2005 NRC RO Exam Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The plant is operating at rated power and core flow, with the following:
    - A reduction in core flow transient results in core flow of 65% of rated.
    - Both Recirc pumps are still operating in high speed.

Which one of the following identifies the Tech Spec Thermal Limit LCO value that will be affected and how?

A. APLHGR LCO limit and it is now lower
B. APLHGR LCO limit and it is now higher.
C. MCPR LCO limit and it is now lower.
D. MCPR LCO limit and it is now higher

A

Answer: d. is correct. The MCPR LCO operating limit is HIGHER following a flow reduction. Per the COLR and TS
3.2.2 “MCPR shall be equal to or greater than the appropriate MCPR limits from Figures 2a and 2b times the K(f) shown in Figure 2c. …….” From Fig 2c, as flow is reduced below 100% to 65%, the value of K(f) rises from 1.00 to about 1.03

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2
Q
  1. The plant is in Single Loop operation, following an unplanned Recirc Pump trip. The following conditions exist:
  • Indicated drive flow in the operating Recirculation loop is 21,000 gpm.
  • Indicated total core flow on Control Room Panel P603 is 22 Mlbm/hr.

Which one of the following identifies the current relationship between indicated total core flow on
P603 flow recorder AND actual total Core Flow and the reason for the difference?
Indicated Total Core Flow (P603 Recorder) is ……

A. higher than actual due to natural circulation flow.
B. higher than actual due to idle jet pump reverse flow.
C. lower than actual due to natural circulation flow.
D. lower than actual due to idle jet pump reverse flow.

A

c is correct - NOTE 1 following Step H.6.0 of N2-OP-29, Reactor Recirculation System, states ‘When calculating total core flow in single loop operation and the operating loop drive flow is less than 22,000 gpm, Loop Flows should be added instead of subtracted”. In addition, Step 6.3 of N2-RESP-07, Single Recirculation Loop Operating Requirements, states “If, while in single loop operation, with the non-operating loop Recirculation Pump shutdown and the operating loop drive flow is less than 22,000 GPM the flow in the idle loop will be positive due to natural circulation head. The total core flow summing network assumes all flow in an idle recirculation loop is negative.

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3
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Division I Diesel Generator 2EGS*EG1 is operating in parallel with offsite power for monthly surveillance testing.
  • 2EGS*EG1 is supplying 3960 - 4400 KW to bus, THEN ….. Offsite breaker R-50 trips open.

Which one of the following describes the effect on 2EGSEG1 and the Electrical Distribution circuit breakers?
2EGS
EG1 ……..
A. continues to run with its output breaker 101-1 closed. Offsite feeder breaker 101-13 is tripped open.
B. continues to run with its output breaker 101-1 and Offsite feeder breaker 101-13 tripped open.
C. trips on overspeed and its output breaker 101-1 is open. Offsite feeder breaker 101-13 is closed.
D. trips on overspeed and its output breaker 101-1 and Offsite feeder breaker 101-13 are tripped open.

A

A. is correct. R-50 trip results in a loss of offsite Line 5. Loss of offsite power causes offsite Feeder 101-13 to trip open. Diesel Generator 2EGS*EG1 continues to run with is output breaker 101-1 closed supplying the emergency
switchgear.

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4
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:

0600 - CSH is inoperable and out of service with Red Clearance applied
0715 - MSlV automatic isolation occurs
0715 - All Feedwater Pumps trip and cannot be restarted
0718 - RClC system starts and injects
0720 - RPV water level is 80 inches and steady
0720 - RPV pressure is maintained 800 to 1000 psig with SRVs
0720 - All Low Pressure ECCS systems are operable and in standby
0725 - CRS directs plant cooldown to cold shutdown be performed
0725 - A loss of BYS*SWG002A 125 VDC Bus occurs

Which one of the following describes the impact of these conditions on the use of systems to perform a plant cooldown?

A. RHS Loop B can be placed in Suppression Pool Cooling from the Main Control Room; RHS Loop A cannot be. RClC is no longer available to maintain water
level.
B. Both RHS loops can be placed in Suppression Pool Cooling from the Main Control Room. RClC continues to inject to maintain water level.
C. Alternate Pressure Control Systems other than the SRVs are required to depressurize. RClC is no longer available to maintain water level.
D. Alternate Pressure Control Systems including the SRVs are required to depressurize. RClC continues to inject to maintain water level.

A

D. is correct - A loss of Division 1 125 VDC BYS*SWG002A results in the loss of SRV relief mode “C” solenoids. The EOP Bases (page 4-61) allows ADS solenoids (Div II solenoid is still available) to be used in the unlikely event that SRV operation cannot be performed from P601. SRV are an Alternate Pressure Control Systems per N2-EOP-RPV. RClC continues to inject since the system was lined up and injecting when the loss of DC occurred. RClC can still operate even though all of its DC powered components are deenergized. The RClC Flow Controller is 120 VAC UPS powered.

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5
Q
  1. Plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • Total Core Flow is 70 Mlbm/hr
  • Reactor Power is being held at 60%
  • Reactor Feedpump B is in service with LV10B in AUTOMATIC
  • Reactor Feedpump A is running on min flow with LV10A and LV55A in MANUAL and full closed for troubleshooting
  • THEN, a spurious Main Generator Lockout trip occurs
  • NPS-SWG001 and NPS-SWG003 fast transfer occurs

Which one of the following describes the condition of the Reactor Recirculation System (RCS) pumps and flow control valves (FCVs) one minute after the generator lockout?
A. Pumps downshifted to slow speed with FCVs at pre-transient position.
B. Pumps downshifted to slow speed with FCVs at minimum position.
C. Pumps tripped to zero speed with FCVs at pre-transient position.
D. Pumps tripped to zero speed with FCVs at minimum position.

A

a. is correct. Generator lockout results in a Main Turbine Trip. Stop Valve/Control Valve closure results in a reactor scram along with RCS system EOC RPT breaker trip and pump downshift to slow speed. From 60% power with two Feed pump operating (breakers closed), FCV runback will NOT occur when RPV level drops during the scram. The FCVs will remain at their pre-transient position. Additionally, with one Feed pump injecting following the scram, RPV water level will remain above the RCS pump trip to zero speed level of 108.8
inches. The pump also downshifts to slow speed if RPV water level drops below Level 3 (1 59.3 inches)

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6
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • An automatic reactor scram occurs
  • All operating Feedwater Pumps trip during the transient
  • N2-SOP-101C Reactor Scram IMMEDIATE ACTIONS are being taken
  • RPV Pressure is 900 psig and lowering
  • RPV water level is 125 inches and lowering
  • One Turbine Bypass Valve remains open

Which one of the following describes the required condition for the Feedwater System LV10s and
LV55s and why, per N2-SOP-101C Reactor Scram?

A. In manual and closed to prevent uncontrolled water injection.
B. In manual and closed to allow for Feedwater Pump restart
C. In manual and open to allow for water level restoration.
D. In automatic and open to allow for water level restoration

A

A is correct. Per N2-SOP101C Immediate Action IF all feedwater pumps have tripped THEN Place ALL FWS-LV10 and LV55 controllers to “manual” and verify the valves are full closed. This is done to prevent uncontrolled injection if RPV pressure drops, which it will with a BPV open.

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7
Q
  1. The plant is being operated from the REMOTE SHUTDOWN PANEL during a Control Room Evacuation, with the following:
  • RCIC is injecting to the RPV
  • RPV level is 200 inches and rising
  • Flow controller thumbwheel is set in AUTO to 400 gpm
  • RClC Turbine speed is 1500 RPM
  • RPV Level continues to rise
    Which one of the following actions is required to stop the level rise, per N2-SOP-78, Control Room Evacuation?
    A. Trip the turbine using manual trip pushbutton.
    B. Close Steam Admission Valve using control switch.
    C. Place Flow Controller to MANUAL and set to 0 output.
    D. Adjust Flow Controller thumbwheel setpoint to 300 gpm.
A

B is correct, per SOP-78. If speed cannot be maintained above 1500 RPM and level continues to rise then close the Steam Admission Valve MOVl20.

A is incorrect. Trip the turbine is not required per SOP-78 and if injection needs to be restored, the trip and
throttle valve would have to be reset.

C is incorrect. Lowering controller output to 0 will result in turbine speed below 1500 RPM and violate the low RPM procedure limit of 1500 RPM.

D is incorrect. Lowering thumbwheel setting to 300 gpm violates the procedure conditional statement that if
lowering flow below 400 gpm, the controller should be placed in manual to prevent system flow oscillations. Also would result in speed below 1500 RPM.

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8
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA, with the following:
  • Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling (CCP) has been lost and cannot be recovered
  • Residual Heat Removal (RHS) pumps are injecting to the RPV
  • RPV water level is -25 inches (actual) and steady

Which one of the following identifies the required actions for the operating RHS pumps, per N2-SOP-13, LOSS Of CCP?

A. Continue to operate without cooling water but only until adequate core cooling is restored.
B. Continue to operate while shifting cooling water supply to Service Water System.
C. Must be tripped before motor temperature reaches 266°F to prevent damaging windings.
D. Must be tripped before pump temperature reaches 194°F to prevent damaging seals.

A

B is correct based on the need for RPV injection & restoration of component cooling to RHS pumps. N2-SOP-13 directs seal cooling shifted to Service Water supply per N2-OP-13 H.7.0. Continued pump operation is allowed.

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9
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • Feedwater Pump A is in service
  • All three Feedwater Pump Suction MOVs are open (CNM-MOV84A,B,C)
  • Low Flow Control Valve 2FWS-LV55A is controlling in AUTO
  • 2FWS-LV55A is at 40% open position
  • IAS pressure to ALL Feedwater Pumps valves is lost
  • Any effected local air accumulators have depressurized
Which one of the following describes the effect on 2FWS-LV55A position and reactor water level?
2FWS-LV55A% Open, Reactor Water Level
A. 0% open Lowering, below normal level
B. 40% open Constant, normal level
C. 40% open Lowering, below normal level
D. 100% open Rising, above normal level
A

C. is correct because on loss of IAS, the LV55A fails as is and min flow valves in Feed & Condensate Systems fail open to divert flow from the reactor causing level to drop.

