 50

50. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A small leak occurs in the spent fuel pool
• Spent fuel pool level begins to lower
• N2-SOP-39, “Refuel Floor Events” has been entered
• 2HVR*CAB14A-1, “Reactor Building Above Refueling Floor ‘A’ Gaseous Radiation Monitor” level reaches yellow “Alert” level on DRMS
• 2HVR*CAB14B-1 “Reactor Building Above Refueling Floor ‘B’ Gaseous Radiation Monitor” level reaches red “Alarm” on DRMS
• No reactor building ventilation control component failures occurred

Which one of the following describes the expected reactor building ventilation indications on 2CEC*PNL870 & 871 in response to the event without any operator action?

2HVR*AOD1, 9, 10 closed ; 2HVR*UC413(s) running ; GTS Train(s) running
A. ‘A’& ‘B’ ; ‘A’& ‘B’ ; ‘A’& ‘B’
B. ‘A’ only ; ‘A’ only ; ‘A’ only
C. ‘A’& ‘B’ ; ‘B’ only ; ‘A’& ‘B’
D. ‘B’ only ; ‘B’ only ; ‘B’ only

Answer 50

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Per N2-0P-52, section H.1.0 upon receipt of a reactor building above/below refueling floor exhaust radiation high alarm (2HVR*CAB14A-1, 2HVR*CAB14B-1, 2HVR*CAB32A-1 or 2HVR*CAB32B-1, the following occurs:
• 2HVR*UC413B starts (4138 is the lead unit). Only one Unit Cooler should start unless a control component failure has occurred which in the given it states no control component failures occurred. (OP-52, Precaution & Limitation 18.0)
• All reactor building isolation dampers AOD 1 A & B, 9A & B, and 1 OA & B close
• Both standby gas treatment system filter trains start

Question 51

51. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A leak in the suppression pool has occurred
• Suppression pool level is lowering

Which one of the following describes the effect on drywell (DW) to suppression chamber (SC) differential pressure (D/P), as suppression pool water level lowers?

A. DW to SC D/P rises because DW pressure remains relatively unchanged, but suppression chamber pressure lowers as the suppression chamber gas volume rises due to the loss of suppression pool water inventory.
B. DW to SC D/P lowers because DW pressure remains relatively unchanged, but suppression chamber pressure rises due to expansion of the air and non-condensable gases.
C. DW to SC D/P remains the same because the drywell to suppression chamber vacuum breakers open to equalize pressure as suppression chamber pressure rises due to expansion of the air and non-condensable gases. So, although DW and SC pressures are changing, the D/P between them remains the same.
D. No effect because the loss of suppression pool inventory changes the suppression chamber gas volume, however the change is negligible and therefore does not affect DW to SC D/P. So, neither DW nor SC pressures change.

Answer 51

Explanation: As suppression pool level lowers, the effective volume of the air space above the water level increases. This air space volume increase results in a drop in measured suppression chamber pressure. 2CMS*PI 168 and 2CMS*Pl7A both measure suppression chamber pressure at the 224 ft elevation in the containment (Through containment penetration z337-1 ). This is above the normal suppression pool water level of -200ft. Drywell pressure remains relatively unchanged due to the containment design while the pressure suppression pressure function is intact. With suppression chamber pressure lowering and drywell pressure remaining relatively unchanged, the DW to SC D/P will rise.

Question 52

52. The plant is operating at 70% power with the following:

• A nozzle (rams head) separates from its associated riser on Reactor Recirculation Loop ‘A’

Based on this failure, which one of the following describes what the reactor operator would observe?
A. A rise in indicated Total Core Flow on 2CEC*PNL 603 recorder
B. A rise in noise indication on the failed jet pump’s differential pressure indicator
C. A rise in indicated flow on Loop ‘A’ Jet Pump Flow Indicator on 2CEC*PNL602
D. A rise in indicated flow on Recirc Loop ‘A’ Flow recorder on 2CEC*PNL 602

Answer 52

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: The Recirculation Loop ‘A’ Flow recorder on control room panel 602 measures “drive flow’’ upstream of the jet pumps. This “drive flow’’ will increase due to less resistance to recirculation flow since two of the ten jet pumps on the ‘A’ RCS loop are no longer restricting flow.

