2008 NRC RO Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Following a plant transient, the following conditions exist:
  • Drywell Pressure is 2.5 psig, rising.
  • RPV Water Level is 90 inches, lowering at 1 inch per minute.
  • Reactor Pressure is 500 psig, lowering at 5 psig per minute.
  • THEN annunciator 601447, RHR A INJ VLV 24A OPEN PERMISSIVE alarms.
    Which one of the following is the indicated flow on the 2RHS*F114A Division 1 RHS Loop Total Flow Indicator five minutes after annunciator 601447 is received?

A. 0gpm
B. 1,000gpm
C. 3,500gpm
D. 7,000gpm

A

Correct Answer: A. When 601447 alarms, Reactor Pressure is 130 psid above RHR Pressure, which was already operating at minimum flow due to High Drywell Pressure. 5 minutes later, Reactor Pressure is 105 psid above RHR Pressure, resulting in Shutoff Head conditions. Minimum Flow Valve, 4A taps off BEFORE the Flow Element, which results in 0 gpm indicated flow.

Plausible Distractors:
B is plausible; would be true if Minimum Flow path produced flow indication.
C is plausible; would be true if Reactor Pressure were -250 psig.
D is plausible; would be true if Reactor Pressure were -150 psig.

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2
Q
  1. The following conditions exist:
  • The reactor is in Mode 3.
  • RHR Loop “A” is in Shutdown Cooling.,
  • RHR Loop “B” is in Suppression Pool Cooling.
  • DIVISION I RHR/LPCS REAC WTR LVL LOW alarms.
  • DIVISION II RHR REAC WTR LVL LOW alarms.

Which one of the following describes the automatic RHR system response?

A. RHR Loop A continues to operate to shutdown cooling and RHR B pumps trips.
B. RHR A and B pumps trip, RHR Loop B realigns to the injection mode and the RHR B pump restarts.
C. RHR pump A trips and RHR Loop B realigns to the injection mode and the RHR B pump continues to run.
D. RHR Loop A continues to operate in shutdown cooling and RHR Loop B.

A

Correct Answer: C An RPV Level signal will cause a Group 5 isolation. (This is satisfied by RPV level 1). Since the RHS-A loop is in Shutdown cooling, the isolation signal will cause closure of MOV112, which will result in a pump trip. RHS-B will realign and inject per design

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; would be true for RHR B Pump overload condition.
B is plausible; identifies potential misconception on Suppression Pool Cooling / LPCl automatic reaIignment .
D is plausible; identifies potential misconception on Shutdown Cooling Isolation.

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3
Q
  1. RHS B Loop is operating in Shutdown Cooling Mode, with conditions as follows:
  • The plant is in MODE 4, Cold Shutdown.
  • NO Reactor Recirculation Pumps are in operation.
  • RHR B Loop Flow is 5000 gpm.
  • Cooldown Rate is 100°F/hr.
  • RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1B-INLET BYPASS VLV THROTTLE is 50% open.

Which one of the following valve throttling manipulations is required to operate at rated system flow conditions?

A. RHSMOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the OPEN direction and throttling RHSMOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV in the OPEN direction.
B. RHSMOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the OPEN direction and throttling RHSMOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER I B INLET BYPASS VLV in the CLOSED direction.
C. RHSMOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the CLOSED direction and throttling RHSMOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV in the OPEN direction.
D. RHSMOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the CLOSED direction and throttling RHSMOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV in the CLOSED direction.

A

Correct Answer: A With Loop Flow LOW, it is required to throttle RHSMOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the OPEN direction. This will RAISE Cooldown rate. To LOWER Cooldown rate, it is required to throttle RHSMOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1B INLET BYPASS VLV in the OPEN direction.

Plausible Distractors:
B is plausible; identifies misconception on RHR Loop Flow acceptable value (7450 gpm) and action to reduce Cooldown Rate.
C is plausible; identifies misconception on RHR Loop Flow acceptable value (7450 gpm).
D is plausible; identifies misconception om action to reduce Cooldown Rate.

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4
Q
  1. The plant is in Mode 2, with the following:
    - Annunciator 870121, DIVISION I UNIT COOLERS MOTOR OVERLOAD alarms.
    - Computer Point HVRTC08, LPCS PMP RM UC402B MOT, Source 49X-2HVRB12 caused the alarm.

Which one of the following describes the affect, if any, of this condition on the operation of the Low Pressure Core Spray System?

If the Low Pressure Core Spray System is INITIATED due to a Loss of Coolant Accident, excessive motor temperatures:
A. will not occur due to this failure, because of the present Mode.
B. will not occur due to this failure, because one Unit Cooler will meet the cooling requirements of the Low Pressure Core Spray System.
C. will not occur due to this failure, because Reactor Building HVAC Supply Fans provides the required cooling for the Low Pressure Core Spray System.
D. will occur as a result of this failure, because BOTH Unit Coolers are required to meet the cooling requirements of the Low Pressure Core Spray System.

A

Correct Answer: B ONE of TWO LPCS Room Coolers is required to provide adequate cooling. With HVR*UC402A still available, LPCS Room Cooler requirements will be met.

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5
Q
  1. Following a Loss of Coolant Accident, the following conditions exist:
  • ALL Control Rods are inserted.
  • Reactor Pressure is 950 psig.
  • ONLY High Pressure Core Spray is injecting.
  • NO OTHER Injection Systems are operating.
  • When RPV Water Level LOWERED to -30 (actual) inches, Automatic Depressurization System Safety Relief Valves were MANUALLY OPENED.
  • RPV Water Level LOWERED and stabilized at -60 (actual) inches, with High Pressure Core Spray injecting 6500 gpm.

Which one of the following describes the status of adequate core cooling during this event sequence?

A. NOT been maintained, because RF’V Water Level LOWERED below the Minimum Zero Injection RPV Water Level.
B. NOT been maintained, because RPV Water Level LOWERED below the Minimum Steam Cooling RPV Water Level.
C. IS maintained because RPV Water Level has continuously provided adequate cooling to the fuel by SUBMERGENCE.
D. IS maintained, because RPV Water Level and Core Spray Flow provided adequate cooling by CORE SPRAY’ COOLING.

A

Correct Answer: D Adequate Core Cooling has been maintained, because Core Spray exceeds 6350 gpm with RPV Water Level above -62 (minus 62) inches.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; would be true with NO Injection, because RPV Water Level LOWERED below -55 (minus 55) inches. (MZIRWL)
B is plausible; would be true if RPV Water Level LOWERED to -39 (minus 39) inches prior to Blowdown. (MSCRWL)
C is plausible; would be true if RPV Water Level remained above -14 (minus 14) inches.

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6
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the Standby Liquid Control System (SLS) in a normal standby configuration.
    Which one of the following abnormal conditions will result in a loss of continuity to (SLS) Explosive Valve 2SLS*VEX3A?

A. Trip of SLS Pump A motor thermal overload device.
B. Trip of SLS Pump A suction valve power supply breaker.
C. Blown power supply fuse for Div I Redundant Reactivity Control logic.
D. Blown control power fuse for SLS Pump A motor power supply breaker.

A

Correct Answer: D 2EHSMCC102 provides motor operating power (600 VAC) and motor control power for Explosive Squibs for 2SLSVEX3A.
Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; would be true if Motor Breaker power were supplied to Explosive Squibs.
B is plausible; Suction Valve power is from a separate breaker on 2EHS*MCC102.
C is plausible; RRCS provides an SLS Initiation signal, does not provide power to Explosive Squibs.

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7
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power. Both NORM-TEST-SRI Toggle Switches are placed in TEST on the Hydraulic Control Unit of a withdrawn control rod.
    Which one of the following is the control rod response, if any?

A. Remains at the same position.
B. Inserts at SCRAM speed. Displaced water will drain from the Scram Discharge Volume.
C. Inserts at SCRAM speed. Displaced water will accumulate in the Scram Discharge Volume resulting in a Control Rod Block.
D. Inserts at SCRAM speed. Displaced water will completely fill the Scram Discharge Volume resulting in a Reactor Scram.

A

Correct Answer: B is correct, Scram Valves remain OPEN. The control rod will insert a SCRAM speed. Displaced water will drain from the Scram Discharge Volume. SDV Vents and Drains REMAIN OPEN.

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8
Q
  1. Which one of the following describes the AXIAL LOCATION within the Reactor Vessel of a FULLY INSERTED Intermediate Range Monitor (IRM) Detector AND a FULLY WITHDRAWN IRM Detector?

FULLY INSERTED IRM Detector, FULLY WITHDRAWN IRM Detector

A. Top of Active Fuel, 2.5 feet BELOW the Bottom of Active Fuel
B. 1.5 feet ABOVE Core Centerline, Bottom of Active Fuel
C. Top of Active Fuel, 1.5 feet BELOW Core Centerline
D. 1.5 feet ABOVE Core Centerline, 2.5 feet BELOW the Bottom of Active Fuel

A

Correct Answer: D When an IRM Detector is FULLY INSERTED, it is axially located at 1.5 feet ABOVE Core Centerline and when an IRM Detector is FULLY WITHDRAWN, it is axially located at 2.5 feet BELOW Bottom of Active Fuel.