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10
Q
  1. The plant has just entered Mode 4 following an unplanned shutdown to perform Main Turbine repairs, with the following:
  • RHS Loop B is operating in Shutdown Cooling (SDC)
  • A transient results in RPV water level dropping to 140 inches before being stabilized
  • With RPV water level still at about 140 inches a loss of Line 6 occurs
  • Division II EDG fails to start and cannot be started

Which one of the following methods is used to restore CORE DECAY HEAT removal, per N2-SOP-31, Loss of Shutdown Cooling?

A. Start one Alternate Decay Heat Removal loop in normal ADH lineup.
B. Restore level to 178 to 187 inches and start RHS A in normal SDC lineup.
C. Restore level to 178 to 187 inches and start at least once RCS pump.
D. Raise level to about 255 inches and start RHS with flow through SRVs.

A

D. is correct, per SOP-31 use Alternate Shutdown Cooling Preferred Lineup.

A. is incorrect. ADH is not available following a normal shutdown for decay heat removal because suction is from
SFP with cavity gates installed and RPV head in place

B. is incorrect because with loss of line 6, no power is available to re-open the Div II SDC inboard containment isolation valve inside the drywell, which has automatically closed when level dropped below I59 inches The DW is not open for access under these conditions to locally open the MOV.

C. is incorrect because establishing coolant circulation with a Recirc (RCS) pump will not result in removal of
decay heat.

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11
Q
  1. Core Alterations are in progress, with the following:
    - Bundle integrity is maintained
    - An irradiated fuel bundle being moved from the reactor cavity to Spent Fuel Pool
    - Bundle becomes ungrappled and falls into the reactor vessel downcomer area. (Between the vessel wall and the shroud)
Which one of the following workers is at greatest risk of radiation overexposure?
A. I&C Tech at SLS Tank.
B. Refuel SRO on the Bridge.
C. Mechanic working on SRVs.
D. RP Tech at Refuel Floor Access Point.
A

C is correct. Worker closest to the bundle with the least amount of shielding will be at greatest risk. SRVs are in the Drywell at the approximate elevation of the downcomer.
A, B, and D are incorrect because of the location of these components. SRO on the bridge is shielded by water
level within the cavity, as is the RP Tech at the access. SLC Tank is in Secondary Containment, which is shielded by Primary Containment wall.

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12
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA inside the Drywell, with the following:
  • Drywell pressure is 5 psig
  • Both Control Building Special Filter Train Booster Fans start at 1200

Which one of the following identifies the latest time that both Control Building Special Filter Train Booster Fans can remain running and why, per N2-OP-53A, Control Building Ventilation System?

A. 1220 to prevent excessive positive Control Room pressure.
B. 1220 to prevent excessive radiation exposure to personnel.
C. 2000 to prevent excessive positive Control Room pressure.
D. 2000 to prevent excessive radiation exposure to personnel.

A

B is correct - CAUTION in Step H 1.0 of N2-OP-53A states “BOTH Special Filter Trains start simultaneously on a valid LOCA Hi Rad signal. Failure to shutdown one of the operating fans 2HVC*FN2A(B) within 20 minutes of Actuation CAN result in the Control Room personnel receiving Excessive Radiation Exposure”.

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13
Q
  1. The plant is operating at loo%, with the following:

0000 - EHC Pressure Regulator A failed and is out of service. Operation continues on the backup regulator EHC Pressure Regulator B
0015 - Pressure transmitter supplying the backup EHC Pressure Regulator B fails downscale

Which one of the following describes the Turbine Bypass Valve (BPV) and Safety/Relief Valve (SRV) response to the transient?

A. BPVs regulate open to maintain RPV pressure below SRVs relief-mode setpoints and the SRVs remain closed.
B. BPVs regulate open but RPV pressure rises to SRVs relief-mode setpoints. SRVs cycle to limit pressure rise.
C. BPVs remain closed and RPV pressure rises to SRVs relief-mode setpoints. SRVs cycle to limit pressure rise.
D. BPVs remain closed and RPV pressure rises to SRVs safety-mode setpoints. SRVs cycle to limit pressure rise.

A

C is correct. When the Pressure transmitter supplying the backup regulator fails downscale, EHC senses lowering pressure and closes Turbine Control Valves and Bypass Valves.
This causes RPV pressure to rise and an automatic scram results on high RPV pressure of 1052 psig. The BPV remain closed since their sensing instrument is failed low. SRV operation in the relief mode senses actual RPV pressure from different instruments than those used in EHC. With actual pressure rising, the SRVs will lift in the relief mode.

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14
Q
  1. Reactor power is 10% during plant startup, with the following:
  • RCIC Full Flow test surveillance is in progress
  • Suppression Pool Average Water Temperature (SPT) is being logged every 5 minutes
  • RCIC is operating at 600 gpm
  • Average SPT is 90.1 F and rising

Which one of the following describes the requirement regarding RCIC testing?

A. Test can continue, however SPT must now be logged every minute.
B. Test can continue because SPT is still below applicable LCO limit.
C. Test must be stopped because SPT is above applicable LCO limit.
D. Test must be stopped because elevated SPT may cause pump damage.

A

B is correct. Per TS 3.6.2.1, with testing in progress that adds heat to the suppression pool, the applicable LCO limit for SPT is 5 105°F. Testing can continue. The normal limit without testing is 90°F.

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15
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA, with the following:
  • Drywell Pressure peaked at 10 psig and is now slowly lowering
  • Hottest Drywell Temperature peaked at 305°F and is now slowly lowering
  • RPV Pressure is 50 psig
  • ECCS Systems are injecting into the RPV
  • Wide Range RPV water level is 30 inches and is steadily rising
  • Fuel Zone instruments read upscale

Which one of the following describes the current requirement regarding entry into RPV Flooding EOP and why?

A. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve and reference leg flashing IS occurring.
B. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve even though reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.
C. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values even though reference leg flashing IS occurring.
D. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values and reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.

A

D is correct. Conditions are above DETAIL A RPV Water Level Instruments of EOP-PC and RPV. Elevated DWT and low RPV pressure can result in flashing. Level instruments can only be used if “there is NO evidence of instrument leg flashing AND the instrument reads above the Minimum Indicated Level (Table C). There is NO evidence that instrument leg boiling is taking place.
A and B incorrect. RPV Flooding is NOT required based solely on being in the BAD region of Fig B Detail A. As
long as NO evidence that instrument leg boiling is taking place exists.
C is incorrect. There is NO evidence that instrument leg boiling is taking place and the instrument reads above Minimum Indicated Level (Table C).

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16
Q
  1. The plant was operating at 100% power, when the following occurred:
  • Breach in the Suppression Pool Wall occurs at Elevation 190 feet
  • Actions to add water to the Suppression Pool are complete
  • Suppression Pool Level (SPL) is 195 feet and lowering slowly
  • EOP-RPV is entered from EOP-PC
  • 1 rod inserts to position 26 and the rest fully insert, following the manual scram

Which one of the following strategies is used to mitigate the consequences of the breach per EOPs and Transient Mitigation Guidelines?

A. Open all Turbine Bypass Valves now. Opening all ADS Valves is NOT required even if SPL reaches 192 feet.
B. Open all Turbine Bypass Valves now. Open all ADS Valves prior to SPL of 192 feet.
C. Opening Turbine Bypass Valves is NOT permitted. Open all ADS Valves when SPL is 192 feet.
D. Opening Turbine Bypass Valves is NOT permitted. Open all ADS Valves now to prevent SRV tailpieces from uncovering.

A

B is correct. Per Transient Mitigation Guidelines for Suppression Pool Level TMG2.2.3.4 and 2.4.2, it is appropriate to “anticipate” a blowdown if a blowdown is imminent. In this case with SPL approaching 192 feet and the breach is at 190 feet, the limit will be exceeded. When SPL does reach 192 feet, a blowdown is then required and ADS valves must be opened, but only if at or above 192 feet (per EOP-C2).

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17
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a scram due to a loss of Feedwater transient, with the following:
    - No injection sources available
    - a RPV water level has continued to drop
    - RPV pressure is being controlled between 800 - 1000 psig

Which one of the following identifies the LOWEST ACTUAL RPV water level at which adequate core cooling, by any mechanism, is still maintained?

A. -14 inches.
B. -39 inches.
C. -52 inches.
D. -62 inches.

A
C is correct - with no iniection sources
available, the NMP2 EOP Basis
Document indicates that ACC exists as
long as RPV water level is above the
Minimum Zero Injection RPV Water
Level.
A and B are incorrect. TAF (-14
inches) and MSCRWL (-39 inches) are
both higher than Minimum Zero
Injection RPV Water Level (-52 inches)
D is incorrect. 2/3 Core Height (-62
inches) is below MZIRWL and requires
6350 gpm Core Spray flow injection.
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18
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 1 OO%, with the following:
    0900 - Annunciator 601712 SLCS TANK 1 LEVEL HIGH/LOW alarms
    0905 - Operator reports NO air bubbler flow observed at local SLS. Storage Tank level instrument indicator for 2SLS’FIC103 (Reactor Building 289).
    0908 - MSlVs automatically close
    0908 - RPV Pressure peaks at about 1125 psig
    091 0 - Reactor power is 10%

Which one of the following describes the effects of these conditions on SLS pump start capability and SLS Tank level indication at P601?

SLS Pumps, SLS Tank Level Indication
A. Start, Downscale
B. Start, Upscale
C. Can't Start, Downscale
D. Can't Start, Upscale
A

A is correct. SLS Tank level indication is supplied from air bubble dip tube arrangement. On loss of the air signal tank level indication fails downscale resulting in storage tank low level alarm. The SLS pumps will still automatically start after a 98 second time delay with APRM power of 10% (above the APRM downscale setpoint of 4%). The SLS pumps have a start permissive and trip on low SLS tank level, but these signals are generated by the four RRCS tank level transmitters, which are not effected by the loss of air pressure. These are
differential pressure transmitters connected directly to the SLS storage tank.