A. Plausible - Total core flow is measured using the sum of all 1 O of the jet pump D/P cells on RCS loop ‘A’ and all 10 from RCS loop ‘B’. (See print above) With this failure, D/P in two of the 1 O jet pumps on RCS loop ‘A’ would be zero therefore total core flow indication would lower. The candidate may confuse the inputs to each of the flow indicators.
B. Plausible - Jet pump d/p indication will be less noisy on the failed jet pump due to the lack of flow. The candidate may think that with the failure, more flow turbulence in the area of the failure would result in more indicated noise.
C. Plausible - Loop ‘A’ Jet Pump Flow indication on control room panel 602 is measured using the sum of all 10 of the jet pump D/P cells on RCS loop ‘A’. (See print above) With this failure, D/P in two of the 1 O jet pumps on RCS loop ‘A’ would be zero therefore Loop ‘A’ Jet Pump Flow indication on control room panel 602 would lower. The candidate may confuse the inputs to each of the flow indicators.

Question 53

53. Given the following:

• An Extended Station Blackout is in progress
• RCIC is currently injecting to the RPV

If all DC power will soon be lost, powering which of the following buses will prevent a RCIC trip and allow CONTINUED RCIC injection?

A. 2EJS*US1
B. 2EJS*US3
C. 2NJS-US5
D. 2NJS-US6

Answer 53

Proposed Answer: A

Explanation: Loss of 2VBA *UPS2A/C will cause the loss of 2VBS*PNL 101 A and resultant loss of power to circuit number 21CSN20. This will cause the automatic speed control (Ramp/Flow signal) to be defeated thereby causing the RCIC turbine to trip on overspeed. Bus 2EJS*US1 ultimately provides normal and alternate power to 2VBA*UPS2A/C. Restoring power to 2EJS*US1 will allow restoring 2VBA*UPS2A/C and 2VBS*PNL 101A. Restoration 2EJS*US1 will also restore power to 2BYS*CHGR2A 1 and 2BYS*CHGR2A2 which will in turn allow restoration to 2BYS*SWG002A. This would restore normal DC power to 2VBA*UPS2A/C.

Question 54

54. The plant is in a reactor startup with the following:

• Reactor pressure is 80 psig
• RPV level is stable and being controlled at 185 inches
• A steam leak developed that raised drywall temperature and the leak is now isolated
• All available drywall cooling is currently being placed in service per N2-OP-60
• The following Drywall temperature values are stable:

-See Picture-

Which one of the following describes the EOP entry condition requirements and the effect on RPV level instrumentation?

EOP entry condition met? RPV level instrumentation concern?

A. Yes ; Yes
B. Yes ; No
C. No ; Yes
D. No ; No

Answer 54

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: Temperatures are indicated on the regulatory guide 1.93 instrumentation on Panel 873 & 875 in the control room. N2- EOP -PC entry condition on high drywell temperature is average drywell temperature above 150°F. The average of the given drywell elevation temperatures is 212°F. This is above 150°F which is a required N2-EOP-PC entry. The hottest drywell temperature allowed that would keep plant operation below the RPV saturation line is 325°F for the given reactor pressure of 80 psig. The current hottest drywell pressure was given at 290°F so per Figure ‘B’ of N2-EOP-PC, RPV level instrumentation would not be of concern.

Question 55

55. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• 2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG102 are being powered from reserve transformer ‘A’
• 2ENS*SWG103 is being powered from reserve transformer ‘B’
• Breaker R60 fails and trips open
• All equipment responds and functions as designed

Which one of the following describes the safety related equipment that is OPERABLE?

2ENS*SWG101 ; 2ENS*SWG102 ; 2ENS*SWG103

A. Yes ; No ; No
B. No ; Yes ; Yes
C. Yes ; Yes ; Yes
D. No ; No ; No

Answer 55

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Breaker R60 supplies power from TB2 to off-site 115KV line 6. When breaker R60 trips the one qualified circuit between the offsite transmission network and the onsite Class 1 E AC Electric Power Distribution System per TS 3.8.1 is inoperable, however in this case the
Division 1 (2ENS*SWG101) and Division 2 (2ENS*SWG103) AC electrical power distribution switchgears still have power and would therefore remain operable and available per TS 3.8.8. 2ENS*SWG101 is being powered from off-site 115KV line 5 and 2ENS*SWG103 is being
powered from EGS*EG3.
Per TS 3.8.8 LCO bases, “OPERABLE AC electrical power distribution subsystems require the associated buses to be energized to their proper voltages”