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9
Q
  1. Which one of the following conditions will cause the IRM B Detector Retract Permit green indicating lamp to be illuminated?

A. The Reactor Mode Switch in RUN.
B. ALL IRMs are on Range 3 or above.
C. IRM Channel B Detector is fully withdrawn.
D. IRM Channel B indicates greater than 108/125.

A

Correct Answer: A The Reactor Mode Switch in RUN will illuminate the IRM B Detector Retract Permit green indicating lamp.
Plausible Distractors :
B is plausible; ALL IRMs are on Range 3 or above bypasses SRM Detector Retract function.
C is plausible; IRM Channel B Detector fully withdrawn results in white OUT indicating lamp illuminated.
D is plausible; IRM Channel B indicates greater than 108/125 results in UPSCALE ind icating lamp illuminated .

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10
Q
  1. The following conditions exist for SRM A, during a plant startup:
  • SRMs are fully inserted.
  • SRM Channel A indicates 1x10^5 cps.
  • Annunciator 603203, SRM UPSC/INOPERABLE alarms.
  • Annunciator 603442, CONTROL ROD OUT BLOCK alarms.
  • Amber SRM “UPSC ALARM OR INOP” light on P603 is LIT.
  • Red SRM “UPSC TRIP” lights on P603 are OFF.
  • White “INOP” light at the drawer is OFF.

Which one of the following actions is required, by procedure, to clear the Control Rod Out Block being generated by SRM A?

A. Retract SRM Detector to clear the UPSC condition.
B. Bypass SRM A Channel to clear the INOP condition.
C. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 8, THEN retract SRM Detector to clear the UPSC condition.
D. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 3, THEN verify the Control Rod Out Block automatically clears.

A

Correct Answer: A Upscale Alarm condition is indicated by light status. With a startup in progress, SRMs are required to be maintained on scale by retracting detectors.

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11
Q
  1. With the plant operating at full power, a loss of power from 2VBB-UPS3A occurs.
    Which one of the following describes the impact of this power loss of the Average Power Range Monitors?

A. APRM Channels 1 and 2 are de-energized and produces an RPS A Half Scram.
B. APRM Channels 3 and 4 are de-energized and produces an RPS B Half Scram.
C. APRM Channels 1 and 2 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 214 Logic Module produces an RPS A Half Scram.
D. APRM Channels 3 and 4 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 214 Logic Module produces an RPS B Half Scram.

A

Correct Answer: C APRMs are powered from Quadruple Low Voltage Power Supplies with redundant supply sources. Loss of 2VBB-UPS3A removes one of two inputs of power to QLVPS, and a loss of power to the 214 Logic Module which produces an RPS A Half Scram.

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12
Q
  1. Following a reactor scram, the following conditions exist:
  • Reactor Core Isolation Cooling was manually initiated and is injecting.
  • Annunciator 601343, RClC CNDS TK 1A WATER LEVEL LOW alarms.

Which one of the following will occur as a result?

A. ICS”MOV129, PMP 1 SUCT FROM CONDENSATE STOR TK will shut, AND 601318 RClC PUMP 1 DISCH FLOW LOW will alarm.
B. ICSMOV129, PMP 1 SUCT FROM CONDENSATE STOR TK will shut, AND 601327 RClC PUMP 1 SUCTION PRESS LOW will alarm.
C. ICS
MOV129, PMP 1 SUCT FROM CONDENSATE STOR TK will shut, then ICSMOV136, PMP SUCT FROM SUPPRESSION POOL will open.
D. ICS
MOV136, PMP SUCT FROM SUPPRESSION POOL will open, then ICS*MOV129, PMP 1 SUCT FROM CONDENSATE STOR TK will shut.

A

Correct Answer: D With a CST Low Level condition, ICSMOV136, PMP SUCT FROM SUPPRESSION POOL will open, then ICSMOV129, PMP 1 SUCT FROM CONDENSATE STOR TK will shut.

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13
Q
  1. Following a MANUAL initiation of the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS), the following conditions exist:
  • Reactor Pressure LOWERED to 80 pig.
  • ALL Low Pressure ECCS Pumps have degraded, due to Suction Strainer clogging and have been TRIPPED.
  • ONLY the High Pressure ECCS Pump is STILL injecting.
  • RPV Water Level reached a MlNlMLlM of 15 inches and is 30 inches, RISING.

What is the status of the ADS Safety Relief Valves (SRVs)?

A. ADS SRVs remain OPEN, due to a logic seal-in.
B. ADS SRVs will SHUT, due to loss of logic seal-in.
C. ADS SRVs will SHUT, due to recovering RPV Water Level.
D. ADS SRVs will remain OPEN, because an ECCS Pump is providing a permissive.

A

Correct Answer: A Initially, LP ECCS Pumps were RUNNING. Manual Initiation switches energize K6A Initiation Relay AND K8A Seal In Relay. When K8A is energized, it seals itself in by closing a contact above the Seal In Reset pushbutton in the diagram. ADS Valves REMAIN OPEN, even if LP ECCS Pump permissives are
subsequently LOST.

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14
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100%, when the following occurs:
    - Annunciator 602228, MN STEAM LINE PIPE TUNNEL TEMP HI-HI DIFF TEMP HI, alarms.
    - Trip Units E31-N604A and B, MSL TUNNEL EL 263 FT indicate 170°F.

Which one of the following describes the PClS response to these annunciators, and what action is required?

A. ONLY the MSlVs will isolate. It is required to enter N2-SOP-101 C, REACTOR SCRAM.
B. The MSlVs AND the INBOARD MSL Drains will isolate. It is required to enter N2-SOP-101 C, REACTOR SCRAM.
C. The MSlVs AND the OUTBOARD MSL Drains will isolate. It is required to enter N2-SOP-101 C, REACTOR SCRAM.
D. NO automatic actions will occur. It is required to Dispatch an operator to 2CES-IPNL202, TURBINE BLDG HVAC panel, to confirm proper HVAC operation.

A

Correct Answer: A With Logic inputs A and B tripped, ONLY the MSlVs will isolate. It is required to enter N2-SOP-IOIC REACTOR SCRAM.

Plausible Distractors:
B is plausible; would be true if B and C tripped.
C is plausible; would be true if A and D tripped.
D is plausible; would be true if temperature provided were below the isolation setpoint of 167.2°F.

ARP 602228
• If Channel A or C (Div.1) AND Channel B or D (Div.2) are tripped, then the MSIVs will isolate.
• If Channel A (Div.1) and Channel D (Div.2) are tripped, then the MSIVs and the Outboard MSL Drains (2MSSMOV112 and MOV208) will isolate.
• If Channel C (Div.1) and Channel B (Div.2) are tripped, then the MSIVs and the Inboard MSL Drain (2MSS
MOV111) will isolate.

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15
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power, when the following indications occurred:
  • Reactor Pressure LOWERED from 1020 psig to 101 5 psig and stabilized.
  • Main Steam Line A Flow is 3.7 Mlbmlhr.
  • Main Steam Line B Flow is 2.9 Mlbm/hr.
  • Main Steam Line C Flow is 3.7 Mlbm/hr.
  • Main Steam Line D Flow is 3.7 Mlbmlhr.

Which one of the following failures is indicated?

A. OPEN Safety Relief Valve.
B. SHUT Turbine Control Valve.
C. OPEN Turbine Bypass Valve.
D. SHUT Main Steam Isolation Valve.

A

Correct Answer: A With LOW MSL Flow and LOWERING Reactor Pressure, an OPEN Safety Relief Valve is indicated.

Plausible Distractors:
B is plausible; Reactor Pressure would RISE and MSL Flows would be equal.
C is plausible; Reactor Pressure would remain the same and MSL Flows would remain balanced .
D is plausible; Reactor Pressure would RISE and MSL Flow would be ZERO in one MSL.

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16
Q
  1. The LEVEL Leg of N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram, contains the following override statement condition:

“An SRV is open OR Drywell Pressure is above 1.68 psig”

Per the EOP Basis, which one of the following does this condition indicate?

A. Loss of Coolant Accident has occurred or an RPV Blowdown has been performed.
B. Heat is being added to the Suppression Pool by either the Downcomers or the SRV Tailpipes.
C. Reactor Coolant System is breached and injected Boron will NOT remain in the core.
D. Conditions exist which jeopardize the continued availability of Reactor Water Level Instruments.

A

Correct Answer: B These conditions indicate that heat is being added to the Suppression Pool by either the Downcomers or the SRV Tailpipes.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; Drywell Pressure > 1.68 psig is a LOCA signal, and SRVs are open following an RPV Blowdown.
C is plausible; Drywell Pressure > 1.68 psig indicates the RCS barrier is breached.
D is plausible; if SRVs are opened and Reactor Pressure lowered with conditions of High Drywell Temperature, Reactor Water Level Instruments may become unavailable.