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19
Q
  1. The plant is operating at power, with the following:
  • Stack GEMS radiation reading is normal
  • Vent GEMS radiation reading is higher than normal

Which one of the following identifies the possible release source?

A. Above Refuel Floor Ventilation exhaust.
B. Main Steam Tunnel Ventilation exhaust.
C. Standby Gas Treatment fan discharge.
D. Mechanical Vacuum Pump discharge.

A
A is correct - the Above Refuel Floor
Ventilation exhaust discharges to the
Reactor/Radwaste Building Vent
Stack.
B, C, D are incorrect. These systems
discharge to the Main Stack via their
respective ventilation systems.
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20
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Fire Panel 129 goes into alarm for zone 377NW
  • Fire is confirmed
  • HVC*ACU1 A, CONTROL ROOM AC FAN trips
  • HVC*ACU2A, RELAY ROOM AC FAN trips

Which one of the following identifies the actions required to be taken for Control Building Ventilation (HVC) and the reason?

A. Actuate Appendix R disconnects to prevent tripping the Division II ACUs due to faulty electrical circuits.
B. Actuate Appendix R disconnects to place HVC in a lineup that ensures the Control Room Envelope pressure does not become negative.
C. Defeat cross divisional interlocks to ensure Control Room Envelope temperature can be maintained 90°F or less.
D. Defeat cross divisional interlocks to prevent a Control Room evacuation due to smoke infiltration

A

C is correct. Per ARP-FPM, N2-OP53A off normal section H.15.0 is required to be performed immediately,
to defeat the HVC cross divisional interlocks. Implementation of this section directs the starting of Div II ACUs and using the cross divisional interlock key lock override switch to prevent loss of Div I I components because of fire affecting Div I components. Note 2 states Actuation of the override switches is required to be completed within 13 minutes after a fire that has disabled the previously running Control Room Envelope ACUs to ensure Control Room Envelope temperature remains <90°F.

A is incorrect. The Appendix R switches do not prevent ACU tripping. This function is performed by the cross divisional interlock override switch. B. is incorrect. Actuating Appendix R disconnects will not place the Control Room and Relay Room HVC ACUs in the correct lineup. ACUs do not realign when Appendix R switches are actuated. D is incorrect. N2-OP-53A H.14.0 Note 2 states this is required to maintain Control Room Envelope temperature below 90°F not to maintain positive pressure. This action is not taken prevent a Control Room evacuation to due smoke infiltration.

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21
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • RPV Pressure is 800 psig
  • EHC Regulator Pressure Set is 800 psig
  • Turbine Bypass Valve #1 is 50% open with all others closed
  • Feedwater Pump A is injecting with LV55A in MANUAL
  • RPV Water Level is steady at 183 inches
  • THEN ….. a control rod is withdrawn AND APRM power rises and stabilizes at a higher value

Which one of the following describes the effect of these conditions on RPV Water Level and the reason?

A. Rises because steam flow is less than feed flow.
B. Lowers because steam flow is greater than feed flow.
C. Remains constant because steam flow and feed flow have NOT changed.
D. Remains constant because steam flow and feed flow changed by equal amounts.

A
B is correct. Level will lower because
as power rises, steam flow will rise as
BPV #1 opens to maintain pressure at
800 psig. With LV55A in MANUAL,
feed flow will remain constant and
steam flow will rise.
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22
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA, with the following:
  • Drywell Pressure is 3.0 psig
  • Hottest Drywell Temperature is 275F
  • Drywell Cooling Fans are tripped

Which one of the following describes the effect on restoring Drywell Cooling System (DRS) per EOP support procedures?

A. After defeating interlocks, system operation can be fully restored.
B. Without defeating interlocks, system operation can be fully restored.
C. Cannot be restored, restoring CCP flow may result in water hammer.
D. Cannot be restored, restarting DRS fans may result in air duct damage.

A
C is correct. Per N2-EOP-6 Attachment
24, if DWT is above 250F, the
containment isolation MOVs cannot be
reopened, because the water volume
in the section of piping between the
inboard and outboard isolation valves
may have flashed to steam due to the
elevated DWT.
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23
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 90% power, with the following:

0700 - Annunciator 603443 CONTROL ROD DRIFT alarms
0700 - Control Rod 22-43 is observed to be at position 12 then 14 and still moving
0700 - Appropriate SOPs are entered by the crew
0703 - Control Rod 22-43 is being moved to the fully inserted position
0703 - Control Rod 18-27 is observed to be at position 02 then 04 and still moving
Which one of the following describes the actions required to be taken and why?

A. Fully insert all moving control rods to terminate the power rise.
B. Fully insert and disarm the moving control rods to comply with Tech Specs.
C. Reduce power to about 85% to provide adequate margin to Thermal Limits.
D. Place the Mode Switch to SHUTDOWN to terminate the power rise.

A

D is correct. Per N2-SOP-8, more than
one control rod drifting requires a
reactor scram.

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24
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • A transient results in an automatic Reactor Scram
  • 32 control rods insert to Position 00
  • All remaining control rods insert to Position 02

Which one of the following describes the CURRENT rod pattern with respect to EOPs and Tech Specs Shutdown Margin (SDM)?

Shutdown Per EOPs, SDM Pattern Achieved
A. Yes, Yes
B. Yes, No
C. No, No
D. No, Yes
A
B is correct. Per EOP-RPV and EOPC5
basis, the reactor will remain
shutdown without boron if NO rods are
withdrawn past 02 (Maximum
Subcritical Banked Withdrawal Position
MSBWP). Currently this condition IS
met, therefore the reactor IS shutdown.
TS SDM definition for rod positions is
all rods fully inserted except for a
single rod, which is assumed to be fully
withdrawn. Definition condition is NOT
achieved.
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25
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • Reactor Pressure is 500 psig
  • The operating Control Rod Drive (RDS) Pump trips
  • No RDS Pump can be started
  • A Control Rod at position 12 has an accumulator pressure of 900 psig

Which one of the following describes when a manual scram is required to be initiated per N2-SOP-30, Control Rod Failures?

A. Immediately.
B. In 20 minutes.
C. If one control rod drifts in.
D. If any other control rod accumulator becomes inoperable.

A

A is correct - SOP-30 calls for immediate scram if reactor pressure is <900# and CRD charging water pressure is <940# and any accumulator is inop with its associated rod withdrawn .

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26
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:

0800 - HVRRE32A-1 BELOW REFUELING FLOOR OFFLINE GAS MONITOR indicates RED on DRMS display
0805 - Reactor Water Cleanup System WCS Pump Room A temperature is 160°F and steady
0805 - WCS
MOV102, CLEANUP SUCT INBOARD ISOL VLV AND WCS*MOV112, CLEANUP SUCT OUTBOARD ISOL VLV are still open and can not be shut.
0820 - Radiation monitor RMS2A on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 9.2 E+03 mr/hr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display
0820 - Radiation monitor RMS2B on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 8.2 E+03 mr/hr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display

Which one of the following describes the proper implementation of EOP-SC with regards to area radiation Ievels?

A. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. Continue to try to isolate WCS system. A normal plant shutdown is NOT required.
B. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A normal plant shutdown IS required. RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
C. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required but an RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
D. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required AND an RPV Blowdown IS required.

A

D is correct. Per the TMG, each area radiation monitor is treated as a separate area. IF RMS2A and 2B are reading above Max Safe Values, then 2 areas are affected and a Blowdown is required by EOP-SC Step SC-10 due to the fact that the leak can not be isolated.

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27
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a LOCA, with the following:
  • All rods are full in
  • Reactor pressure is 200 psig and slowly lowering
  • Reactor level is 102 inches and steady
  • Suppression Pool level is 211.8 feet and rising

Which one of the following injection systems is allowed to be used to maintain reactor level per the Emergency Operating Procedures?

A. RDS
B. Condensate
C. RHS in the LPCl mode
D. RClC with suction aligned to the CST

A
C is correct. With S/P level high
(above 211.7 feet @ 200 psig), N2-
EOP-PC, SPL-2 calls for injection
sources that do not add to containment
inventory
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28
Q
  1. The plant is experiencing a DBA LOCA, with the following:
  • ALL RHS Pumps automatically started
  • ALL RHS Injection MOVs are stroking open
  • THEN …… Annunciator 601448 RHR A SYSTEM VALVES MOTOR OVERLOAD alarms AND P601 amber STATUS LIGHT LPCl A INJECT VLV RHS’MOV24A is lit

Which one of the following identifies the effect of these conditions on operation of RHS’MOV24A LPCl A INJECTION VLV?

A. Continues to travel open then remains full open.
B. Continues to travel open then strokes full closed.
C. Stops and cannot be opened from the control room.
D. Stops but can be throttled open from the control room.

A
C is correct. Per N2-ARP-01 601448
and INOP STATUS light response, the
breaker is open or fuse is blown. The
MOV cannot be opened from the
control room. With 601448 actuated a
possible cause is the thermal overload
trip. Since the INOP STATUS light
also lit, the breaker is tripped, not the
thermal overloads.
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29
Q
  1. The plant is in MODE 4, with the following:
  • Both Recirc Pumps are idle
  • RHS A loop is running in Shutdown Cooling
  • RHS A loop flow is 7450 gpm
  • THEN RHS*MOV40A partially closes due to circuit malfunction resulting in RHS loop flow of 5500 gpm
    Which one of the following identifies the consequences of the transient?

A. RPV heatup and subsequent pressurization.
B. RPV low water level isolation.
C. RHS heat exchanger overheating.
D. NMS incore instruments damage.