Question 56

56. The plant is in a reactor startup with the following:

• Reactor pressure is 500 psig
• Reactor water level is being maintained in the normal band using 2FWS-LV55B
• FWS pump start preps are being conducted
• Reactor mode switch is in startup
• Condenser air removal pumps are in service maintaining condenser vacuum
• APRM’s are indicating approximately 2% power
• A LOCA occurs and drywell pressure rises to 1.7 psig
• The reactor automatically scrams and all control rods insert

Which one of the following describes the appropriate action to conduct for the given set of conditions?

A. Manually trip the main turbine using the TRIP pushbuttons
B. At 2CEC-PNL842 Shutdown the Hydrogen Water Chemistry System
C. Fast close the outboard MSIV’s prior to reactor pressure reaching 420 psig
D. Prevent LPCS and LPCI injection prior to reactor pressure reaching 400 psig

Answer 56

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: With a high drywell pressure signal in, all LP ECCS pumps would start and immediately receive the open permissive for D/P since the reactor is in startup and reactor pressure is already low (500 psig). Per N2-EOP-RPV control step P-1 it is required to “Before RPV pressure drops to 400 psig, prevent LPCS and LPCI injection not needed for core cooling.”

Low pressure ECCS initiate automatically on a high drywell pressure signal of 1.68 psig and begin to inject when RPV pressure decreases below the shutoff head of the pumps, 400 psig (based on the shutoff head of LPCS, the highest press ECCS). If it is not needed for core cooling, the injection is prevented, since it would only complicate efforts to control RPV water level.

Question 57

57. The following conditions exist:

• A small break LOCA is in progress.
• Appropriate EOPs have been entered.
• No injection sources are available.
• RPV level is approaching the TAF.

Which one of the following describes why RPV Blowdown is delayed until water level has lowered to the Minimum Zero-Injection RPV Water Level per N2-EOP-C3?

A. RPV Blowdown before this level reduces the time the core remains adequately cooled during these conditions.
B. Steam Cooling will NOT maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1500°F if blowdown is performed with water level above TAF.
C. RPV Blowdown before this level produces insufficient steam mass removal rate for adequate core cooling.
D. Steam cooling will NOT maintain fuel cladding temperature below 1800°F if blowdown is performed with water level above TAF.

Answer 57

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per EOP-C3, (Page 10-14 of EOP Bases Document), it states “opening the SRVs before RPV water level reaches the MZIRWL would reduce the time over which the core remains adequately cooled with no injection”.

B. Plausible - The temperature limit in steam cooling is 1800 degrees. This value is not reached until level has lowered to -58”. If the blow down is commenced before TAF, temperature will be well below 1800 degrees. However the time available before adequate core cooling is lost will be reduced since the blowdown was performed before the temperature limit was reached.
C. Plausible - The concern is time permitted for adequate cooling with no injection and not steam mass removal rate generated heat.
D. Plausible - -58” is the level at which steam cooling would be unable to preclude clad temperature from reaching 1800 degrees and is the Minimum Zero-Injection RPV Level. It is not the reason you delay a blowdown. TAF is -14 inches.

Question 58

58. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• The reactor water cleanup system (WCS) is operating in a 1 pump, 3 filter demin line-up.
• RDS is supplying seal water injection to the WCS pumps
• An instrument air leak occurs that results in a loss of air to WCS air operated valves
• A spurious WCS system isolation occurs
• Control room operators take required ARP actions and throttle open WCS-MOV110

Which one of the following describes the affect on the in service WCS Filter Demineralizer inlet and outlet valves and the associated consequences in accordance with N2-0P-37?

In service WCS Filter Demineralizer inlet and outlet valves ; Associated consequences

A. Fail Closed ; Loss of all WCS input to the process computer Core Thermal Power Calculation
B. Fail Closed ; Over pressurization of the WCS pump suction piping
C. Fail Open ; Potential resin intrusion into the RPV if WCS were to be placed back in service
D. Fail Open ; Operation with the potential to drain the reactor
vessel (OPDRV)

Answer 58

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Per N2-SOP-19 section 5.3 table:

-See Picture-

This effectively isolates the WCS system and per N2-ARP-602307, 309, 310, 313, 319 WCSMOV110 is required to be verified throttled open.