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17
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% with the following with FWS-P1A and FWS-P1B in service.

At 12:00:00, FWS-LV10A has a loss of control power
At 12:00:30 the following results:
- Reactor scrams
- Power LOWERS to 40%
- SRVs are cycling to control Reactor Pressure

Which one of the following describes the condition of FWS-LV10B and FWSLV10A at 1201:00, with NO operator actions?

FWS-LVI0A ; FWS-LV10B
A. Auto and Open ; Auto and Shut
B. Auto and Open ; Auto and Open
C. Manual and Open ; Manual and Shut
D. Manual and Shut ; Manual and Shut
A

C. Manual and Open ; Manual and Shut

On a loss of control power, the LV10’s will not re-position to the closed position, the valve control logic needs power to process the LV10 close signal from RRCS

On a LV10 Lock-up, the lockup will be cleared by RRCS and the valve will go closed so long as it has control power. This will occur even if there is a loss of “Control Signal”

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18
Q
  1. The plant is in COLD SHUTDOWN with one train of Standby Gas Treatment (GTS) inoperable.
    Which one of the following plant changes results in the requirement for BOTH trains of GTS to be operable?

A. Reactor Water Temperature unexpectedly rises above 200°F.
B. Loss of Secondary Containment Differential Pressure.
C. New Fuel is being placed in the Spent Fuel Pool.
D. Operational Mode is changed to MODE 5.

A

A TWO GTS trains are required to be OPERABLE in MODES 1,2, and 3 (MODE 3 is RPV temperature above 200°F)

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19
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power with the following:
    Division I Diesel Generator has been started and is being set up to perform a load test in parallel with 2ENSSWG101 in accordance with N2-OP-100A. The
    operator is ready to parallel the engine with 2ENS
    SWG101.
    Which one of the following conditions will ensure the Division I Diesel Generator does NOT trip due to excessive Reactive Load?

A. SYNCHROSCOPE (EMERGENCY POWER-DIV I) is rotating slowly in the clockwise direction.
B. 4.16KV 2ENSSWG101 INCOMING VOLTS indicates 5.20 kV AND 4KV RTX-XSR1A/ABSX1/ EGSEG1 RUNNING VOLTS indicates 4.20 kV.
C. 4.16KV 2ENSSWG101 INCOMING VOLTS indicates 4.20 kV AND 4KV RTX-XSR1A/ABSX1/ EGSEG1 RUNNING VOLTS indicates 4.20 kV.
D. BREAKER 2ENS*SWG101-1 is closed when SYNCHROSCOPE (EMERGENCY POWER-DIV I) is at 5 minutes before the 12 o’clock position.

A

Correct Answer: C
Voltage match prevents excessive Reactive Load during
synchronization. Running Voltage is 2ENS*SWG101, Incoming Voltage is Division I Diesel Generator.

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20
Q
  1. With a LOSS of power from UPS1A, which one of the following prevents Control Rod movement?
    Control Rod movement is prevented by a loss of power to the:

A. PMS Process Computer
B. Intermediate Range Monitors
C. Reactor Manual Control System
D. Scram Discharge Volume Level Instrumentation.

A

Correct Answer: C The Reactor Manual Control System loses power, which prevents Control Rod movement.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; The PMS Process Computer does not lose power from UPS 1A loss. It is powered from UPS G
B is plausible; IRMs are powered from 24/48 VDC.
D is plausible; SDV Level Instruments do riot lose power from UPS 1A loss. The SDV Level Instruments are powered from UPS 3A/3B (GE Drawing 105E1503T4)

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21
Q
  1. 2VBB-UPS1B has been placed on battery power with 2VBB-TRS1 out of service for repair.
    - DC Bus 2BYS-SWG001C is LOST.
    Which one of the following describes the condition of Uninterruptible Power Supply (UPS) 2VBB-UPS1B loads following the DC Power Loss?

A. DE-ENERGIZED, due to loss of ALL redundant power sources.
B. ENERGIZED, because 2VBB-UPS1B Inverter Output is UNAFFECTED by this DC Power failure.
C. ENERGIZED, due to MAINTENANCE power AUTOMATICALLY aligned through the Static Switch.
D. DE-ENERGIZED until MAINTENANCE power is MANUALLY aligned through the 2VBB-UPS1B Maintenance Switch.

A

Correct Answer: C With NORMAL and DC (Inverter Input) Power lost, the Static Switch will automatically align Maintenance Power to UPS Loads. Loads will remain
ENERGIZED.

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22
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power, when DC Power from 2BYS*SWG002B is LOST.
    Which one of the following describes the affect, if any, of this failure on Reactor Recirculation Pump Breakers?

A. ONLY B Reactor Recirculation Pump FAST Speed Breakers TRIP.
B. BOTH Reactor Recirculation Pumps FAST Speed Breakers TRIP.
C. ONLY B Reactor Recirculation Pump SLOW Speed Breakers have lost control power.
D. BOTH Reactor Recirculation Pumps FAST and SLOW Speed Breakers are unaffected.

A

Correct Answer: B Plant at full power implies FAST Speed Recirculation Pump operation. With a Loss of DC power from 2BYS*SWG002B, BOTH Reactor Recirculation Pumps FAST Speed Breakers TRIP.

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23
Q
  1. Given the following conditions:
    - A Loss of Offsite Power and LOCA have occurred.
    - 2EGSEG3 TRIPS on overspeed during start and CANNOT be started.
    - 2EGS
    EG1 & 2 operate as designed and power their respective buses.
    Which one of the following lists includes ALL the ECCS Pumps that have power available?

A. CSHP1, CSLP1 , and RHSP1A ONLY.
B. CSH
P1, RHSP1B, and RHSP1C ONLY.
C. CSHP1, CSLP1, RHSP1B, and RHSP1C ONLY.
D. CSLP1, RHSP1A, RHSP1B, and RHSP1 C ONLY.

A

Correct Answer: A. 2EGSEG3 powers Division II ECCS Pumps, which are RHSP1B, and RHS*P1C.

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24
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
    - EMERGENCY DSL GEN 1 LOCA SIGNAL BYPASS switch is ON.
    - RPV Water Level LOWERS to 15 inches.
    Which one of the following describes the affect of these conditions on the Division 1 EDG?

Division 1 EDG will:
A. NOT START when DIVISION 1 2EGSEG1 START switch is placed in START.
B. MANUALLY START when DIVISION 1 2EGS
EG1 START switch is placed in START.
C. AUTOMATICALLY START with NO Emergency Diesel Generator TRIP signals BYPASSED.
D. AUTOMATICALLY START with SOME Emergency Diesel Generator TRIP signals BYPASSED.

A

Correct Answer: B With the EMERGENCY DSL GEN 1 LOCA SIGNAL BYPASS switch ON, LOCA start signals are bypassed.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; would be true for MAINTENANCE Mode.

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25
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:
    - Annunciator 603306, CRD SCRAM VALVE PILOT AIR HDR PRESS HIGH/LOW, alarmed.
    - Instrument Air (IAS) header pressure is 120 psig.
    - Auxiliary Operator reports the Scram Air Header pressure is steady at 62 psig.
    - NO control rods are drifting.

Which one of the following statements describes the action that is to be attempted to restore Scram Air Header pressure, per N2-SOP-19, Loss of Instrument Air?

A. Verify all IAS Compressors are loaded and bypass IAS Dryers.
B. Swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.
C. Bypass Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.
D. Verify all IAS Compressors are loaded and isolate Service Air Header.

A

Correct Answer: B Per N2-SOP-19, it is required to swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves.

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26
Q
  1. Piping failures resulted in a loss of Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling (CCP) flow. Which one of the following components can still be cooled following the
    loss of CCP?

A. Drywell Unit Coolers
B. RDS Pump Seal Coolers
C. RHS Pump Seal Coolers
D. Drywell Equipment Drain Coolers

A

Correct Answer: C RHS Pump Seal Coolers can also be supplied with Service Water.

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27
Q
  1. N2-OSP-RDS-Q001, SCRAM DISCHARGE VOLUME (SDV) VENT AND DRAIN VALVE OPERABILITY TEST is in progress. The two Scram Discharge Volume
    Vent and Drain Pilot Valve TEST pushbuttons are DEPRESSED.
    Which one of the following describes system response?

Air is:
A. ALIGNED to the valve actuators causing the SDV Vent and Drain Valves to SHUT.
B. ALIGNED to the valve actuators causing the SDV Vent and Drain Valves to OPEN.
C. ISOLATED and VENTED from the valve actuators causing the SDV Vent and Drain Valves to SHUT.
D. ISOLATED and VENTED from the valve actuators causing the SDV Vent and Drain Valves to OPEN.

