2012 NRC RO Exam Flashcards
- The plant is operating at 100% power when the following occurs:
- A system piping failure in the Reactor Building Closed Loop Cooling System (CCP)
- A trip of all operating CCP pumps has occurred
Which one of the following identifies the components which can still be cooled using the service water system following the loss of CCP?
A. Drywell Unit Coolers
B. RDS Pump Seal Coolers
C. RHS Pump Seal Coolers
D. Drywell Equipment Drain Coolers
Proposed Answer: C
A. Incorrect -Drywell Unit Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC or the alternate drywell cooling system
B. Incorrect -RDS Pump Seal Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC or a temporary cooling water system during shutdown, not service water
C. Correct -RHS Pump seal coolers can also be supplied with Service Water.
D. Incorrect -Drywell Equipment Drain Coolers are only cooled by RBCLC
- In accordance with N2-0P-92, Neutron Monitoring, which one of the following describes the lineup for placing the IRMs controls and displays in service prior to a plant startup?
Place the IRM drawer switch to (1 )
-AND-
Place the IRM Recorders C51-R603A - D in (2) speed.
(1 ) (2)
A. STANDBY SLOW
B. STANDBY FAST
C. OPERATE SLOW
D. OPERATE FAST
D. Correct -OP-92 states “At H13-P606 place drawer switch to OPERATE and place C51R603A -D in FAST speed.”
- The plant is operating normally at rated power when a malfunction on 2BYS*PNL201B caused the following indications:
- System Status Light “RHR B Relay Logic power Fail” is lit.
- Annunciator 601601 “RHR C SYSTEM INOPERABLE” alarms.
- Annunciator 601631 “RHR B SYSTEM INOPERABLE” alarms.
Which one of the following describes the status of the RHR B and C pumps?
RHR B and C pumps ..
A. can be manually started
B. are capable of auto starting
C. are not capable of auto starting and cannot be manually started
D. will start, but only after depressing the Manual Initiation pushbutton
A. Correct -The malfunction on 2BYS*PNL201 B causes a loss of the Div 2 RHS Auto/Manual initiations as discussed in N2-S0P-04 Attachment 3. Loss of Div II RHS Auto/Manuallnitiations. Annunciator 601601, RHR C SYSTEM INOPERABLE, and Annunciator 601631, RHR B SYSTEM INOPERABLE, in alarm
B. Incorrect -Cannot be automatically started per N2-S0P-04, Attachment 3
C. Incorrect -RHR Band C pumps can be manually started because control power to the breakers has not been lost, (i.e. loss of 2BYS*SWG002B)
D. Incorrect -Manual Initiation pushbutton will not cause the RHR B or C pumps to start per N2-S0P-04, Attachment 3.
- The plant is operating at 100% power with the following conditions:
• Division III is lined up to Line 5
• An offsite power surge causes annunciator 852536,
4KV BUS NNS 017 SPLY ACB 17-2 AUTO TRIP I FTC to alarm
Which one of the following describes the plant AC bus(es) de-energized as a result of the above conditions?
A. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II)
B. 2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG102 (Div I & III)
C. 2ENS*SWG101 (Div. I) and 2NNS-SWG014 (Stub Bus)
D. 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II) and 2NNS-SWG015 (Stub Bus)
A. Correct -2ENS*SWG103 (Div II) -NNS-SWG017 is the normal supply for this bus via offsite power
B. Incorrect -2ENS*SWG101 and 2ENS*SWG102 (Div I & III) are normally supplied from NNS-SWG016 via offsite power
C. Incorrect -2ENS*SWG101 (Div. I) is normally supplied from NNS-SWG016 and NNSSWG014 (Stub Bus) is normally supplied from the NPS-SWG003
D. Incorrect -Although 2ENS*SWG103 (Div. II) is powered from NNS-SWG017, NNSSWG015 (Stub Bus) is normally supplied from NPS-SWG003
- The plant has experienced a seismic event followed by a failure to scram. Conditions are as follows:
- 2SLS*P1A and P1B Standby Liquid Poison (SLC) pumps are not available due to motor electric faults
- 2SLS*MOV1A, STORAGE TANK OUTLET VLV is stuck shut and cannot be opened.
Per N2-EOP-6, which one of the following lineups will allow boron to be injected into the RPV to shutdown the reactor?
–See Attached Image–
Lineup number …
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1,2, and 3
A. Incorrect. Although injection via WCS is a method for injecting boron into the core, the SLS failure given in the question stem does not preclude using SLS B piping to also inject the boron. Plausible in that if the candidate does not know the lineup used to inject boron via the hydro pump, they may think that the failure given in the question stem precludes the use of using the B SLS pump piping to inject boron.