Question 59

59. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• A spurious reactor scram occurs
• Main steam tunnel temperature is 180°F and slowly rising
• Drywell pressure reaches 1.71 psig
• RPV pressure is 1050 psig and rising

Which one of the following systems can be used for Reactor Pressure control?

A. Turbine Bypass Valves
B. Main Steam Line Drains
C. Reactor Core Isolation Cooling
D. Reactor Pressure Vessel Head Vent

Answer 59

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: With Group 1 and 5 Isolations present, ONLY RCIC may be used for Pressure Control

A. Plausible - Turbine Bypass Valves are listed as the Preferred Pressure Control method in N2-EOP-RPV Control, but they cannot be used due to MSIV I MSL Drain Isolation (Group 1). The candidate may not recall that a group 1 isolation closes the MSIV’s.
B. Plausible - Main Steam Line Drains are listed as an Alternate Pressure Control method in N2-EOP-RPV Control, but they cannot be used due to MSIV I MSL Drain Isolation (Group 1 ). The candidate may not recall that a group 1 isolation closes 2MSS*MOV111, 2MSS*MOV112, 2MSS*MOV208.
D. Plausible -While RPV head vents are used as a pressure control strategy, conditions have not been met to enter N2-EOP-C2 alternate pressure control nor are they procedurally allowed under the given conditions. The candidate could however think that the head vent is an available source that would be able to control reactor pressure.

Question 60

60. The plant has experienced a LOCA, with the following:

• Drywell Pressure is 3.0 psig
• Hottest Drywell Temperature is 275°F
• Drywell Cooling Fans are tripped

Which one of the following describes the effect on restoring Drywell Cooling System (DRS) per EOP support procedures?

A. Can be restored after defeating interlocks
B. Can be restored without defeating interlocks
C. Cannot be restored, restoring CCP flow may result in water hammer
D. Cannot be restored, restarting DRS fans may result in air duct damage

Answer 60

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: Per N2-EOP-6.24, if DWT is above 250°F, the containment isolation MOVs cannot be reopened, because the water volume in the section of piping between the inboard and outboard isolation valves may have flashed to steam due to the elevated DWT.

Question 61

61. The plant is operating at 10% power continuing power ascension with the following:

• Annunciator 603140, “DRYWELL PRESSURE HIGH/LOW” alarms
• The alarm was not caused by barometric pressure changes
• No primary system leaks are occurring
• Drywell pressure is currently 0.90 psig and rising slowly

Which one of the following describes the allowable vent path and reason why venting is performed under these conditions in accordance with N2-0P-61A, Primary Containment Ventilation, Purge, and Nitrogen System?

Vent from _______ through the 2 inch line ; Why?
A. either the drywell or suppression chamber ; To keep containment pressure in a specific band to ensure that containment pressures remain within design values during a LOCA
B. either the drywell or suppression chamber ; To keep all air and non-condensable gases out of the containment to prevent exceeding the maximum negative D/P if inadvertent containment spray occurs
C. the drywell and suppression chamber simultaneously ; To keep all air and non-condensable gases out of the containment to prevent exceeding the maximum negative D/P if inadvertent containment spray occurs
D. the drywell and suppression chamber simultaneously ; To keep containment pressure in a specific band to ensure that containment pressures remain within design values during a LOCA

Answer 61

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per N2-ARP-603140 operator action #3, “IF Drywell pressure change is NOT due to Barometric change, OR as directed by SM/CRS, perform the following:
a. IF pressure is high, THEN PERFORM N2-0P-61A, Subsection H.1.0.”
Venting is non-emergency and only allowed from either the OW or SC to prevent bypass flowpath.
For the second part of the answer, TS bases for LCO 3.6.1.4 states “A limitation on the drywell and suppression chamber internal pressure of ~ 14.2 psia and s 15.45 psia is required to ensure that primary containment initial conditions are consistent with the initial safety analyses assumptions so that containment pressures remain within design values during a LOCA and the design value of containment negative pressure is not exceeded during an inadvertent operation
of drywell sprays.”