A

Correct Answer: C When the two Scram Discharge Volume Vent and Drain Pilot Valve TEST pushbuttons are DEPRESSED, air is ISOLATED and VENTED from the valve actuators causing the SDV Vent and Drain Valves to SHUT.

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28
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 98% power, with the following:
    - Control Rod 34-19 (a non-peripheral rod) is selected for movement
    - APRM #2 fails DOWNSCALE.
    - NO operator actions are taken.
    Which one of the following identifies the ability of Rod Block Monitor (RBM) Channels A and B to generate a rod block on high local power?

RBM Channel A; RBM Channel B
A. Can generate blocks; Can generate blocks
B. Can generate blocks; Cannot generate blocks
C. Cannot generate blocks; Can generate blocks
D. Cannot generate blocks; Cannot generate blocks

A

Correct Answer: B APRM #2 is the Reference APRM for RBM Channel 6. If APRM #2 fails downscale, it would provide a signal to the RBM B that is below 26% power. This would result in RBM B being automatically bypassed, so no blocks will be generated. RBM A is not affected

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; would be true if a non-reference APRM failed DOWNSCALE.
C is plausible; would be true if APRM 1 failed DOWNSCALE.
D is plausible; would be true if a peripheral rod were SELECTED.

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29
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power when the following alarms occur:
    - Annunciator 603318, CRD PUMPS SUCTION FLTR DlFF PRESSURE HIGH
    - Annunciator 603309, CRD PUMP 1A SUCTION PRESS LOW.
    - Annunciator 603308, CRD PUMP 1A/1B AUTO TRIP.
    - Annunciator 602324, RWCU PUMP CLG WTR TEMP HIGH.
    Which one of the following actions is required?

A. ISOLATE the WCS System
B. START the standby CRD Pump.
C. PLACE the Reactor Mode Switch in SHUTDOWN.
D. THROTTLE WCS*MOV200 until in-service Filter Demins are in HOLD and TRIP the WCS Pump.

A

Correct Answer: D With NO CRD Pump operating and RWCU PUMP CLG WTR TEMP HIGH alarming, it is required to THROTTLE WCS*MOV200 until in-service Filter Demins are in HOLD.
Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; Group 6 Isolation occurs due to a different High (NRHX Outlet) Temperature condition.
B is plausible; Low Suction Pressure condition precludes a start of the standby CRD Pump until suction filters are swapped.
C is plausible; and required if Reactor Pressure were LOWER and a withdrawn Control Rod had an Accumulator Trouble.

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30
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
    - Control rod 30-31 is withdrawn to 12
    - Rod 30-31 is selected at the Rod Select Module (P603)
    - RPS Trip System “B” is tripped due to a failed sensor
    - Scram Pilot Valve “A” solenoid fuse at the HCU for the rod blows
    Which one of the following describes the resulting 4 Rod Display rod position indication?

A. Double X
B. Double Blank
C. Double Dash
D. Double Zero

A

Correct Answer: B The rod is scrammed and inserted past the 00 reed switch and displays blanks, if selected on the RSM.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; XX indicates lost RPlS due to bad reed switch
C is plausible; - - indicates rod is passing through odd notch position.
D is plausible; 00 indicates rod is settled at full in notch position zero.

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31
Q
  1. Given these conditions:
    - The reactor scrammed from 100%.
    - All plant systems have functioned as designed for the scram.
    - Condensate pumps “ A and “B” are running.
    Which one of the following describes the electrical power supply lineup to the Condensate Pumps 5 minutes after the reactor scram?

A. 2CNM-P1A from 2NPS-SWG001, 2CNM-P1B from 2NPS-SWG003. These switchgears are powered by associated Reserve Transformers.
B. 2CNM-P1A from 2NNS-SWG011, 2CNM-P1B from 2NNS-SWG013. These switchgears are powered by associated Reserve Transformers.
C. 2CNM-P1A from 2NPS-SWG001, 2CNM-P1B from 2NPS-SWG003. These switchgears are powered by the Normal Station Service Transformer.
D. 2CNM-P1A from 2NNS-SWG011, 2CNM-P1B from 2NNS-SWG013. These switchgears are powered by the Normal Station Service Transformer.

A

Correct Answer: B

Within five minutes, bus transfers result in Reserve Transformers powering auxiliary loads. 2CNM-P1A from 2NNS-SWG011, 2CNM-P1B from 2NNSSWG013.

32
Q
  1. Which one of the following indicates that the normally SELECTED Narrow Range RPV Water Level detector has experienced a diaphragm failure, and what action is required?

A. Narrow Range A indicates 186 inches, RISING.
Narrow Range B indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
Narrow Range C indicates 187 inches, RISING.
It is required to select Narrow Range A for Feedwater Level Control.

B. Narrow Range A indicates 186 inches, RISING.
Narrow Range B indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
Narrow Range C indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
It is required to select Narrow Range B for Feedwater Level Control.

C. Narrow Range A indicates 186 inches, RISING.
Narrow Range B indicates 186 inches, RISING.
Narrow Range C indicates 186 inches, RISING.
It is required to scram the reactor and trip the Main Turbine.

D. Narrow Range A indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
Narrow Range B indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
Narrow Range C indicates 179 inches, LOWERING.
It is required to scram the reactor.

A

Correct Answer: B

with NR A rising, and redundant NR B and C lowering, NR A diaphragm failure is indicated, this can be mitigated by swapping to NR B.

33
Q
  1. Given the following:
    - LOCA signal is present.
    - RHS Loop A is aligned for Suppression Pool Spray and Drywell Sprays.
    - A LOSS of Reserve Transformer 1A occurs.
    - Emergency Diesel Generators start and re-energize their respective busses.
    Which one of the following describes the affect of these conditions on RHS*P1A and the operational hazard associated with this sequence of events per N2-OP-
    31, Residual Heat Removal System?

A. DOES NOT AUTOMATICALLY RESTART. Primary Containment may be DAMAGED by the lack of Suppression Pool and Drywell Sprays.

B. AUTOMATICALLY RESTARTS. RHS Pump may be DAMAGED by excessive starting current from receiving an automatic start signal with Suppression Pool and Drywell Spray Valves OPEN.

C. AUTOMATICALLY RESTARTS. RHS piping may be DAMAGED by water hammer caused by RHS Pump starting after piping drained through the
OPEN Suppression Pool and Drywell Spray Valves.

D. DOES NOT AUTOMATICALLY RESTART. Primary Containment may be DAMAGED by steam bypassing of Suppression Pool Downcomers through the OPEN Suppression Pool and Drywell Spray Valves.

A

Correct Answer: C

per P&L 31 of N2-0P-31, A potential for water hammer exists when the RHR pumps are restarted after a pump trip while operating in the Suppression Pool Cooling, Suppression Pool Spray, OR Flow Test modes. Following a loss of power, AND prior to pump restart, water can drain down from the piping into the Suppression Pool creating voids. A restart of the pump without refilling the drained piping can result in severe water hammer.

34
Q
  1. A CORE RELOAD is in progress with the following:
    - A fuel assembly is to be removed from the Spent Fuel Pool and transferred to the Reactor Cavity.
    - The fuel assembly is grappled and raised to Normal-Up (digital readout =000.00).
    - Refueling bridge is moved in the reverse direction. Proximity switch (LSI) has actuated indicating the refueling bridge is near the reactor.

The following indications are received on the INTERLOCK STATUS DISPLAY panel:
0 ROD BLOCK INTERLOCK #1
0 BRIDGE REVERSE STOP #1
0 FUEL HOIST INTERLOCK

Which one of the following caused the INTERLOCK STATUS DISPLAY panel indications?

A. At least one control rod is NOT fully inserted into the reactor core.
B. Grapple ENGAGE/RELEASE switch was momentarily placed in the RELEASE position.
C. Refueling Bridge (mast) position is outside the safe region of the Boundary Zone Controller.
D. Grapple RAISE/LOWER control was positioned to LOWER while Bridge REVERSE motion was still commanded.

A

Correct Answer: A

These conditions indicate that at least one control rod is NOT fully inserted into the reactor core.

Only allowed 1 reactivity manipulation at a time…

35
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 85% power, with the following:
    - Turbine Throttle Pressure Transmitter for the in-service EHC regulator fails HIGH.
    Which one of the following describes the affect of this failure on initial reactor pressure and pressure control?

A. RISES and the reactor continues to operate at power. Pressure will be controlled by operation of the Control Valves.
B. RISES until an automatic Reactor Scram occurs. Pressure will then be controlled by operation of the Bypass Valves.
C. LOWERS until an automatic Reactor Scram occurs. Pressure will then be controlled by operation of the Bypass Valves.
D. LOWERS until an automatic Reactor Scram occurs. Pressure will then be controlled by operation of the Safety Relief Valves.