A
A is correct because reducing cooling
flow can result in thermal stratification,
which will result in rising temperature in
the RPV. Rising temperature will
cause pressure increase.
B is incorrect. Changing flow on
shutdown cooling will have no
significant effect on level.
C is incorrect. Heat exchanger cooling
water flow is not affected, and is
sufficient to prevent overheating.
D is incorrect. lncore instruments are
rated for high temperature, high
pressure applications, but high flow above 5700gpm is a concern in Mode 5, with fuel removed
from surrounding areas.
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30
Q
  1. The plant is in cold shutdown with Low Pressure Core Spray system being placed in a Full Flow Test lineup for pump operability testing, with the following:
  • CSL*FV114, TEST RETURN TO SUPPR POOL THROTTLE is throttled to 6400 gpm
  • Just as this flow is achieved, the thermal overloads trip for CSL*FV114
  • THEN a circuit malfunction results in LPCI A/LPCS RESET white seal-in light illuminating and initiating CSL system response

Which one of the following identifies the resulting CSL system flow, two minutes after the system response begins?
A. 0 gpm through test and injection lines with flow through min flow line.
B. 0 gpm through test line and rated flow through injection line.
C. 6400 gpm through test line with 0 gpm through injection line.
D. Runout flow split through both test and injection lines.

A
B is correct. CSL*FV114, TEST
RETURN TO SUPPR POOL
THROTTLE receives a CLOSE signal
on system initiation. Thermal overload
tripping DOES NOT stop FV114 from
stroking full closed. Thermal overload
only provides an alarm and computer
point and since this is a throttle valve,
movement is not affected. The
initiation signal contact in the valve
close circuit bypasses the control
switch contacts. Since RPV pressure
is 0 psig while in Cold Shutdown, the
injection valve MOV104 will auto open
and rated flow through the injection
line results. The 88 psid permissive for
injection MOV opening is met. This
design feature/interlock allows for
testing and system realignment for
injection with an initiation signal
present. The two minute time frame
accounts for the stroke time of FV114
(about 1 :30 minutes).
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31
Q
  1. The plant is experiencing a LOCA transient, with the following:
  • RPV Pressure is 900 psig
  • RPV Water Level is -60 inches (indicated) and steady
  • Drywell Pressure is 7.0 psig and steady
  • High Pressure Core Spray (CSH) is injecting as the ONLY available RPV injection source

Which one of the following describes the contribution of CSH injection, as it relates to establishing and maintaining Adequate Core Cooling (ACC), per the EOP Basis Document?
CSH injection ….

A. IS providing ACC by complete core submergence. Steam Cooling does NOT provide ACC during the transient.
B. IS providing ACC by Core Spray Cooling and submergence. Steam Cooling does NOT provide ACC during the transient.
C. IS NOT providing ACC now but will after Blowdown is performed. Steam Cooling provides ACC during the transition.
D. IS NOT providing ACC now and will NOT after Blowdown is performed. Steam Cooling does NOT provide ACC during the transient.

A
C is correct. ACC currently NOT
achieved with RPV level below TAF. At
900 psig indicated level of -54 inches
would be equivalent to TAF. Also at
900 psig, CSH flow is below the 6350
gpm required for Core Spray Cooling in
EOP-RPV step L-16. Between TAF (-
54 inches indicated) and MSCRWL (-
72 inches indicated), Steam Cooling is
the mechanism that provides ACC
(EOP Basis page 3-1 and 3-2) until the
Blowdown is performed. After the
Blowdown, ACC will be achieved
either by CSH restoring level above
TAF, which it now can because at low
pressure, CSH flow will be closer to
design flow OR achieving design spray
flow 6350 gpm with level above -62
inches.
32
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Suppression Pool Water Level is slowly rising from an unknown source
  • High Pressure Core Spray (CSH) is operating in a full flow test lineup from CST to CST
  • CSH flow is being maintained at 6350 gpm
  • THEN … Suppression Pool (SP) Water Level reaches 200.9 feet

Which one of the following describes effect of these conditions on CSH system flow and
operating lineup?

A. Remains at 6350 gpm, CST Test Return Valves remain open with suction still being supplied from the CST.
B. Remains at 6350 gpm, CST Test Return Valves remain open while suction is automatically shifted to the SP.
C. Lowers to minimum flow as the CST Test Return Valves stroke closed. Suction is then automatically shifted to the SP.
D. Lowers to minimum flow as the CST Test Return Valves stroke closed. Suction still being supplied from the CST.

A
A is correct. Test Return Valves will
remain open, since CSH Initiation
signal is not present. The Suppression
Pool Suction Valve MOVll8 will NOT
auto open under the present lineup,
because CST Test Return Valves and
NOT full closed. The automatic
suction transfer (swap) will not occur.
No system lineup change results and
flow remains at 6350 gpm.
33
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a transient, with the following:
  • Both Reactor Water Cleanup (WCS) Pumps are running
  • RPV water level is being controlled between 130 inches and 200 inches
  • 2SLS*P1 B, PMP 1B, keylock control switch is momentarily placed to PUMP B RUN position
  • 2SLS*VEX3B, SQUIB VLV READY white light is now out
  • 2SLS*MOV1B, SLC STORAGE TK OUTLET VLV remains closed

Which one of the following identifies the response of SLS Pump P1B and the.WCS Pumps?

A. SLS Pump P1B starts and WCS pumps continue to run
B. SLS Pump P1B starts and WCS pumps are tripped.
C. SLS Pump P1B does NOT start and WCS pumps continue to run.
D. SLS Pump P1B does NOT start and WCS pumps are tripped

A
D is correct. SLS Pumps will not start
because the suction valve
SLS*MOV1B is closed, preventing the
start. WCS pumps will trip because
placing the Control switch for Standby
Liquid Control (SLS) Pump P1B in
PUMP B RUN position will close WCS
inboard containment isolation valve
WCS*MOV102, which trips the WCS
pumps. This occurs even if the SLS
pump does not start, as the WCS
isolation is initiated by the SLS pump
control switch.
34
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 25%, with the following:
  • MSIV6A has a faulty limit switch that is generating a <92% open signal to RPS, with the valve full open
  • THEN. ..MSIV7B fully closes due to a circuit malfunction

Which one of the following describes the status of RPS Trip System A and RPS Trip System B?

Trip System A, Trip System B
A. NOT tripped, NOT tripped
B. NOT tripped, Tripped
C. Tripped, NOT tripped
D. Tripped, Tripped
A

C is correct. MSlV A and B are
arranged to trip RPS Trip System A
(logic channel A1). No trip of RPS B
occurs.

35
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • Reactor Mode Switch is in STARTUP
  • No control rods have been withdrawn
  • All IRM’s are downscale on range 1
  • A loss of 24/48 VDC power to panel BWS-PNL300A occurs

Which one of the following describes the IRM impact on RPS?

A. No RPS trip system trips occur
B. RPS A trip system trips. RPS B trip system does not
C. RPS B trip system trips. RPS A trip system does not
D. Both RPS trip systems A and B trip

A
B is correct, Loss of 24/48 VDC power
from BWS-PNL300A results in power
loss to IRM A,C,E,G and trip of RPS
trip system A
A and C are incorrect because RPS A
trips. D is incorrect. IRM B,D,F,H are
powered from BWS-PNL300B and are
not affected.
36
Q
  1. The following conditions exist for SRM A, during a plant startup:
  • SRM A reads 1 x 10^5cps
  • SRMs are fully inserted
  • 603203 SRM UPSC/INOPERABLE annunciator actuates
  • 603442 CONTROL ROD OUT BLOCK annunciator actuates
  • Amber SRM “UPSC ALARM OR INOP” light on P603 is lit
  • Red SRM “UPSC TRIP” lights on P603 are off
  • White “INOP” light at the drawer is off

Which one of the following actions is required, by procedure, to clear the Control Rod Out Block being generated by SRM A, and reason for that action?

A. Bypass channel to clear the INOP condition.
B. Bypass channel to clear the UPSC condition.
C. Retract detectors to clear the INOP condition.
D. Retract detectors to clear the UPSC condition.

A
D is correct based on conditions given.
ANN 603203 is lit for an upscale
condition, not an INOPERABLE
condition. In the case of a startup, the
correct action is to retract detectors
from the core to reduce the indication
level
37
Q
  1. The plant is initially operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • RCS Pump A now trips off
  • N2-SOP-29, SUDDEN REDUCTION IN CORE FLOW has NOT yet been entered
  • Refer to photos provided for current APRM status(Photos Not Available…)
  • ALL APRM chassis read the same as APRM 2 (shown in photos that are not available…)

Which one of the following identifies the CURRENT status of APRM 2 Scram and Rod Block Setpoints, for the indicated conditions?

A. Set for two loop operation and waiting for single loop operation setpoints to be enabled by Reactor Engineering.
B. Set for two loop operation and waiting for single loop operation setpoints to be enabled by I&C Technicians.
C. Set for single loop operation after setpoints being automatically enabled by RCS pump being in tripped condition.
D. Set for single loop operation after setpoints being manually enabled by the appropriate plant support personnel.

A
B is correct. Since “SLO ENABLED”
on Fig 2 indicates NO, the single loop
5% reduction in the setpoint has not
yet been applied by I&amp;C technicians.
This action is manually directed after
notification from control room per N2-
SOP-29, which has NOT yet been
entered.
A is incorrect. Since “SLO ENABLED”
on Fig 2 indicates NO, the single loop
5% reduction in the setpoint has not
yet been applied by I&amp;C technicians.
Reactor Engineering does NOT reset
the scram and rod block setpoints but
DOES reset thermal limits in 3D
Monicore after being notified by the
control room per N2-SOP-29
C is incorrect. Single loop setpoints are
not automatically enabled AND current
status indicated shows the 2 loop
settings are still in effect (“SLO
ENABLED on Fig 2 indicates NO)
D is incorrect. Current status indicated
shows the 2 loop settings are still in
effect (“SLO ENABLED” on Fig 2
indicates NO). Setpoints have NOT
been manually reset.
38
Q
  1. The plant has experienced a transient, with the following:

0759 - Loss of power occurs to 2EHS*MCC302
0800 - Loss of ALL Feedwater injection
0801 - RPV water level lowers to 100 inches
Which one of the following identifies the effect on RClC SYSTEM injection capability and why?