Question 62

62. The plant has been scrammed due to a steam leak on RCIC:

• N2-EOP-SC has been entered
• Two separate area temperatures have exceeded maximum safe values
• Division I and II ADS have failed to initiate and cannot be initiated manually
• ‘A’ & ‘B’ ADS DC solenoid power has been lost
• ‘C’ SRV DC solenoid power has been lost
• SLS has been injected for level control
• Reactor water level wide range indication is reading 15 inches
• Reactor water level narrow range indication is reading 50 inches

Which one of the following describes a viable method and the required action needed to perform an RPV blowdown from the control room envelope in accordance with N2-EOP-C2, RPV Blowdown?

System ; Required Action

A. WCS (Recirculation mode) ; Defeat all WCS Isolations per N2-EOP-6.11
B. SRV’s (ADS mode) ; Operate all 14 keylock switches on panel 2CEC*PNL628 & 631
C. WCS (Blowdown mode to main condenser) ; Break main condenser vacuum by opening condenser vacuum breakers on 2CEC*PNL851
D. SRV’s (Relief mode) ; Operate 7 SRV ‘C’ solenoid keylock switches on 2CEC*PNL601

Answer 62

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: N2-EOP-C2 states all of the systems that are available for use for conducting an RPV blowdown. Since DC power has been lost to all modes of SRV operation, WCS is the only system choice remaining for use to blowdown the RPV. The question states that SLS was injected for RPV level control so WCS, blowdown mode would not be permissible. WCS recirculation mode is the only allowable choice.

Question 63

63. The plant is shutdown with the following:

• Suppression Pool level indication is upscale
• Containment flooding with service water is in progress
• Service water intake temperature is 72°F
• 2CMS-Pl7 A is reading 20 psig
• 2CPS-PI 127 is reading 5 psig

Determine containment water level using the information provided below:

-See Picture-

Using Figure 1a OR Figure 1b, determine primary containment water level as a function of D/P.

Primary containment water level is ……… .

A. 286 ft
B. 270 ft
C. 268 ft
D. 262 ft

Answer 63

Proposed Answer: B

Explanation: Per N2-EOP-6.23 the following steps are required to determine containment water level:
• Determine the appropriate figure (1 a or 1 b): Service water intake temperature is given to be 72°F, per bullet 4 of the note this temperature would require the use of figure 1 b.
• Determine Differential Pressure: flP = S - D (It is not required to convert the pressure values to psia to obtain D/P), Therefore D/P = 20 - 5 which equals 15 psi
• Determine the appropriate P(0) pressure line: (It is required to convert the pressure values given from psig to psia to determine the appropriate P(0) pressure line), therefore P(0) pressure line= 2CMS-Pl127 pressure + 14.7
which equals 5 +14.7 = 19.7 psia. Per bullet 5 of the note, a value of 19.7
psia would require the use of P(0) 14.2 psia pressure line
• Determine “Y” axis intersection point: Determine where the “X” axis value (D/P) and the P(0) 14.2 pressure line intersect on figure 1b and correlate the intersection point to the “Y” axis to determine containment water level value.

The containment water level value plots out to be 270 ft.

Question 64

64. The plant is in mode 3 with the following:

• Four recently irradiated fuel bundles are being relocated in the spent fuel pool.
• A malfunction of reactor building ventilation pressure controller 2HVR-PDI103 causes reactor building differential pressure to reach -0.20 inches WG.

Which one of the following describes the required technical specification action and the time requirements to complete the action?

Technical Specification Action ; Time requirement to complete the action

A. Evacuate the refuel floor ; Within 1 hour
B. Suspend the movement of recently irradiated fuel bundles ; Within 1 hour
C. Evacuate the refuel floor ; Immediately
D. Suspend the movement of recently irradiated fuel bundles ; Immediately

Answer 64

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: In this question secondary containment D/P was given to be -0.20 inch WG. This is below the TS allowed value of -0.25 inch WG which makes the secondary containment inoperable. TS 3.6.4.1 states that with Secondary containment inoperable during the movement of recently irradiated fuel assemblies in the secondary containment, it is required to Immediately suspend movement of recently irradiated fuel assemblies in the secondary containment. IMMEDIATE COMPLETION TIME is defined in Tech specs by the following; ‘When Immediately is used as a Completion Time, the Required Action should be pursued without delay and in a
controlled manner.”