A

Correct Answer: D

When the Turbine Throttle Pressure Transmitter fails HIGH, Turbine Control Valves will OPEN. This causes Reactor Pressure and Power to LOWER. The automatic scram is accompanied by MSlV closure. With MSlVs closed, Reactor Pressure is controlled by SRVs.

36
Q
  1. Power ascension is in progress with power at 50%. Preparations are being made to start the second Feed Pump. The following conditions exist:
    - Feed Pump A is in service.
    - FWLC Narrow Range “A” is selected.
    - FWLC Master Level Controller is in MANUAL.
    - Both Recirc Pumps (RRPs) are on High Speed.
    - Both RCS Flow Control Valves (FCVs) are at 22% open.
    - THEN FWLC Narrow Range “A” fails DOWNSCALE.
    - Reactor Operator maintains Reactor Water Level 180 to 185 inches.
    Which one of the following describes the effect on the Reactor Recirculation System Flow Control Valves and Pumps?
    A. FCVs remain as is and RRPs remain on high speed.
    B. FCVs remain as is and RRPs downshift to low speed.
    C. FCV Runback signal generated and RRPs remain on high speed.
    D. FCV Runback signal generated and RRPs downshift to low speed.
A

Correct Answer:B.

Recirc pumps shift to slow speed due to L3. this function comes from the failure of the SELECTED FWLC NR transmitter, No FCV Runback occurs.

37
Q
  1. Reactor is in Hot Shutdown, with the following conditions:
    - RHS B Loop is operating in Shutdown Cooling Mode at 6000 gpm.
    - RPV Water level is 200 inches.
    - Reactor Pressure is 20 psig.
    - RHR Heat Exchanger Outlet Temperature is 235°F.
    - THEN 2RHS*MOVl42 RHR DISCH TO RADWASTE MOV is throttled open to reduce RPV Water Level by 20 inches.
    Which one of the following LIMITATIONS will be exceeded by these conditions?

A. Minimum flow through the RHR Pump.
B. Maximum pressure for the piping to Radwaste.
C. Maximum temperature for the Waste Collector Tanks.
D. Minimum RPV Water Level for Shutdown Cooling operation.

A

Correct Answer: C.

The maximum Temperature for the Waste Collector Tank will be exceeded.

38
Q
  1. The plant operating at full power with the following:
    - Off Gas Radiation Monitors 20FG-RE13A and 20FG-RE13B go to HIGH ALARM.
    - 20FG-AOV103, OFFGAS EXHAUST TO MAIN STACK is CLOSED.
    - Main Condenser Vacuum is 26 inches Hg (vacuum) and LOWERING.
    Which one of the following actions will be required as a result of this condition?

A. SCRAM the Reactor
B. START a Mechanical Vacuum Pump.
C. SWAP operating Steam Jet Air Ejectors.
D. TRIP Hydrogen Water Chemistry Injection.

A

Correct Answer: A

With OG Isolated, it is required to SCRAM the reactor, due to lowering Main Condenser Vacuum.

39
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Rod Line is 105%
  • THEN, BOTH Reactor Recirc Pumps trip.

Which one of the following identifies the actions required by N2-SOP-29, Sudden Reduction In Core Flow?

A. RESTART one Recirc Pump to raise flow and exit the EXIT region.

B. INSERT the first four Cram Rods to reduce Rod Line below 100%.

C. INSERT a Manual Reactor Scram, only if operating to the left of the natural circ line.

D. INSERT a Manual Reactor Scram, regardless of the operating point relative to the natural circ line.

A

Correct Answer: D

A manual scram is required by N2-SOP-29 immediate actions, if no Recirc pumps are operating (natural circ) and the mode switch is in RUN or STARTUP. This action is required regardless of whether or not operation is to the left of the natural circ line.

40
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • A complete loss of Off-site Power occurs
  • ALL three divisional diesels (EDGs) are powering their respective switchgear
  • N2-SOP-03, Loss of AC Power is being implemented
  • An additional Division I Service Water Pump is to be started

Which one of the following actions is required to be taken prior to starting the additional Service Water Pump?

A. START RHS Pump “A” and CSL Pump.
B. RE-OPEN non-essential Service Water MOVs.
C. VERIFY RHS “A” and CSL Pumps are secured
D. VERIFY Service Water crosstie MOVs are closed.

A

Correct Answer: A

RHS and CSL pumps need to be running prior to starting an additional Service Water Pump due to starting current considerations.

41
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power, when the following occurs:
  • Annunciator 852208 DIV II EMER BUS BYS 002B 125VDC SYSTEM TROUBLE alarms.
  • BATTERY BUS BYS 002B D.C. VOLTS indicates 0 VDC.
  • THEN a plant transient results in the initiation of load shedding signal to the AC switchgear.

Which one of the following describes the affect on the operation of 2ENS*SWG103 load feeder breakers?

A. WILL TRIP and CAN be remotely CLOSED.
B. WILL TRIP and CANNOT be remotely CLOSED.
C. WILL NOT TRIP and CAN be remotely TRIPPED.
D. WILL NOT TRIP and CANNOT be remotely TRIPPED.

A

Correct Answer: D

A complete Loss of Div II DC Power is indicated. IF a Load Shed is initiated with these conditions, the 2ENS*SWG103 feeder breakers WILL NOT TRIP
and CANNOT be remotely (from the control room) TRIPPED, because no power is available to breaker trip or close circuits.

42
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 24% power when the Turbine Generator TRIPS.

Which one of the following describes the affect of this transient on Reactor Power, as indicated on the APRMs and why?

A. RISES due to Reactor Pressure increase.
B. LOWERS due to an automatic Reactor Scram.
C. RISES due to Feedwater Temperature reduction.
D. LOWERS due to Recirculation Pump Speed Downshift.

A

Correct Answer: C When the Turbine Generator trips, Turbine Bypass Valves will OPEN. Reduced Extraction Steam flow to Feedwater Heaters will LOWER Feedwater
Temperature, which will cause Reactor Power to RISE.

43
Q
  1. A power ascension is in progress with power at 17%.

A failure causes ALL Turbine Control Valves to fail OPEN, resulting in an automatic scram and the following indications:

  • RPV Water Level reached a minimum of 167 inches, and stabilized at 185 inches.
  • Reactor Pressure reached a minimum of 700 psig and is rising.

With NO operator action, which one of the following lists the decay heat removal methods which are immediately available?

A. Safety Relief Valves and Reactor Water Cleanup ONLY.

B. Safety Relief Valves, Main Steam Line Drain Valves, and Turbine Bypass Valves ONLY.

C. Safety Relief Valves, Reactor Water Cleanup, and Main Steam Line Drain Valves ONLY.

D. Safety Relief Valves, Reactor Water Cleanup, Main Steam Line Drain Valves, and Turbine Bypass Valves.

A

Correct Answer: A

At an initial power of 17% the Reactor Mode Switch is in RUN. Reactor Pressure lowered below 766 psig with the Reactor Mode Switch in RUN, resulting in a Group 1 Isolation. MSlVs and MSL Drains are SHUT. RPV Water Level remained above L2 (108.8 inches), so RWCU remains available.

44
Q
  1. Following a fire in the Control Room, the following conditions exist:
  • AUTO DEPRESSURIZATION TRANSFER SWITCHES in the EMERGENCY position.
  • APPENDIX R DISCONNECT SWITCHES are in ACTUATE position.

Which one of the following describes the automatic operation of the Safety Relief Valves under these conditions?

ADS SRVs can operate automatically in the:
A. RELIEF mode only.
B. SAFETY mode only.
C. SAFETY and ADS modes only.
D. SAFETY and RELIEF modes only.
A

Correct Answer: B

With the APPENDIX R DISCONNECT SWITCHES in the ACTUATE position, Relief and ADS Modes of SRV operation are defeated.

45
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • Loss of Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling Water occurs
  • Annunciator 602319, RWCU FILTER DEMIN INLET TEMP HI-HI alarms

Which one of the following describes the affect of this condition, if any, on the operation of the Reactor Water Cleanup Pumps?

A. CONTINUE to operate since no trips are received.
B. TRIP immediately due to isolation valve position.
C. TRIP directly due to the high temperature signal.
D. TRIP after a low flow condition exists for 15 minutes.

A

Correct Answer: B

When 60231 9 alarms, at WCS*MOVI 12, CLEANUP SUCT OUTBOARD ISOL VLV closes. When the valve is NOT FULLY OPEN, the WCS Pumps TRIP immediately.

46
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress. The plant is at 85% power. The following conditions exist:
  • Compressors are configured with 3B in Lead, 3C in Lag, and 3A in Backup.
  • Instrument Air Pressure is 120 psig.
  • Oil Pressure on the B Compressor LOWERS to 10 psig.

Which one of the following describes the affect, if any, on the air system?

A. NO affect, the B Compressor will continue to operate.
B. B compressor will TRIP and ONLY A will START when Instrument Air Header Pressure is 95 psig.
C. B compressor will TRIP and ONLY C will START when Instrument Air Header Pressure is I00 psig.
D. B compressor will TRIP and BOTH A and C will START when Instrument Air Header Pressure is 100 psig.