A. Injection capability is maintained with ICSMOV121, TURB STM SUPPLY OUTBOARD ISOL VLV deenergized and open.
B. Injection capability is maintained with ICS
MOV128, TURBINE STM SUPPLY INBOARD ISOL VLV deenergized and open.
C. Injection capability is NOT maintained because ICSMOV126, PMP 1 DISCH TO REACTOR is deenergized and closed.
D. Injection capability is NOT maintained because ICS
MOV150, TURBINE TRIP THROTTLE VLV is deenergized and tripped.

A

B is correct. ICS”MOV128, TURBINE
STM SUPPLY INBOARD ISOL VLV is
6OOVAC powered from
2EHS*MCC302-14A.

A is incorrect. ICS*MOV121, TURB
STM SUPPLY OUTBOARD ISOL VLV
is 600 VAC powered from
2EHS*MCC102-17C.
C is incorrect. ICS*MOV126, PMP 1
DlSCH TO REACTOR is 125VDC
powered from DMS'MCCAI -6C.
D is incorrect. ICS*MOV150, TURBINE
TRIP THROTTLE VLV is 125VDC
powered from DMSMCCA1-3D
39
Q
  1. A plant startup is in progress per N2-OP-IOlA, Plant Startup, with the following:
  • RPV pressure is 90 psig
  • RCIC realignment to standby for power operations is in progress per N2-OP-35
  • All RClC system isolation signals are reset
  • ICS*MOV121, TURB STM SUPPLY OUTBOARD ISOL VLV is open
  • THEN ……. ICS*MOV170, TURBINE STM SUPPLY INBOARD WARM-UP VLV is rapidly throttled to full open

Which one of the following describes the likely effect of these actions on the RClC system, per N2-OP-35, Reactor Core Isolation Cooling System?

A. Steam line pressure equalizes with reactor pressure to complete system warm up.
B. Steam Admission valve closes due to reactor high water level transient condition.
C. Steam line isolation valves automatically close on high steam flow.
D. Steam Supply Rupture Disc may rupture due to high piping pressure.

A
C is correct. Automatic isolation of the
RClC system is likely to occur. Rapid
opening of the steam warmup valve
MOV170 results in a high steam flow
condition, as stated in N2-OP-35 step
E.1.10 CAUTION prior to opening
MOV170
* * * * * * * * * * * * *
CAUTION
Opening 2ICS*MOV170 too far OR too
fast could cause a group 10 Isolation
on RClC Flow Hi (E31-N683A,B) or
RHWRCIC Flow Hi (E31-N684A,B).
A is incorrect. Slowly throttling open
the warmup valve results in proper
system warmup and equalization of
piping pressure with RPV pressure.
B is incorrect. Rapid opening of the
warmup line will not result in an RPV
high water level transient due to rapid
depressurization of the RPV.
D is incorrect. Rapid opening of the
manual isolation valve ICS-V14 trap
isolation can result in rupture disc
damage. Based on stem conditions,
the ICS-V1 4 is still closed. The rupture
disc is downstream V14, therefore
opening warmup valve MOV170
cannot damage the rupture disc.
40
Q
  1. A plant transient has occurred requiring entry into the EOPs, with the following:
  • RPV Blowdown is required
  • RHS Pump B and C are the only ECCS pumps running

Just prior to the blowdown, the following events/actions occur:

  • A loss of Division II 125 VDC
  • Then, all four ADS Logic Manual Initiation pushbuttons are armed and depressed.

Which one of the following describes the response of the ADS valves?

A. Open only after the ADS timer has timed out.
B. Open immediately without further operator action.
C. Closed but will open when Div I ADS back panel control switches are operated.
D. Closed but will open when Div II ADS back panel control switches are operated

A
C. is correct - ADS valves remain
closed because ADS logic Div 1 does
not have ECCS pump run permissive
and ADS logic Div 2 does not have
power. The A ADS solenoids still
have power from Div 1 DC allowing a
manual initiation.
41
Q
  1. The plant is experiencing a STATION BLACKOUT, with the following:
  • RClC is injecting into RPV
  • N2-SOP-2, Station Blackout Support Procedure is being implemented as directed from N2-SOP-1, Station Blackout

Which one of the following actions is authorized and required to maintain RClC injection availability per N2-SOP-1, Station Blackout and SOP-2, Station Blackout Support Procedure?

A. Defeat RClC High Area Temperature isolation by pulling relays
B. Defeat RClC Level 8 interlocks by pulling analog trip unit cards.
C. Place RClC DIV I and II ISOL SEAL-IN RESET keylock switches in RESET
D. Place all RCIC room high temperature isolation keylock test switches to BYPASS.

A
D is correct. N2-SOP-1 and SOP-2
Attachment 4 direct bypassing RClC
Room High Temperature isolation
signals using keylock switches at
control room panels P632 and P642.
42
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Instrument root valve for RPV pressure transmitter 2ISC*PT5A is found to be closed (out of normal position)
  • Prior to opening the instrument root valve a Group 1 isolation signal occurs
  • RPV pressure rises to 1150 psig

Which one of the following identifies the maximum number of SRVs that lift in the relief mode?

A. 0
B. 7
C. 9
D. 18

References Provided: DWGs P&ID 28A, GE
807E155TY Sh 1,2,8,11,12 ADS Logic

A
A is correct. With PT5A isolated it will
not sense the rising RPV pressure.
Both PT5A and PT5D are required to
sense high pressure for SRVs to open
in the relief mode. None of the SRVs
can open in relief mode, even with one
PT still functioning. "C" solenoid must
energize to actuate the SRV.
B is incorrect since none of the SRVs
will open. This is the number (7) of
ADS valves and these will still open in
the ADS mode.
C is incorrect since none of the SRVs
will open. If electrical drawings are
incorrectly interpreted and the
conclusion is drawn that only half of
the total number of SRVs are
prevented from opening, then 18 (total)
minus 9 (that are prevented from
opening) means that 9 would open.
D is incorrect since none of the SRVs
will open. If electrical drawings are
incorrectly interpreted and the
conclusion is drawn that SRVs will
operate with one remaining functioning
transmitter (PT5D), then 18 would be
correct. RPV pressure given at 1 150
psig is above the opening setpoint for
all 18 SRVs

References Provided: DWGs P&ID 28A, GE
807E155TY Sh 1,2,8,11,12 ADS Logic

43
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown after a scram from full power resulting from a spurious turbine trip, with the following:
  • Setpoint Setdown function of FWLC is being reset per N2-OP-3, Condensate and Feedwater System
  • FWS-LV10s and LV55s controllers are in MANUAL per the reset procedure
  • RPV water level is now 180 inches and steady being maintained by FWS-LV55A alone at 30% open
  • Feedwater Low Flow Master Level Controller (HIC137) tape setpoint is 185 inches
  • THEN the SET POINT SET DOWN RESET pushbutton is depressed AND the amber light is extinguished

Which one of the following describes the actions required to return Feedwater Level Control system to automatic operation per N2-OP-3, Condensate and Feedwater System?

A. Operate LV55A CLOSE pushbutton to null the controller before placing LV55A in AUTO.
B. Place LV55A controller in AUTO and allow automatic operation to restore water level to normal.
C. Raise HIC137 controller setpoint to null the controller before placing LV55A in AUTO.
D. Lower HlC137 controller setpoint to null the controller before placing LV55A in AUTO.

A
D is correct. Setpoint is now at 185
inches with actual level lower at 180
inches. With the Setpoint Setdown
function reset, HIC137 setpoint is
returned to 185 inches. Before the
reset HlCl37 setpoint is 185-1 8 inches
or 167 inches. To null the controller
the tape setting is reduced to match
actual level.
A is incorrect. To null the signal before
shifting control to AUTO, LV55A would
have to be OPENED to raise level, to
null the controller.
B is incorrect. This will result in a
larger error signal and LV55A would
open quickly to raise level. This is
contrary to the procedure.
C is incorrect. Raising the setpoint tape
setting will create a larger error signal
and does not result in nulling the
controller prior to placing the LV55A in
automatic.
44
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 65% power, with the following:
  • Feedwater Pumps A and B are maintaining RPV water level
  • THEN …….2NJS-US1 Bus B trips off due to a bus fault

Which one of the following describes the effect on the reactor water level control system?

A. LV10A and LV10B compensate for any changes in water level and will maintain normal water level.
B. LV10B is locked up in an open position and if it drifts in the closed direction LV10A will maintain normal water level.
C. LV10A is locked up in an open position and if it drifts in the closed direction LV10B cannot maintain normal water level. A low water level scram will occur.
D. LV10A and LV10B are locked up in an open position and if drifting in the closed direction, a low water level scram will occur.

A
B is correct. NJS-US1 Bus B loss
results in lockup of LV10B. Any
changes in level due to MOV valve drift
will be compensated by the FWLC
system opening the remaining LV10A,
which has power.
A is incorrect. LV10B cannot respond
to any changes in level because it is
locked up on power loss.
C and D are incorrect because LV10A
does not lock up, since it is powered
from NJS-US1 Bus A (MCC003 bus A)
45
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:

1200 - Reactor Building differential pressure is -0.6 inches WG
1300 - Drywell pressure rises to 14 psig and remains at that value
1300 - GTS Trains A AND B automatically start
1310 - GTS Train A is manually shutdown by placing TRAIN A INITIATION control switch in AUTO AFTER STOP per N2-OP-61 B, Standby Gas Treatment System
1315 - GTS Train B Fan automatically trips due to a blown control power fuse

Which one of the following describes the impact on Reactor Building differential pressure (DP) and actions required to restore RB differential pressure to its 1200 value?

A. DP goes below -0.25 inches WG (toward positive). Manual restart of GTS Train A is required.
B. DP goes below -0.25 inches WG (toward positive). Confirm automatic restart of GTS Train A on building pressure.
C. DP remains more negative than -0.25 inches WG. Defeat high drywell pressure interlocks and restart HVR.
D. DP remains more negative than -0.25 inches WG. Confirm automatic restart of GTS Train A on low Train B flow.