B. Incorrect. The SLS failure given in the question stem does precludes using SLS A piping to inject the boron. Plausible if the candidate does not know that there are two methods allowed per Attachment 16 to inject boron using the hydro pump and that the suction valve is required to be open in order to use it.
C. Correct. The SLS failure given in the question stem precludes the use of SLS A to inject boron using the hydro pump. Since SLS B is still available, boron injection can be lined up via this train. Additionally, boron injection via WCS is still available.
D. Incorrect. The storage tank outlet valve for SLS A needs to be open in order to use the SLS A train to inject born via the hydro pump. Plausible in that if the candidate does not know the hydro pump suction connection comes off downstream of the storage tank outlet valve this would be the correct answer.
- The plant is operating at 100% power with GTS Train A running and aligned for containment venting via the drywell when the following occurs:
- Drywell pressure trip unit C72-N650A fails upscale
- 603101, RPS A DRYWELL PRESSURE HIGH TRIP annunciator alarms
Which one of the following lists (1) the GTS Train A response and (2) the GTS Train B response?
A. (1) GTS Train A will continue to run in containment vent mode via the drywell
(2) GTS Train B will remain in standby
B. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run in containment vent mode via the drywell
(2) GTS Train B will automatically initiate
C. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run, however CPS*AOV110, DRYWELL PURGE OUTLET OUTBOARD ISOL VLV closes
(2) GTS Train B will remain in standby
D. (1 ) GTS Train A will continue to run, however CPS*AOV110, DRYWELL PURGE OUTLET OUTBOARD ISOL VLV closes
(2) GTS Train B will automatically initiate
A. Correct -Because only one drywell trip unit failed, the primary containment vent valves only received a half isolation signal, (the vent valves are part of Group 9). The Group 9 isolation requires 2 out of 2 logic, (i.e. two drywell trip units must actuate) in order for
either the inboard or outboard containment vent valves to close. Since no isolation occurred, GTS Train A will remain running in containment vent mode. Also GTS train B only receives a half initiate signal per ARP 603101. With only a half isolation in, GTS
train B will not start.
- The plant experienced a Loss Off-Site Power. The Standby Emergency Diesels automatically started.
The thermostatic control valve regulating DG lube oil temperature associated with 2EGS*EG1 has failed causing all lube oil to bypass the lube oil cooler.
Lube oil temperature will rise until. ..
A. engine failure occurs
B. the diesel trips on high vibration
C. the diesel trips on high lube oil temperature
D. the diesel trips on high main bearing temperature
A. Correct: -Following an emergency start all trips are bypassed except overspeed and Generator Differential Current.
- The RCIC turbine is being manually started for level control after the RCIC MANUAL INITIATION pushbutton failed to operate. Conditions are as follows:
- RPV pressure is 850 psig and stable.
- RCIC system flow indicates 0 gpm.
- RCIC turbine speed indicates 4500 rpm.
- RCIC pump discharge pressure indicates 700 psig
- ICS*MOV126, PMP 1 DISCH TO REACTOR is open
Which one of the following is the minimum pump discharge pressure needed to establish injection flow into the RPV and the action needed to achieve that pressure per N2-0P-35, Reactor Core Isolation Cooling System?
A. 860 psig by manually raising turbine speed.
B. 860 psig by raising flow controller setpoint.
C. 960 psig by manually raising turbine speed.
D. 960 psig by raising flow controller setpoint.
C. Correct -per N2-0P-35, Step F.3.8 Slowly raise RCIC turbine speed using the RCIC FLOW CONTROLLER in M for Manual. F.3.9 NOTE, RCIC discharge pressure of approximately 110 psig above Reactor pressure will be required to commence RPV injection.
- The plant is in Mode 4 due to a forced outage. Conditions are as follows:
- RHS B Loop is operating in Shutdown Cooling Mode
- The plant will not go to Mode 5 during the outage
- RHS B Heat Exchanger Service Water Outlet Temperature is 100°F and stable
- Cooldown Rate is 95°F/hr
- RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV THROTTLE is 50% open
- NO Reactor Recirculation Pumps are in operation
- RHR B Loop Flow is 5000 gpm
Which one of the following valve throttling manipulations is required to operate at rated system flow conditions while maintaining the current cooldown rate?
RHS*MOV40B, SOC B RETURN throttled.. ; RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCH. 1B INLET BYPASS VLV throttled..