Question 65

65. The plant is returning to rated power following operation at reduced power due to the need to make a containment entry with the following:

• A containment low flow nitrogen purge is in progress in accordance with N2-0P-61A
• A steam leak occurs in the secondary containment
• Annunciator 851254, “Process Airborne Radiation Monitor Activated” alarms
• 2HVR*CAB32A-1, “Reactor Building Below Refueling Floor ‘A’ Gaseous Radiation Monitor” level reaches its trip setpoint
• 2HVR*CAB32B-1 “Reactor Building Below Refueling Floor ‘B’ Gaseous Radiation Monitor” level reaches its trip setpoint

Which one of the following describes the required action and the potential consequence if the action is not taken?

Required Action ; Potential Consequence

A. Close 2GTS*AOV101, CONTAINMENT PURGE TO SBGTS ISOL VLV ; 2GTS*FN1A (B), SBGTS FAN A (B) Trip on high flow
B. Close 2GTS*SOV102, CONTMT DEPRESSURIZE TO SBGTS ISOL VLV ; Ground Level Release
C. Verify 2GTS*AOV101, CONTAINMENT PURGE TO SBGTS ISOL VLV auto isolation ; 2GTS*FN1A (B), SBGTS FAN A (B) Trip on high flow
D.Verify 2GTS*SOV102, CONTMT DEPRESSURIZE TO SBGTS ISOL VLV auto isolation ; Ground Level Release

Answer 65

Proposed Answer: B
Explanation: Per N2-0P-61A section F.13 (specifically step F.13.13), containment low flow nitrogen purge utilizes the 2” solenoid operated control valve (GTS*SOV102) to perform the purge. Also, section F.13 of N2-0P-61 A states in the caution that “If a purge is in progress and a Rx Bldg Ventilation High Radiation alarm is received, termination of purge is required to ensure GTS is only lined up to the Reactor Building”. This is because 2GTS*AOV101 and GTS*SOV102 do not automatically close on reactor building exhaust radiation high. In this case SBGTS will be taking a suction on both the containment and the reactor building. With a steam
leak occurring that is pressurizing the reactor building and having SBGTS lined up to both suction paths, it would extend the time it would take for the SBGTS system to draw down the reactor building D/P and could result in a ground level release.

Question 66

66. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:
    • A credible insider threat has resulted in activation of the “Two Person Rule” in accordance with EPI P-EPP-10, Security Contingency Event.
    • The Unit Supervisor determines that access to the Reactor Building is needed by an EO to immediately operate a valve which is critical to plant operations.
    • A security officer is currently available to provide assistance to Operations Dept.
    • There are no other operators currently available.
    • The EO requests an exception to the “Two Person Rule”.

Which one of the following describes the correct response to this request in accordance with EPIP-EPP-10?

An Exception to the “Two Person Rule” …

A. may be approved by the Unit Supervisor.
B. may be approved by the Security Shift Supervisor.
C. may NOT be approved, but a Security Officer may accompany the Operator.
D. may NOT be approved and the EO must wait until another operator becomes available.

Answer 66

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: The two person rule requires: 1) Equal task qualification levels are not necessary, 2) Partner must remain in line of sight, 3) Partner must have access to the vital area. The security guard meets the requirements for the two man rule.

A. Plausible - The candidate may think that since the need to operate a valve in the plant is required for safe operation that Unit supervisor permission is adequate for the action.
B. Plausible - The candidate may think that since this is a security event and that security actions will be on-going that security shift supervisor permission would be required.
D. Plausible - The candidate may think that the only requirement is that you are paired up with someone when the two person rule is in effect, however the requirement for the two person rule are only that another person qualified to be in the vital area is within line of site. Equal qualifications are not required.

Question 67

67. Which one of the following describes the electrical interlock with 2RHS*MOV2A, PMP1A SDC SUCT VLV, and the reason for that interlock?

If 2RHS*MOV2A is OPEN then …

A. 2RHS*MOV24A, LPCI A Injection Valve, will not open to prevent bypassing the recirculation loop.
B. 2RHS*MOV4A, RHR Pump 1A Minimum Flow Valve, will not open to prevent draining the RPV to the suppression pool.
C. 2RHS*FV38A, RHR A Return to the Suppression Pool, will not open to prevent draining the RPV to the suppression pool.
D. 2RHS*MOV24A, LPCI A Injection Valve AND 2RHS*MOV40A, SDC A Injection valve, cannot both be opened at the same time to prevent running out the RHR pump.