A
B. GTS Train A restarts because the
high Drywell pressure (>.68I psig)
initiation signal is still present and with
no running GTS train RB differential
pressure will degrade toward 0. When
pressure reaches -0.25 inches WG, the
manually shutdown train will
automatically restart.
A is incorrect. Manual restart of Train
A is NOT required to restore DP. The
train will auto restart.
C is incorrect. With no running GTS
train RB differential pressure will
degrade toward 0 and not be
maintained above -0.25 inches. The
actions to defeat high drywell pressure
interlocks and restart HVR are only
authorized by EOP-SC. If dp never
reached 0, then EOP-SC would not be
entered.
D is incorrect. GTS Train A will not
autostart on low train flow.
46
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • No other failures occur
  • SWP pumps C, E, D, F in service
  • SWP pumps A, B in standby
  • A complete loss of offsite power has occurred
  • 3 minutes after the power loss, ECCS pumps have been manually started
  • A second Division I SWP pump is required to be started
Which one of the following identifies SWP pump to be started to establish 2 pumps operating in Division I per N2-SOP-03, Loss of AC power?
A. Must start E
B. Must start C
C. Must start A
D. Can start any non-running pump
A
A is correct. Must start E pump
because it will not result in tripping of
the already running C pump. Load
sequencing logic will result in a trip of
C or E pump.
B is incorrect. SWP-PIC will auto start
as part of pump sequencing.
C is incorrect. Starting SWP-PIA
would trip all running Div I Service
Water Pumps
D is incorrect for reasons stated above.
47
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • 2VBB-UPS1B transfer switch is selected to MANUAL RESTART position
  • Load is changed causing a momentary overload of 2VBB-UPS1B
  • 2VBB-UPS1B inverter is supplying the loads

Which one of the following describes the response of 2VBB-UPS1B?

A. Transfers to DC backup until overload condition clears, then transfers back.
B. Transfers to DC backup and remains there even if overload condition clears.
C. Transfers to maintenance supply until the overload condition clears then transfers back.
D. Transfers to maintenance supply and remains there even if overload conditions clears.

A
D is correct. in MANUAL Restart, the
load remains on maintenance until
manually transferred back to the UPS
A and B are incorrect. UPS only
transfers to DC backup on loss of
normal AC input power to the UPS.
C is incorrect. Correct response if in
AUTO Restart.

UPS1A/B/G are normally in Auto Restart

48
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 85% power, with the following:
  • Output Voltage meter for the in service battery charger 2BYS*CHGR2A1 rises to 142 VDC
  • Annunciator 852108 DIV I BUS BYS 002A 125 VDC TROUBLE alarms

Which one of the following describes the effect on the in service charger and Division I Safety Related DC Switchgear, 2BYS*SWG002A?

A. Charger does NOT trip. Switchgear remains energized from CHGR2A1
B. Charger trips. Switchgear remains energized from CHGR2A2.
C. Charger trips. Switchgear remains energized from battery.
D. Charger and battery breaker trips. Switchgear is de-energized

A
C is correct. Overvoltage condition
results in a trip of the AC input breaker
for the charger. The battery breaker
remains closed and switchgear
remains energized from the 125 VDC
safety related battery.
A is incorrect. Charger trips if output
voltage exceeds 142 VDC.
B is incorrect. CHGR2A2 is a
redundant charger and is required to
be placed in service manually per N2-
OP-74A off normal section H.13.0
D is incorrect. Battery breaker will not
trip on over voltage.
49
Q
  1. The plant is experiencing a transient, with the following:

1100 - Drywell Pressure rises to 2.0 psig
1105 - ENSSWG101 4 KV Emergency Bus experiences a “degraded voltage” condition which lasts for about 15 seconds
1105 - EGS
EG1 and the 4 KV Emergency Distribution system responds as designed
1108 - EGS*EG1 Turbocharger oil pressure drops to 1 .0 psig

Which one of the following identifies EGSEGl and its output breaker status at 1108, as a result of the change in Turbocharger oil pressure?
EGS
EG1, Output Breaker

A. Running, Open now and did not close during transient
B. Running, Closed now after automatically closing at 1105
C. Tripped, Closed now after automatically closing at 1105
D. Tripped, Open now and did not close during transient

A
B is correct. EGS*EGl will autostart in
the Emergency mode on LOCA at
1100. Degraded bus voltage with a
LOCA for 8 seconds will trip open the
normal offsite feeder breaker . Since
voltage was degraded, its output
breaker closes and remains closed.
Since the Turbocharger low oil
pressure trip is bypassed in the
Emergency Mode, the engine
continues to run with the output
breaker closed.
50
Q
  1. Division I EGS*EG1 is in standby condition, when the following local alarms are received:
  • Annunciator 406-6-3 JACKET WATER AND LUBE OIL PUMPS TROUBLE alarms
  • Annunciator 406-3-6 LUBE OIL LOW PRESSURE CIRCULATING PUMP alarms
  • Annunciator 406-3-7 JACKET WATER TEMPERATURE OFF NORMAL is extinguished

Which one of the following describes the effect on engine temperatures and start reliability?

A. Jacket Water temperature lowers. First try start reliability is degraded.
B. Jacket Water heater maintains all engine temperatures within normal bands. Start reliability is NOT affected.
C. Lube Oil temperatures are maintained within the normal band. Start reliability is NOT affected.
D. Lube Oil temperature lowers. First try start reliability is degraded.

A
D is correct. Per N2-ARP-02. Alarm
406-6-3 is actuated by either the
Jacket Water Pump OR the Lube Oil
Circulating Pump trip. Alarm 406-3-6
indicates the Lube Oil Circulating pump
is affected. The lube oil heater will trip
off if the circulating pump is not
running. This results in a lowering lube
oil temperature. Engine is normally
kept warm between 120°F and 130°F
by Jacket Water and Lube Oil systems
to enhance the first start reliability of
the engine.
A and B are incorrect. Jacket Water is
not affected based on actuation of 406-
3-6 LUBE OIL LOW PRESSURE
CIRCULATING PUMP
C is incorrect. The lube oil heater will
trip off if the circulating pump is not
running. This results in a lowering lube
oil temperature.
51
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • Annunciator 851209, DIV I PRI CNMT INSTR AIR VLVS INOPERABLE, is in alarm
  • Both red and green valve position indication lights for IAS*SOV166 are OFF
  • Troubleshooting determines that control power fuse in the power supply for IAS*SOV166 is blown

Which of the following identifies the valve position 10 minutes later and operability condition of the Main Steam Isolation Valves (MSIV’s)?

A. All valves are open with the inboard valves inoperable
B. All valves are open with the outboard valves inoperable
C. The inboard valves close with all valves remaining operable
D. The outboard valves close with all valves remaining operable

A
A is correct. Because loss of power
causes the SOV to close, causing loss
of pneumatics to the inboard MSIV's.
The loss of pneumatics causes the
inboard MSIV's to be inoperable.
C and D are incorrect. Because the
loss of pneumatics to the inboard
valves does not cause MSlV closure.
Accumulators maintain pressure for a
period of time after isolation. Keeping
the MSIV's open.
B is incorrect because IAS*SOV166 is
inline with the inboard MSIV's only.
52
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power with the following:
  • 2CCS-PIA pump shaft shears
  • 2CCS-PIA and 2CCS-PI B are in service with 2CCS-PIC in standby
  • System discharge pressure lowers to 85 psig

Which one of the following describes the pump motor breaker position following this casualty, assuming no operator action?

2CCS-P1A; 2CCS-P1B; 2CCS-P1C
A. Closed; Closed; Open
B. Open; Open; Open
C. Closed; Closed; Closed
D. Open; Open; Closed
A
C is the correct answer because of the following:
1. 'A pump motor is still running due to
no automatic trip signals
2. 'B' pump motor is still running due to
no automatic trip signals
3. 'C' pump motor is running due to an
auto start signal at 95 psig system
discharge pressure (pump discharge)
53
Q

53, The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:

  • A tube rupture occurs in the Reactor Water Cleanup (WCS) System Non-Regenerative Heat Exchanger tube bundle
  • The resultant leak rate is 130 gpm

Which one of the following identifies the CCP Surge Tank level and CCP heat exchanger temperature control valve (TCV) responses due to the tube rupture.

CCP Surqe Tank; CCP Heat TCV moves toward ...
A. Rises; maximum cooling
B. Rises; minimum cooling
C. Lowers; maximum cooling
D. Lowers; minimum cooling
A
A is correct. Hot WCS flow will enter
the CCP system because WCS system
pressure is higher than CCP system
pressure. As a result, CCP Surge Tank
level will rise until it reaches the
atmospheric vent, at which time it will
overflow into the Reactor Building.
Since hot water will be added to the
CCP system the CCP system
temperature rises and the TCV will
position to lower temperature by
closing the HX Bypass to 0% and open
the heat exchanger outlet to 100% for
maximum cooling
54
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
    - Instrument Air supply line to the in-service Control Rod Drive (RDS) system flow control valve (2RDS*FV6B) actuator breaks.

Which one of the following identifies the effect and required actions?

A. CRDM temperatures rise; manually reposition FV6B.
B. CRDM temperatures rise; place standby FV6A in service.
C. Charging Water pressure lowers; manually reposition FV6B.
D. Charging Water pressure lowers; place standby FV6A in service.

A
B is correct because the RDS flow
control valve fails closed on loss of air.
This results in CRDM temperature
rising. The standby valve is placed in
service.
55
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • No control rod movements are in progress
  • Then … the Withdraw Supply Directional Control Valve solenoid for rod 30-31 open circuits

Which one of the following describes the Reactor Manual Control System response?