A

Correct Answer: C

When Oil Pressure lowers to 10 psig, 3B will TRIP. ONLY C will START when Instrument Air Pressure is 100 psig.

47
Q
  1. The plant is in Hot Shutdown, with the following conditions:
  • Reactor Pressure is 100 psig.
  • Suppression Pool Temperature is 80°F.
  • RHS Loop B is operating in the Shutdown Cooling Mode.
  • Cooldown Rate is 40°F / hr.

Which one of the following describes the affect of a leak resulting in RPV Water Level LOWERING to 165 inches and RHS Area Temperature RISING to 140°F?

A. Cooldown Rate will RISE due to ECCS actuation.
B. Cooldown Rate will LOWER due to SDC Isolation.
C. RPV Water Level will RISE due to ECCS actuation.
D. RPV Water Level will LOWER due to SDC operation.

A

Correct Answer: B

When RHS Area Temperature exceeds 135OF, SDC will isolate and Cooldown Rate will LOWER.

48
Q
  1. The plant is in MODE 4, COLD SHUTDOWN, with irradiated fuel movement being performed in the Spent Fuel Pool.

What is the purpose for the MINIMUM Spent Fuel Pool Water Level limitation of 352 feet 3 inches?

To provide sufficient water level above:
A. the RPV Flange to accommodate a Loss of Decay Heat Removal.
B. fuel seated in racks to accommodate a Loss of Spent Fuel Pool Cooling.
C. the RPV Flange to absorb fission products released during a Fuel Handling Accident.
D. fuel seated in racks to absorb fission products released during a Fuel Handling Accident.

A

Correct Answer:D

With the plant in MODE 4, COLD SHUTDOWN the RPV Head is installed. The only applicable reason for Spent Fuel Pool Water Level limitation is to absorb fission product released during a fuel handling accident. Reduction in radiation levels is a functional equivalent to shielding.

A is plausible; would be true in MODE 5 (RPV Head removed) with ONE Shutdown Cooling system.

49
Q
  1. The plant is operating at full power, when the following occurs:
  • Alarm 603140 DRYWELL PRESS HIGH / LOW alarms.
  • Drywell Pressure is 0.75 psig.
  • Drywell Temperature is 140°F.
  • NO Barometric Pressure changes have occurred.

Which one of the following statements reflects the status of Drywell Pressure and the action required?

A. LOW. RAISE Drywell Temperature.
B. LOW. INITIATE Nitrogen Addition.
C. HIGH. VENT Nitrogen from the Drywell.
D. HIGH. ENTER N2-EOP-RPV and N2-EOP-PC.

A

Correct Answer: C

0.75 psig is the HIGH alarm setpoint. With HIGH Drywell Pressure it is required to VENT Nitrogen from the Drywell iaw SOP-60

50
Q
  1. Following a Group 1 Isolation, Reactor Pressure is 1145 psig and STABLE.

Which one of the following identifies the status of the Control Room P601 and P628/P631 RED Indicating Lights for Safety Relief Valve, 2MSS*PSV137 at this
time?

P601 ; P628/P631
A. ON ; ON
B. ON ; OFF
C. OFF ; ON
D. OFF ; OFF
A

Correct Answer: B

1145 exceeds the RELIEF setpoint of 2MSS*PSV137, so the P601 RED Indicating Lights will be ON. NO ADS setpoint has been reached (STABLE Pressure) , so the P628/P631 Lights are OFF.

51
Q
  1. Following a plant transient, the following conditions exist:
    - Drywell Pressure is 2.8 psig
    - Drywell Temperature is 200°F.
    - Suppression Chamber Pressure is 2.6 psig
    - Suppression Pool Temperature is 92°F.
    - Suppression Pool Level is 200 feet.

(MAY USE FIGURE K - DW Spray Initiation Limit)

Which one of the following actions is required?

It is required to INITIATE:
A. Suppression Chamber Sprays ONLY.
B. Drywell Sprays AND Suppression Pool Cooling.
C. Suppression Chamber Sprays AND Drywell Sprays.
D. Suppression Chamber Sprays AND Suppression Pool Cooling.

A

Correct Answer: D

With Suppression Pool Temperature above 90°F and before Suppression Chamber Pressure reaches 10 psig; it is required to initiate BOTH Suppression Chamber Sprays AND Suppression Pool Cooling.

A is plausible; would be true with Suppression Pool Temperature below 90°F.
B is plausible; would be true below the Drywell Spray Initiation Limit.
C is plausible; would be true with Suppression Pool Temperature below 90°F.

52
Q
  1. Following a steam leak in the Drywell, the following conditions exist:
  • RPV Water Level is 190 inches.
  • High Pressure Core Spray is injecting and has been THROTTLED.
  • Reactor Pressure is 900 psig.
  • Drywell Temperature is 340°F.
  • Drywell Sprays are NOT available.
  • RPV Blowdown has been initiated.

Which one of the following challenges regarding Reactor Water Level will be presented by these conditions?

A. RPV Water Level Transmitter electronics will FAIL due to excessive temperature.
6. ACTUAL RPV Water Level will LOWER below Top of Active Fuel due to inventory loss from the Safety Relief Valves.
C. INDICATED RPV Water Level will trend HIGHER than ACTUAL due to reference leg boiling.
D. INDICATED RPV Water Level will trend LOWER than ACTUAL due to dissolved gases coming out of solution.

A

Correct Answer: C

At about 110 psig, Saturation Limits will be exceeded. INDICATED RPV Water Level will trend HIGHER than ACTUAL due to reference leg boiling.

A is plausible; Transmitter electronics are located in the Reactor Building. 340°F is based on NOT exceeding Equipment Qualification (EQ) temperatures.

B is plausible; a steam leak is given. HPCS, LPCS and LPCl can maintain RPV Water Level above TAF.

D is plausible; Reference Leg Keep Fill will have prevented dissolved gas accumulation in reference legs, none will evolve during RPV Blowdown.

53
Q
  1. Per N2-EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control, High Pressure Core Spray should be operated with caution during conditions of Low Suppression Pool Water Level.

Which one of the following describes the hazard to the High Pressure Core Spray Pump, if this caution is NOT complied with?

A. TRIP on Low Suction Pressure, if aligned to its NORMAL source.
B. TRIP on Low Suction Pressure, if aligned to its ALTERNATE source.
C. RISK DAMAGE due to cavitation, if aligned to its NORMAL source.
D. RISK DAMAGE due to cavitation, if aligned to its ALTERNATE source.

A

Correct Answer: D

With Low Suppression Pool Water Level, HPCS will RISK DAMAGE due to cavitation, if aligned to its ALTERNATE source.

A is plausible; RClC has a Low Suction Pressure TRIP, HPCS does NOT. The Suppression Pool is ALTERNATE source for HPCS.

B is plausible; RClC has a Low Suction Pressure TRIP, HPCS does NOT.

C is plausible; The Suppression Pool is ALTERNATE source for HPCS.

54
Q
  1. The plant is experiencing a LOCA and a concurrent loss of Line 6, with the following:
    - Affected Emergency Diesel Generators start and load
    - RPV level is 100 inches and being maintained by RClC and CSH.
    - Drywell Pressure is currently 1.3 psig and dropping.

Which one of the following describes the status of the H2/02 monitors AND the action required to determine containment Hydrogen and Oxygen concentrations?

A. IN SERVICE. MONITOR P601 Hydrogen and Oxygen indications

B. IN STANDBY. START the sample pumps CMS*P2A/B, then MONITOR P601 Hydrogen and Oxygen indications.

C. ISOLATED due to power loss. OPEN SOVs and START the sample pumps CMS*P2A/B, then MONITOR P601 Hydrogen and Oxygen indications.

D. ISOLATED due to a LOCA signal. OVERRIDE the LOCA signal and PLACE the H2/02 monitors in service, then MONITOR P601 Hydrogen and Oxygen indications.

A

Correct Answer: D

With L2 LOCA signal active (RPV Water Level < 108.8 inches), it is required to OVERRIDE the LOCA signal, PLACE the H202 monitors in service, then MONITOR P601 Hydrogen and Oxygen indications.

55
Q
  1. Following a reactor scram, the following conditions exist:
  • Control Rod 26-39 remains at position 48.
  • Control Rod 06-15 remains at position 04.
  • Control Rod 18-31 remains at position 02.

Which one of the following describes the status of the reactor and action required, if any, to ensure that the reactor is Shutdown WITHOUT Boron?

A. Shutdown WITHOUT Boron. No actions are required.
B. NOT Shutdown WITHOUT Boron. Condition achieved by INSERTING rod 06-15 to position 02.
C. NOT Shutdown WITHOUT Boron. Condition achieved by INSERTING rod 26-39 to position 02.
D. NOT Shutdown WITHOUT Boron. Condition achieved by INSERTING rods 06-15 and 18-31 to position 00.