Answer 67

Proposed Answer: C

Explanation: If in SDC none of the suppression pool cooling /spray valves can be opened.

Question 68

68. A plant startup and power ascension is in progress with the following:

• Reactor Power is 26%
• Generator output is 250 MWe
• Load Limit setpoint is 250 MWe because of a generator winding issue

Then, annunciator 851150, TURBINE BYPASS VALVE OPEN alarms and #1 Bypass Valve opens.

Which one of the following actions is required to close the #1 Bypass Valve?

A. Insert control rods.
B. Raise Pressure Set.
C. Lower Pressure Set.
D. Lower Bypass Opening Jack setpoint.

Answer 68

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: With the Load Limit set at 250 MWe the turbine cannot accept any more load. Since the EHC systems wants to open the control valves, but can’t because of the load limit the bypass valve is opening to control pressure. The only way to close the bypass valves is to lower reactor power and hence pressure by inserting the control rods.

Question 69

69. The plant is operating at reduced power due to rod sequence exchange:

• 30 Monicore MCPR indication is not functioning and is currently displaying “XXXXX”
• Core cycle exposure is 2107.3 MWd/ST
• Tau is 1.0

-See Picture-

Using the equation above, which one of the following describes the technical specification (T.S.) Safety Limit status and the applicable Technical Specification(s) requiring action?

Note:
The following delineates the specific LCO titles:
• T.S. 3.2.2, “MINIMUM CRITICAL POWER RATIO (MCPR)”
• T.S. 3.2.3, “LINEAR HEAT GENERATION RATE (LHGR)”

Safety Limit ; Applicable T.S.

A. Not violated ; 3.2.2 and 3.2.3
B. Not violated ; 3.2.2 only
C. Violated ; 3.2.2 and 3.2.3
D. Violated ; 3.2.2 only

Answer 69

Proposed Answer: B

Question 70

70. Given the following:

• Entry into the TIP Room is required.
• TIP Room is LOCKED and posted as VERY HIGH RADIATION AREA.

Which one of the following identifies who is responsible for controlling access to the key, and the additional approval(s) required for entry per RP-AA-460-001, CONTROLS FOR VERY HIGH RADIATION AREAS?

Key Control ; Additional Approval(s) Required

A. Radiation Protection Manager ; Site VP OR the Plant Manager AND the
Radiation Protection Manager
B. Radiation Protection Manager ; Radiation Protection Manager ONLY
C. Shift Manager ; Site VP OR the Plant Manager AND the
Radiation Protection Manager
D. Shift Manager ; Radiation Protection Manager ONLY

Answer 70

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: Per RP-AA-460-001 step 4.2.4.1; Keys designated for VHRA’s are to be maintained in a separate cabinet from ALL other keys and controlled by the RPM. Per step 4.3.3.1; Obtain approval of the Radiation Protection Manager or designee and Obtain approval of the Site VP, Plant Manager, or designee prior to entry.

Question 71

71. The plant is in a refuel outage with the following:

• A radiation accident has occurred on the refuel floor resulting in serious injury to a worker on the Refuel Platform.
• The worker is still on the Refuel Platform.
• Radiation levels in the area of the injured operator are 4500 mRem/hr.
• Emergency exposure limit for life saving operations has been authorized.
• The individual designated to provide life saving assistance has a current lifetime exposure of 1000 mrem

Which one of the following is the maximum stay time for the individual providing life saving assistance to ensure the limits established in EP-CE-113, Personnel Protective Actions Procedure are not exceeded?

A. 0.88 hrs
B. 1.11 hrs
C. 5.33 hrs
D. 5.55 hrs

Answer 71

Proposed Answer: D
Explanation: Per EP-CE-113, “Emergency exposure limits are exclusive to current occupational exposure.” Therefore, based on correct limit of 25 Rem limit (life saving per EP-CE-113 Table 5.1-1) 25R/4.5R per hr= 5.55 hours.

Question 72

72. The plant is operating at rated conditions with the following:

• An I&C technician inadvertently operates the wrong component during a surveillance and causes both reactor recirculation pumps to trip.
• A reactor scram occurs and all control rods fully insert
• Reactor Pressure is 850 psig and stable
• RPV water level is 155 inches and lowering very slowly
• The condensate and feedwater system is available and operating normally and no operator action has been taken with the condensate and feedwater system

Which one of the following represents the correct reactor water level band for the given conditions and the corresponding level control means?