A. ROD DRIVE CONTROL SYSTEM INOPERABLE alarms and normal motion is prevented for all control rods.
B. ACTIVITY CONTROLS DISAGREE lights and normal motion is prevented only for rod 30-31.
C. ACTIVITY CONTROLS DISAGREE lights and normal motion is prevented for all control rods.
D. ROD DRIVE CONTROL SYSTEM INOPERABLE alarms and normal motion is prevented only for rod 30-31.

A
A is correct. RDCS tests the continuity
of the DCV solenoids during the rest
portion of cycle. If a DCV does not
properly respond when tested, the
ACKNOWLEDGE word returning from
the HCU transponder will not match
the REFERENCE word stored in the
Analyzer. This will generate an RDCS
inop "system operation is interrupted"
and cut power to ALL transponder
cards. This prevents all normal rod
motion.
B and C are incorrect because Activity
Controls Disagree condition results
from an error between the COMMAND
words when compared in the analyzer,
which has not occurred, with the stated
conditions. This only prevents motion
for the affected rod.
D is incorrect because the Rod Drive
Control System Inoperable alarm
prevents motion for all rods.
56
Q
  1. The plant is operating at power, with the following:
  • Reactor steam flow is 27%
  • Reactor feed flow is 24%
  • Reactor power indicated on the APRMs is 25%

Which one of the following describes the current operating status of the Rod Worth Minimizer?
A. Below the Low Power Set Point, alarms and rod blocks are enforced.
B. Above the Low Power Alarm Point, alarms and rod blocks are not enforced.
C. In the Transition Zone, existing errors are identified but rod blocks are not enforced.
D. In the Transition Zone, existing errors are not identified and rod blocks are not enforced.

A
C is correct. Steam flow above 25%
and below 40% places RWM in
Transition Zone
A is incorrect. This choice is based on
feed flow being below 25% RWM does
not use feed flow input for LPSP and
LPAP
B is incorrect. Steam flow input places
RWM in Transition Zone
D is incorrect. Rod errors yiJ be
identified if they exist while in
Transition Zone.
57
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 30% power during power ascension, with the following:
  • Both Recirc (RCS) Pumps are operating in high speed
  • Total Steam Flow is 5.1 Mlbm/hr
  • Total Feed Flow is 5.1 Mlbm/hr
  • FWLC is in automatic controlling level at 182 inches
  • THEN.. … Feedwater Flow transmitter B fails downscale

Which one of the following describes the status of the RCS pumps after one minute?

A. Low speed because Total Feedwater Flow signal is lower.
B. Low speed because the Main Turbine tripped on high level.
C. High speed with RPV level controlling between 170 to 175 inches.
D. High speed with RPV level controlling between 190 to 195 inches.

A

A. Low speed because Total Feedwater Flow signal is lower.

<19% Feedwater Flow

58
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • Reactor Engineering is running TIP traces using the automatic mode.
  • Four (4) TIPS are stowed in their shield chambers.
  • One TIP is out of its shield chamber and running into the core but has NOT reached the CORE TOP LIMIT.
  • The low speed switch on the running TIP control panel is in the OFF position.
  • THEN ….. a circuit failure results in an unplanned Group 3 Primary Containment Isolation Signal (PCIS)

Which one of the following describes the automatic response of the TIP system as a result of the isolation signal?

A. TIP changes direction and retracts at fast speed to the indexer, then shifts to slow speed. When stowed the ball valve closes.
B. TIP continues at slow speed to the CORE TOP LIMIT. Then it retracts at fast speed and when stowed the ball valve closes.
C. TIP stops moving. When a confirmatory signal is received, it retracts at fast speed until stowed and then the ball valve closes.
D. TIP shifts to fast speed and runs to the CORE TOP LIMIT. Then it retracts at fast speed and when stowed the ball valve closes.

A
A. The TIP will reverse and retract in
fast speed until it reaches the indexer,
then shift to slow speed. When the TIP
is in its shield chamber, the ball valve
will close.
59
Q
  1. A plant scram from full power occurs, with the following:
    - MSlVs are closed
    - RPV Pressure is being maintained 800 to 1000 psig with SRVs
    - SWP pumps are in a 212 running configuration
    - All SWP pumps are available
    - SWP non essential headers are in service
    - Suppression Pool water temperature is 92F and rising
    - Both loops of RHS are started in Suppression Pool Cooling
    - SWP Flow through RHS heat exchanger A is 1000 gpm
    - SWP Flow through RHS heat exchanger B is 1000 gpm

Which one of the following actions is required to be able to establish rated SWP flow through RHS heat exchanger B, per N2-OP-31?

A. Stop SWP flow through RHS heat exchanger A.
B. Start any available SWP pump in either division.
C. Isolate the Turbine Building non essential SWP header.
D. Isolate the Reactor Building non essential SWP header.

A
B is correct. Per N2-OP-31 H.12.0, a
fifth SWP pump is the method used to
establish rated (7400 gpm) through an
RHS heat exchanger.
A is incorrect. Stopping 1000 gpm
SWP flow through the RHS HX A will
not provide the required pump capacity
to allow RHS HX B flow to be raised
from 1000 to 7400 gpm. Note 2 states
that “Five SWP pumps are required
to be in operation to provide rated
flow to one or both RHS heat
exchangers when non-essential
headers are also being supplied by the
Service Water system.”
C and D are incorrect. The Turbine
Building non essential header is only
isolated if more than four SWP pumps
cannot be started. With all SWP
pumps available, the fifth pump is
started. If it cannot, then the TB non
essential header is isolated. The RB
header is not isolated because it is still
desirable to supply safety related loads
in the RB.
60
Q
  1. The reactor core is being offloaded, with the following:
  • Reactor Mode Switch is in REFUEL position
  • All control rods are fully inserted into the reactor core
  • Step performed that just unlatched fuel bundle in the fuel pool. The Main Hoist has NOT been raised
  • Step to accomplish the removal of a fuel assembly from the reactor will be performed next

Which one of the following describes when Annunciator 603442, CONTROL ROD OUT BLOCK actuates during the execution of these steps?

A. The Main Hoist is raised to the Normal-Up position and is approaching the reactor vessel.
B. The Main Hoist has been lowered from the Normal-Up position over the reactor core location.
C. The fuel assembly has been grappled but Main Hoist raise motion has NOT been initiated.
D. The fuel assembly has been grappled and raised from its seated position in the reactor core.

A

D is correct based on Rod Block #2
(N2-OP-39, 5.4.2), which occurs when
any hoist is loaded and the bridge is
over the reactor vessel.

61
Q
  1. Plant startup is in progress, with the following:
  • Main Turbine SHELL WARMING is in progress
  • Turbine Steam Chest Pressure is 103 psia

Which one of the following actions is required to be taken by the Reactor Operator to restore Steam Chest Pressure to within shell warming limits and the reason why per N2-OP-21, Main Turbine?

At MAIN STOP VALVE POSITION DEMAND FOR CHESTlSHELL WARMING controls, throttle 2MSS-MSV1D, MSV2, using the …
A. INCREASE pushbutton to prevent lengthening required soak time.
B. INCREASE pushbutton to prevent an automatic reactor scram.
C. DECREASE pushbutton to prevent lengthening required soak time.
D. DECREASE pushbutton to prevent an automatic reactor scram.

A
D is correct. Per N2-OP-21, E.3.0 Shell
Warming. Per step E.3.19 pressure is
to be maintained between 75 and 100
psia. 103 psia must be recognized as
being above the high end limit and that
the DECREASE pushbutton is used to
throttle less steam flow through MSV
#2 to restore pressure to the proper
band.
A and B are incorrect. INCREASE will
result in pressure approaching and
exceeding the first stage pressure that
will un-bypass the reactor scram on
MSV position.
C is incorrect. DECREASE is used to
regain margin to prevent exceeding the
first stage pressure that will un-bypass
the reactor scram on MSV position.
Soak time lengthening is not required.
If pressure was low (below 75 psia for
more than 15 minutes) the soak time
would have to be lengthened).
62
Q
  1. Plant startup is in progress at the completion of a 30 day refuel outage, with the following:
  • RPV pressure is 150 psig
  • Offgas (OFG) system and SJAEs are being prepared for service, as directed from N2-OP-101 A, Plant Startup
    Radiation Monitor Delay pipe is NOT in service
  • Charcoal Adsorber Purge is NOT being performed

Which one of the following describes the correct lineup for the OFG Charcoal Adsorbers per N2-OP-42 Offgas System and the reason for that lineup?

A. Bypassed to prevent moisture contamination of the OFG charcoal beds.
B. Bypassed to ensure sufficient flow to allow two OFG train operation.
C. In service to provide normal fission product removal prior to discharge.
D. In service to prevent excessive heating within the OFG charcoal beds.

A
A is correct. Per N2-OP-42, E.4.14
. . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . .
CAUTION
The following step prevents inadvertent
water addition to the Charcoal
Adsorbers during initial system startup
and requires an entry into ODCM
D3.2.4.
63
Q
  1. Which one of the following plant electrical distribution systems provides power to the Stack Gaseous Effluent Monitoring (GEMS) Panel RMS-CAB170?

A. UPS1H via NJS-US9
B. UPS1H via NJS-US6
C. UPS1G via NJS-US3
D. UPS1G via NJS-US4

A
Justification: A is correct. UPS-I H
supplies Stack GEMS Power from
NJS-PNL901 (US9)
B, C and D are incorrect. UPS-I H is
not supplied from US6 and UPSl G
supplies the Process Computer
64
Q
  1. The plant is shutdown for a refueling outage, with the following:
  • A fuel bundle is dropped while irradiated fuel is being moved
  • Reactor Building ventilation automatically isolates due to high radiation levels
  • Both Standby Gas trains and Emergency Recirc Units fail to start
  • Reactor Building differential pressure is + 0.05 inches wg

Which one of the following identifies the type of offsite radiation release that will occur, if any?