A

Correct Answer: D

Demonstration of Shutdown Margin is one method of determination authorized by EOPs. One Control Rod at position 48, with others fully inserted. Since all rods are not at 00 and SDM configuration is not established, the reactor is not shutdown under all conditions, without reliance on boron.

56
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the LOWEST Emergency Action Level for an Offsite release rate which REQUIRES entry into the Radioactivity Release Control Leg of N2-EOP-SC/RR, Secondary Containment Control and Radioactivity Release Control?

A. Unusual Event
B. Alert
C. Site Area Emergency
D. General Emergency

A

Correct Answer: B ALERT is the LOWEST Emergency Action Level which REQUIRES entry into the Radioactivity Release Control Leg of N2-EOP-SC/RR, Secondary Containment Control and Radioactivity Release Control

57
Q
  1. After receiving indications of a plant fire INSIDE the Protected Area the following occurs:
  • Fire Protection Water (FPW) system actuates
  • Control Room Operators sound the Plant Fire Alarm
  • Operations Support Center is ACTIVATED

Which one of the following is the first action required of the Fire Brigade Leader per EPIP-EPP-28 Fire Fighting?

A. Contact the Operations Support Center and request a briefing.
B. Proceed to the vicinity of the fire and establish a command post.
C. Proceed to the scene of the fire and provide confirmation of the fire to the CRO.
D. Proceed to the scene of the fire and direct the Fire Brigade in extinguishment of the fire.

A

Correct Answer: A

with the OSC activated, it is required to contact the OSC and obtain a briefing. Reactor Operators are qualified Fire Brigade Leader. Fire Brigade Leader actions are unique to the Licensed Operator level.

May be out of date

58
Q
  1. Following a Grid Disturbance, conditions are as follows:
  • Generator Power is 1200 Mwe.
  • Reactive Power is 350 MVAR (LAG).
  • Generator Hydrogen Pressure is 75 psig.

The System Dispatcher has requested additional reactive load support to maintain grid voltage.

Considering the attached Capability Curve(SOP-68 Capacity Curve may be used), which one of the following actions is required?

A. RAISE Recirculation Flow to increase the Reactive Load on the Generator.
B. LOWER Recirculation Flow, because Generator Load limits have been EXCEEDED.
C. MANUALLY RAISE the Voltage Regulator setting to increase the Reactive Load on the Generator.
D. MANUALLY LOWER the Voltage Regulator setting, because Reactive Load limits have been EXCEEDED.

A

Correct Answer: D

MANUALLY LOWER the Voltage Regulator setting to decrease Reactive Load on the Generator because the generator is currently operating above the maximum VARS rating of 233 MVAR..

59
Q
  1. The plant was operating at full power, when the following occurred:
  • BOTH Feedwater Pumps TRIPPED
  • The reactor automatically scrammed.
  • ONLY one Control Rod is at position 48.
  • ALL OTHER Control Rods are FULLY INSERTED.
  • HPCS initiation RAISED RPV Water Level from 100 inches.
  • HPCS injection stopped as RPV Water Level reached 200 inches.

Plant conditions are currently:

  • Reactor pressure 700 psig, rising at 10 psig per minute.
  • MSlVs are OPEN.
  • The OPERATING CRD Pump TRIPPED.

Which one of the following is the RPV Water Level response over the next TEN MINUTES, and what action will be required?

A. RISE due to SWELL. ALLOW steam off to lower RPV Water Level BELOW 202.3 inches.
B. LOWER due to SHRINK. USE HPCS to maintain RPV Water Level ABOVE 159.3 inches.
C. LOWER due to SHRINK. USE ONLY RClC to maintain RPV Water Level ABOVE -14 inches.
D. RISE due to SWELL. TERMINATE AND PREVENT Injection Systems to lower RPV Water Level BELOW 100 inches.

A

Correct Answer: A HPCS injected (I00 inches x 200 gal per inch=) 20,000 gallons of cold CST water. As this water is heated, SWELL occurs. It is required to maintain RPV Water Level below Level 8 (202.3 inches). Steaming with no injection will lower RPV Water Level. Shrink cannot occur because heatup and pressurization of saturated system is in progress with NO steam voids. ALL SRVs and Bypass Valves are shut for the next ten minutes because Reactor Pressure will be below 800 psig.

60
Q
  1. The Turbine Generator TRIPPED at full power.
  • NO Control Rod motion occurred.
  • NO RPS actuations occurred.
  • Reactor Pressure is 1055 psig, RISING.

With these conditions:
(1) Which one of the following lists the FIRST EOP ENTRY required?
AND
(2) With NO operator action, what automatic actuation will terminate this transient?

A. (1) N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control entry is required.
(2) Backup Scram Valve actuation will terminate this transient.
B. (1) N2-EOP-C5 Failure To Scram entry is required.
(2) Backup Scram Valve actuation will terminate this transient.
C. (1) N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control entry is required.
(2) Redundant Reactivity Control System actuation will terminate this transient .
D. (1) N2-EOP-C5 Failure To Scram entry is required.
(2) Redundant Reactivity Control System actuation will terminate this transient.

A

Correct Answer: C

With Reactor Pressure exceeding 1052 psig and power above 4% when a scram is required - it is required to enter N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control. When Reactor Pressure exceeds 1065 psig, RRCS actuation will occur.

61
Q
  1. The EOPs have been entered following a plant trip due to an inadvertent containment isolation. The following conditions exist:
  • Group 1 isolation signal has occurred.
  • Group 8 isolation signal has occurred.
  • Drywell pressure is 1.71 psig.
  • RPV pressure is 1050 psig and rising.

Which one of the following systems is used for Reactor Pressure control?

A. Turbine Bypass Valves
B. Main Steam Line Drains
C. Reactor Core Isolation Cooling
D. Steam Condensing Mode of RHR

A

Correct Answer: C

With Group 1 and 8 Isolations present, ONLY RClC may be used for Pressure Control

Outdated

62
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a transient, with the following conditions:
  • Reactor Pressure is 750 psig, lowering.
  • RPV Water Level is 110 inches, stable.
  • Suppression Pool Water Level is 21 1 feet and rising.

(MAY USE FIGURE N - SRV Tailpipe Level Limit)

Which one of the following injection systems is ALLOWED to be used to maintain RPV Water Level per the Emergency Operating Procedures?

A. Reactor Feedwater Pump
B. Control Rod Drive Hydraulic Pump
C. HPCS with suction from the Suppression Pool
D. RClC with suction from the Condensate Storage Tank

A

Correct Answer: C

With Suppression Pool Water Level approaching the SRV Tailpipe Level Limit, N2, EOP-PC, Primary Containment Control prohibits injection sources from outside the Containment.

63
Q
  1. Due to an EMERGENCY condition, access is required to a Locked High Radiation Area to open a valve. It is expected that this task will result in 500
    mRem TEDE.

Which one of the following describes how the FASTEST access will be obtained in accordance with Radiation Protection procedures?

A. It is required to be authorized on a specific Radiation Work Permit for the Locked High Radiation Area PRIOR to access.
B. It is required to be authorized on a specific Radiation Work Permit and attend an ALARA brief PRIOR to accessing the Locked High Radiation Area.
C. It is required to be accompanied by a Radiation Protection Technician WHILE accessing the Locked High Radiation Area. Master Keys stored in the “break-to-enter” key box in the Control Room will provide access.
D. It is required to be a volunteer, attend a brief on potential biological consequences of emergency exposure, and be accompanied by a Radiation Protection Technician WHILE accessing the Locked High Radiation Area.

A

Correct Answer: C
It is required to be accompanied by a Radiation Protection Technician WHILE accessing the Locked High Radiation Area. Master Keys stored in the “break-to-enter” key box in the Control Room will provide access.

May be Outdated

64
Q
  1. Which one of the following identifies the Standby Gas Treatment System (SGTS) response to a HIGH Reactor Building pressure (positive RB pressure) condition WHILE SGTS Train A is operating in response to a LOCA signal start?

A. Recirculation Throttle Valve, 2GTSPV5A, will modulate in the OPEN direction.
B. Recirculation Throttle Valve, 2GTS
PV5A, will modulate in the CLOSED direction.
C. Filter Train Inlet Valve, 2GTSAOV2A, will modulate in the OPEN direction.
D. Filter Train Inlet Valve, 2GTS
AOV2A, will modulate in the CLOSED direction .

A

Correct Answer: B

With HIGH RB Pressure, more flow through SGTS Train A will be obtained by Recirculation Throttle Valve, 2GTS*PV5A, modulating in the CLOSED direction.

65
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • A fire has occurred in the RClC room.
  • Fire system has actuated to suppress the fire.
  • Later, RClC room sump High-High level alarm is reached due to fire suppression system operation to control several reflash fires.

Which one of the following action(s) is (are) required by N2-EOP-SC, Secondary Containment Control for these conditions?