Band ; Level Control Means

A. 227 to 243 inches ; Raise RPV level to specified band using the feedwater pumps
B. 227 to 243 inches ; Raise RPV level to specified band by maximizing CRD flow
C. 159.3 to 202.3 inches ; Restore and maintain RPV level using preferred injection systems
D. 159.3 to 202.3 inches ; Maintain RPV level using both preferred and alternate injection systems

Answer 72

Proposed Answer: C

Explanation: RPV Control, step L-3 states, “Restore and maintain RPV water level between 159.3 in. and 202.3 in. using one or more Preferred Injection Systems (Detail E1 ).” OP-NM-101-111-1001, section 5.3 states:
5.3. Procedure Hierarchy
NOTE
Implementation of the EDMGs (Extreme Damage Mitigation Guidelines) may be done in parallel with the below procedures.
A Nothing shall supersede the proper implementation of the EOPs and SAP’s.

The followingdescribes the operating procedure implementation hierarchy from highest to lowest priority:

1. SAPs (Severe Accident Procedures) including those Procedures directed by SAPs
2. EOPs (Emergency Operating Procedures) including those Procedures directed by EOPs
3. SOPs {Special Operating Procedures)
4. ARPs (Annunciator Response Procedures)
5. OPs (Operating Procedures)

In this case N2-EOP-RPV entry is required due to the scram with reactor water level less than 159.3 inches. Since N2-EOP-RPV is a higher tiered procedure, reactor water should be maintained per the EOP prescribed band of 159.3-202.3 inches. Both reactor recirculation pumps are tripped and per N2-SOP-29, step 6.2.1 it would be required to raise RPV water level to 227 to 243 inches on the Shutdown Range to establish natural circulation, however since the EOP’s are a higher tiered document than SOP’s the required band would be 159.3-202.3 inches. For the second part of the answer, per N2-EOP-RPV you are allowed to restore and
maintain RPV level and would only use preferred injection systems step L-3.

Question 73

Question #73 Is Withheld From Public Disclosure Due To Security Information Contained Therein.

Answer 73

Question #73 Is Withheld From Public Disclosure Due To Security Information Contained Therein.

Question 74

74. Primary Containment Isolation Valve testing is being conducted on containment purge AOVs in accordance with N2-0SP-CPS-Q001, Primary Containment Purge System Valve Operability Test.

Which one of the following would be the correct method for determining whether an AOV’s closure time was acceptable for a fully open AOV?

Start the timing when the …. Stop the timing ….

A. control switch is taken to the close position , when the green closed indication illuminates
B. green closed indication illuminates , when the red open indication extinguishes
C. control switch is taken to the close position , when the red open indication extinguishes
D. green closed indication illuminates , two seconds after red open indication extinguishes

Answer 74

Proposed Answer: C
Explanation: N2-0SP-CPS-Q001 Sect. 4.2.1 Measuring Valve Stroke times for all valves except Solenoid Operated Valves.

• Measure opening stroke time from the time the control switch is placed to OPEN until the green indicating light de-energizes.
• Measure closing stroke time from the time the control switch is placed to CLOSE until the red indicating light de-energizes.

This simulates the receipt of the PCIS signal and the action of the valve in
response.

A. Plausible - This is the timing closed method for a CPS SOV.

Question 75

75. The reactor is operating at rated power when annunciator 602116, RECIRC PMP 1 B SEAL STAGING FLOW HIGH LOW, alarms. The following indications exist for Reactor Recirc Pump 1B:

• Seal staging flow is high (computer point RCSFC10)
• Lower (#1) Seal cavity pressure is 1020 psig
• Upper (#2) Seal cavity pressure is 830 psig

Which one of the following identifies the status of Reactor Recirc Pump B seals?

A. Only the lower seal is degraded
B. Only the upper seal is degraded
C. Both the upper and lower seals are partially degraded
D. Both the upper and lower seals have completely failed

Answer 75

Proposed Answer: A
Explanation: As the lower seal degrades, its pressure drop goes down, resulting in the upper seal cavity pressure rising toward the lower cavity pressure. Staging flow rises as a result of the degraded lower seal; hence, the annunciator cited in the stem; in this case for HI FLOW.