A. No release
B. Treated elevated
C. Untreated elevated
D. Untreated ground level

A
D is correct. based on the loss of
secondary containment indicated by
positive reactor building pressure.
With GTS/HVR out of service the
reactor building atmosphere is not
treated.
65
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • A loss of power to Div II HVCACU1B, CONTROL ROOM AC FAN AND HVCACU2B RELAY ROOM AC FAN occurs
  • HVCACU1A CONTROL ROOM AC FAN and HVCACU2A RELAY ROOM AC FAN are running

Which one of the following describes the impact of this configuration on Control Room Envelope pressure?

Elevation 306 Control Room; Elevation 288 Relay Room
A. Rises slightly; Rises slightly
B. Rises slightly; Lowers slightly
C. Lowers slightly; Rises slightly
D. Lowers slightly; Lowers slightly
A
B is correct.
N2-OP-53A D.23.0
On a loss of power, the discharge
dampers for the Control Room and
Relay Room Air Conditioning Units will
fail open. Under these conditions, the
operating ACU’s will be supplying air
back through the non-operating ACU’s
and possibly out of the ductwork via
access door seals etc. This could
result in higher than normal operating
Dlp in the area of the non-running
ACU’S. (DER 2-2000-1256).
Both Division I1 ACUs are located on El
306. The higher pressure occurs on
306. Both Div I (ACUIA and 2A) are
on El 288.
Distractor: A, C and D are incorrect. E 306
pressure rises and El 288 pressure
lowers with the Div I1 ACU outlet
dampers failed open on loss of power.
66
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power, with the following:
  • At 1830 complete Control Room front and back panel walkdowns were completed by the on-coming shift
  • At 1845 and every 15 minutes thereafter the OATC performed front panel walkdowns
  • At 2020 the OATC responds to an in plant annunciator test at a back panel and performs a back panel walkdown
  • At 2045 the STA performs a back panel walkdown
Which one of the following is correct regarding compliance with the Conduct of Operations section of the Operations Manual for the panel walkdowns performed?
Front Panel, Back Panel
A. Comply, Not Comply
B. Comply, Comply
C. Not Comply, Not Comply
D. Not Comply, Comply
A
A is correct. Back panel walkdowns
are performed by licensed operators or
the STA other than the OATC. Per
OM.2.1.2 step n .... OATC
shall.. .perform front panel walkdowns
at intervals not exceeding 15 minutes.
The STA at 2045 is still late, since the
OATC walkdown at 1845 didn’t count.

This Question is Out Dated…

67
Q
  1. The plant is in a Refueling Outage, with the following:
  • Valve lineup of the Backfill System is being performed
  • Valve 2RDS*V2058, RDS COMMON HDR ISOL has a Caution Clearance Section tag attached to the valve
  • The tag indicates the valve is to remain closed until Backfill is ready to be initiated

Which one of the following describes the actions required to complete this valve lineup, per N2-VLU-01, Walkdown Order Valve Lineup and Valve Operations?

A. Leave the valve in its present position, notify the CSO and SSS of the discrepancy and note the discrepancy.
B. Leave the valve in its present position and indicate the Clearance Section Number in the INITIAL/DATE column.
C. Remove the Clearance Section tag, indicate the Clearance Section number on the valve lineup and position the valve.
D. Remove the Clearance Section tag and update the Clearance Section Tag Removal Sheet then position the valve.

A
B. Indicate Clearance Section Number
in INlTlALS/DATE is correct - Per N2-
VLU-01, Section 5.1.4, the clearance
section tag is not to be removed and
the valve is not to be manipulated
unless the specific conditions for
manipulation of the valve are satisfied.
68
Q
  1. The plant is operating in MODE 1, with the following:
  • Main Generator load is 1,100 megawatts electric (MWe)
  • Main Generator reactive loading is 250 MVARs to the Bus
  • Main Generator hydrogen pressure is 60 psig
  • Central Regional Power Control requests reactive loading be raised to 380 MVARs to the Bus.

Which one of the following identifies the acceptability of the requested MVAR loading and the maximum allowable MVAR loading for this condition, per N2-OP-68 Main Generator? (Estimated Capability Curve is provided)

A. NOT acceptable. Maximum reactive loading is approximately 300 MVARs.
B. NOT acceptable. Maximum reactive loading is approximately 350 MVARs.
C. acceptable. Maximum reactive loading is approximately 500 MVARs.
D. acceptable. Maximum reactive loading is approximately 600 MVARs

References Provided: Generator Estimated
Capability Curve

A
D is correct - the requested reactive
loading of 380 MVARs is acceptable.
The approximate maximum reactive
loading for current plant conditions
would be approximately 600 MVARs.

References Provided: Generator Estimated
Capability Curve - OP-68 Attachment 5

69
Q
  1. Prior to placing the Low Pressure Core Spray System (CSL) in the full flow test lineup for surveillance testing, the Control Room Supervisor declares CSL inoperable, as required by station procedures.
    Which one of the following identifies the basis for this action per surveillance procedure?

A. System is no longer in a normal standby configuration.
B. Discharge piping will drain if a Loss of Offsite Power occurs
C. Time to establish injection will be outside the analyzed time frame.
D. Test return valve will not fully close against pump discharge pressure

A
C is correct per N2-OP-32 precaution
and limitation D.20.0 requires system
to be declared inoperable if the pump
is running with CSL'FVI 14 is not
closed
70
Q
  1. A clearance section tag for a system vent valve must be relocated so the valve can be removed from the system piping.
    Which one of the following identifies who is required to authorize the relocation before it occurs per GAP-OPS-02, Control of Hazardous Energy, Clearance and Tagging?

A. On-shift SSS/SM alone.
B. CSO and CRS together.
C. CSO or CRS independently.
D. CSO or delegated licensed RO.

A
D. CSO or delegated RO is correct -
ALL tag relocations shall be by the
authority of the controller, as stated in
3.19.1. of GAP-OPS-02. The CSO
performs the administrative function of
issuing Clearance Sections as the
agent for the SSS. The CSO may
delegate this authority to another
licensed RO per section 2.10 &amp; 2.1 1
A, 6 &amp; C. Any option mentioning the
SSS or CRS is wrong - the SSS
responsibility as defined in GAP-OPS-
02 is to authorize the isolation of
equipment, ensure compliance with
Tech Specs and verify adequacy of
isolation boundaries.
71
Q
  1. The plant is operating at 100% power. The following events occur:
  • A Loss of Feedwater Heating has occurred.
  • It is determined that MCPR dropped to 1.05 during the transient

Which one of the following actions is required to comply with Tech Specs?

A. Reduce power below 25% within 15 minutes
B. Commence a reactor shutdown within 4 hours.
C. Fully insert all control rods within 2 hours.
D. Restore MCPR to within limits within 4 hours.

A
C is correct per TS 2.1.1.2 and 2.2.2.
Insert all insertable control rods with 2
hour completion time.
A,B,D are incorrect and are variations
of Thermal Limit Tech Spec actions.
72
Q
  1. The plant is in a refuel outage, with the following:
  • A radiation accident has occurred on the refueling floor resulting in serious injury
  • The worker is still on the Refueling Platform Radiation levels in the area of the injured operator are 5000 mRem/hr.
  • Emergency exposure limit for life saving operations has been authorized
  • Individual providing assistance has a lifetime accumulated dose of 5000 mRem to a worker on the Refueling Platform

Which one of the following is the maximum stay time for the individual providing life saving assistance to ensure the limits established in EPIP-EPP-15 Emergency Health Physics Procedure are not exceeded?

A. 1 hour
B. 2 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 5 hours

A
D is correct. Based on correct limit of
25 Rem limit (life saving) and does not
subtract the lifetime accumulated dose
of 5000 mRem. 25/5R per hr = 5
hours
73
Q
  1. Your team is planning a job to be performed in an area classified as a high-radiation area due to a crud trap.
  • The dose rate at the component to be worked is 400 mrem/hour
  • Using a long-handled tool reduces the worker’s exposure to 1/2 the dose rate at the component to be worked
  • The job takes 1 hour without using the long-handled tool
  • The job takes 1.5 hours if the long-handled tool is used
  • Installing temporary shielding on the crud trap will lower the dose rate at the component to be worked to 200 mremlhour
  • Installation and removal of temporary shielding adds 225 mrem of exposure

Which of the following options satisfies the requirement to perform the job with the LEAST TOTAL EXPOSURE?

A. Install shielding. Use the tool
B. Install shielding. Do not use the tool
C. Do not install shielding. Use the tool.
D. Do not install shielding. Do not use the tool.

A

Correct Answer: C. Do not install shielding. use the
tool. 400 x 0.5 x 1.5 = 300 mrem
Distractor: A. Install shielding. Use the tool. 225
+ [(200 x 0.5) x 1.51 = 375 mrem
Distractor: B. Install shielding. do not use the tool.
225 + (200 x 1 .O) = 425 mrem
Distractor: D. Do not install shielding. Do not use
the tool. 400 x 1 .O = 400 mrem

74
Q
  1. LOCA has occurred, with the following:
  • Containment sprays are in service
  • RHS Heat Exchanger Room flooding occurs
  • All Reactor Building radiation levels are normal

Which one of the following is required concerning ventilating the Reactor Building?

A. Verify Reactor Building Ventilation is operating normally.
B. Operate Reactor Building Ventilation with LOCA signals overridden.
C. Verify both Standby Gas Trains remain running until EOPs are exited.
D. Operate one Standby Gas Train with the other shutdown until EOPs are exited.

References Provided: EOP-SC

A

B is correct - EOP-SC Step SC-1
conditional note, OK to defeat LOCA
signal

References Provided: EOP-SC

75
Q
  1. Which one of the following is the responsibility of the Chief Shift Operator (CSO) when implementing EPIP-EPP-03, Search and Rescue?

A. Maintain overall control of search and rescue activities.
B. Assembles as a member of the search and rescue team.
C. implement actions of Search/Rescue Operations Checklist.
D. Directs actual search and rescue activities outside the control room

A
C. CSO performs CSO checklist
A. SSS responsibility
B. Auxiliary Operators assemble as
part of the search and rescue team
D. Fire Brigade leader is the search
and rescue team leader in the plant