A. COMMENCE a controlled reactor shutdown.
B. RUNBACK Reactor Recirc and initiate a manual scram.
C. CONTINUE to control reactor building sump levels using available sump pumps.
D. ISOLATE the fire suppression system for RClC area and attempt to control the fire by other means.

A

Correct Answer: C

Secondary Containment Control EOP authorizes continued use of fire protection systems. Rising water levels are mitigated by operating available sump
pumps.

The fire poses a greater threat than the water level.

A is plausible; would be true if TWO or more areas EXCEED Max Safe Water Level.
B is plausible; would be true if a primary system were discharging and ONE area EXCEEDS Max Safe Water Level.
D is plausible; EOPs require primary systems discharging into the Secondary Containment ISOLATED.

66
Q
  1. Which one of the following is specified in 10 CFR 55, Operator Licenses as a REQUIREMENT to MAINTAIN an ACTIVE Nuclear Regulatory Commission
    License?

The licensee SHALL:
A. pass a medical exam every two years.
B. pass one comprehensive requalification written examination AND one operating examination every six years.
C. actively perform the functions of the licensed position on a minimum of seven 8-hour shifts or five 12-hour shifts per calendar year.
D. complete seven 8-hour shifts or five 12-hour shifts under instruction per calendar year, including a plant tour and all turnover tasks.

A

Correct Answer: A is correct. Biennial medical exams are REQUIRED by 10 CFR 55.53 (i).

B is plausible; it is required to complete an ANNUAL operating exam and a comprehensive written examination per 10 CFR 55. Licenses are granted for a period of six years.
C is plausible; would be true if statement ended with “per calendar quarter”.
D is plausible; and is true for REACTIVATION of an INACTIVE License, NOT REQUIRED to MAINTAIN an ACTIVE License - if “per calendar quarter”.

67
Q
  1. Given the following conditions:
  • Core reload is in progress.
  • Refuel platform is over the core.
  • Main Hoist is LOADED and in the NORMAL UP position.
  • The Refueling Platform air compressor head cracks.
  • The air compressor is manually isolated but not before the air receiver is completely depressurized.

Which one of the following describes the failure mode of the fuel grapple and its’ impact on refueling operations?

A. CLOSED and can ONLY be manipulated manually.
B. OPEN and can be manually supplied from Service Air.
C. OPEN and refueling operations must be SUSPENDED.
D. CLOSED and can be manually supplied from Service Air.

A

Correct Answer: D The fuel grapple fails CLOSED and can be manually supplied from Service Air.

68
Q
  1. With a reactor startup in progress, the following conditions exist:
  • Reactor Pressure is 60 psig.
  • The OPERATING Control Rod Drive Pump TRIPS.
  • Charging Water Header Pressure is 0 psig.
  • Control Rod 06-15 is at position 48 and has an Accumulator N2 Pressure of 875 psig.

Which one of the following actions are required to comply with Technical Specifications?

A. IMMEDIATELY SCRAM the reactor.
B. IMMEDIATELY START the standby RDS Pump.
C. WITHIN 20 MINUTES, INSERT Control Rod 06-15.
D. WITHIN 20 MINUTES, DECLARE Control Rod 06-15 INOPERABLE.

A

Correct Answer: A

With an inoperable accumulator, withdrawn control rods must be verified inserted immediately. That cannot be completed. It is required to scram the reactor by placing the RMS in SHUTDOWN.

69
Q
  1. While performing a step in an Operations Surveillance Procedure, it has been determined that a normally open, motor operated Primary Containment Isolation Valve will not stroke in the closed direction, as required by the procedure.

Which one of the following identifies when the Technical Specification LCO action time is started per GAP-SAT-01 , Surveillance Test Program?

A. As soon as the valve failure is recognized.
B. When the surveillance was logged as started.
C. When the surveillance is logged as complete.
D. At the time the surveillance was last satisfactorily completed.

A

Correct Answer: A

When it is discovered that a component does not meet its Surveillance Requirements -the component is considered INOPERABLE at the time of discovery.

70
Q
  1. Plant startup is in progress with the following:
  • Mode switch is in Start/Hot Standby.
  • RSCS Group 2 rods are being withdrawn using Continuous Withdrawal
  • Reactor is Subcritical.

Which one of the following describes the criteria for using SINGLE NOTCH WITHDRAWAL per N2-OP-101A, Plant Startup?

A. Starting with RSCS Group 4 until criticality is achieved.
B. Starting with RSCS with Group 5 after the Reactor is critical.
C. When TWO SRMs approach 3 count rate doublings in RSCS group 4.
D. When TWO SRMs approach 3 count rate doublings prior to RSCS group 3.

A

Correct Answer: D

When TWO SRMs approach 3 count rate doublings prior to RSCS group 3, SINGLE NOTCH WITHDRAWAL is required per N2-OP-101A, Plant Startup.

Single notch control rod movement shall be performed from notch positions 00 to 36:

  • At the direction of the Reactor Engineer IF Estimated Critical Position (ECP) is prior to Rod Sequence Control System (RSCS) rod group 3.
  • IF 3 count rate doublings are approached on at least 2 SRMs prior to RSCS rod group 3.
  • Starting with RSCS rod group 3 until criticality is achieved.
  • For RSCS rod groups 3 and 4 after the reactor is critical, unless othetwise directed by Reactor Engineer.
71
Q
  1. A GENERAL EMERGENCY has been declared. Emergency actions are necessary to perform operations to isolate a radioactive release for the PROTECTION of the DOWNWIND POPULATION.

Which one of the following is the HIGHEST LISTED (TEDE dose) emergency exposure that a VOLUNTEER may receive, which does NOT exceed the limits
specified in EPIP-EPP-15, Emergency Health Physics Procedure?

A. 5REM
B. 10 REM
C. 25REM
D. 50 REM

A

Correct Answer: D

Exposures in excess of 25 REM are authorized by EPIP-EPP-15 for protecting large populations.

Plausible Distractors:
A is plausible; maximum for all activities during an emergency.
B is plausible; maximum for protecting property during an emergency.
C is plausible; is the maximum for non-volunteers to save a life or protect large populations.

72
Q
  1. With core alterations in progress, a fuel assembly contacts the core top guide, resulting in the following indications:
  • 851254, PROCESS AIRBORNE RADN MON ACTIVATED alarmed.
  • Process Radiation Monitors 2HVR*RE14A-1 and B-1, HVR ABOVE REFUEL FLOOR are alarming.

Which one of the following lists actions which will minimize the release of radioactivity?

A. OPERATE Turbine Building Ventilation.
B. RESTART Reactor Building Ventilation.
C. VERIFY that the Normal Control Room Air Intake Isolates and Special Filter Trains START.
D. VERIFY that Reactor Building Isolation occurs and the Standby Gas Treatment Systems START.

A

Correct Answer: D

The unfiltered ground level release of radioactivity will be minimized by actions which VERIFY Reactor Building Isolation and initiation of Standby Gas Treatment.

73
Q
  1. With the Reactor Building Isolated and Standby Gas Treatment in service, which one of the following radiation monitors will STILL detect airborne radiation levels in the Reactor Building?

A. Standby Gas Treatment Monitor, GTS-RE105
B. Emergency Recirc Mode Monitor, HVR-RE229
C. Below Refuel Floor Monitors, HVR-RE32A and B
D. Main Stack Gaseous Effluent Monitor, 2RMS-193

A

Correct Answer: B Emergency Recirc Mode Monitor will still detect airborne radiation in the Reactor Building.

74
Q
  1. A DIAMOND shaped box in an Emergency Operating Procedure flowchart indicates which one of the following?

A. Hold Point
B. Before Step
C. Override Step
D. Decision Point

A

Correct Answer: D

Diamond shaped boxes contain a flowchart Decision Point.

A is plausible; Octagonal Shaped Box is a Hold Point.
B is plausible; Pentagonal Shaped Box is a Before Step.
C is plausible; Rounded Rectangular Shaped Box is an Override Step.

75
Q
  1. The plant is at 100% power when a SCRAM occurs, with the following:
  • RPS is TRIPPED
  • ALL BLUE lights are illuminated on the Full Core Display
  • NO Control Rod motion occurred.
  • SLS fails to initiate.
  • Radiation Levels make Reactor Building Elevation 328’ inaccessible

Which one of the following methods should be used to shut down the reactor?

A. Inject Boron using WCS.
B. Vent the Scram Air Header
C. Individually Scram the Control Rods.
D. Inject Boron using the SLS Hydro Pump.

A

Correct Answer: D

Inject Boron using the SLS Hydro Pump, Can be achieved without regard to Alternate Rod Insertion procedures and without access to Reactor Building 328’.

A is plausible; but requires Reactor Building 328’ access.
B is plausible; would be ineffective with Scram Valves OPEN, indicated by Blue Lights.
C is plausible; would be ineffective with Scram Valves OPEN, indicated by Blue Lights.