A. CLOSED ; CLOSED
B. OPEN ; CLOSED
C. OPEN ; OPEN
D. CLOSED ; OPEN
C. Correct -With Loop Flow LOW, it is required to throttle RHS*MOV40B, SDC B RETURN THROTTLE in the OPEN direction. This will RAISE Cooldown rate. To LOWER Cooldown rate, it is required to throttle RHS*MOV8B, HEAT EXCHANGER 1 B INLET BYPASS VLV in the OPEN direction
- The plant is shutdown after a LOCA with the following conditions:
- RPV pressure is 410 psig and lowering slowly
- 2CSL*P1, Low Pressure Core Spray Pump has been shutdown
- 2CSL*P2, LPCS / RHR A WTR LEG PMP has tripped on motor electric fault
- Annunciator 601428, LPCS HIGH POINT VENT LEVEL LOW alarmed a short time after the water leg pump tripped
- The CRS has determined that LPCS is needed for core cooling
Which of the following is correct if 2CSL*P1 is restarted under these conditions?
A. 2CSL*P1 starts but does not inject into the RPV at this pressure.
B. 2CSL*P1 starts but trips due to overcurrent from excessive flow into the RPV.
C. The discharge piping could break in the primary containment resulting in a reduction in suppression pool level.
D. The discharge piping could break resulting in Reactor Building flooding and a reduction in suppression pool level.
D. Correct -OP-32, P&L 5.0 states To prevent water hammer, LPCS Pump should not be manually started if annunciator 601428, LPCS HIGH POINT VENT LEVEL LOW is received. The pump is rated for a discharge flow rate of 6350 gpm at a discharge pressure of 290 psig.
- The plant is operating at 100% power, when the following occurs:
- Annunciator 603306, CRD SCRAM VALVE PILOT AIR HDR PRESS HIGH/LOW, alarmed.
- 2IAS-TK3, RB Air Receiver pressure is 120 psig and stable.
- Auxiliary Operator reports the Scram Air Header pressure 63 psig and stable.
- NO control rods are drifting.
Which one of the following statements describes the action that is to be attempted to restore Scram Air Header pressure, per N2-S0P-19, Loss of Instrument Air?
A. Verify all lAS Compressors are loaded and bypass lAS Dryers
B. Swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
C. Bypass Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
D. Verify all lAS Compressors are loaded and isolate Service Air Header
Proposed Answer: B
A. Incorrect -This would be true for Dryer Valve malfunction
B. Correct -Per N2-S0P-19, it is required to swap Scram Air Header Supply Filters and Pressure Control Valves
C. Incorrect -This is not procedural. Scram air header is required to be filtered and regulated at 70 -75 psig
D. Incorrect -This would be true if IA Header Pressure was below 85 pSig, due to a SA Header rupture
- Which one of the following is the effect of the operating Battery Room Exhaust Fan, 2HVC*FN4B tripping on overcurrent?
A. Hydrogen will build up in the battery room and the battery must be removed from service.
B. The standby fan 2HVC*FN4A will automatically start and battery operation will NOT be affected.
C. Portable ventilation for the battery room must be setup to prevent Hydrogen buildup and the battery remains in operation.
D. Hydrogen will build up in the Battery Room until the standby fan 2HVC*FN4A is manually started, the battery remains in operation.
B. Correct -If FN4A trips the standby fan *FN4B will auto start on *FN4A low air flow if its control switch is in the “Normal After Stop” position. There will not be buildup of Hydrogen and there is no effect on battery operation or room temperature.
- The plant is in Mode 1 with a reactor shutdown in progress. Conditions are as follows:
- Drywell de-inerting purge is in progress using GTS Train B lAW N2-0P-61A, Primary Containment Ventilation Purge and Nitrogen System
- 2GTS*PV5B, REACTOR BLDG INLET/OUTLET DIFF PRESS CONT VLV, is in MANUAL
- 2HVR-MOD17A and B, RX BLDG SPLY RECIRC DAMPERS are being controlled manually.
- Reactor Building DP is -0.9” water and stable
- Drywell pressure is 0.40 psig and slowly lowering
In this lineup, throttling closed on 2GTS*PV5B will cause Drywell pressure to _(1)_ and Reactor Building Differential Pressure to become _(2)_ ?
A. (1) lower faster
(2) less negative
B. (1) lower slower
(2) more negative
C. (1) lower slower
(2) less negative
D. (1) lower faster
(2) more negative
D. Correct. If 5B were throttled in the closed direction, less air would be recirculated back to the suction of the GTS train. This would result in more flow from both the RB and the Drywell. With more flow coming from the drywell, drywell pressure would lower faster. With more flow coming from the RB, then the RB would get more negative.
- Which one of the following identifies the response of Uninterruptible Power Supply 2VBA*UPS2A if the normal AC feed is lost?
A. UPS2A shifts to 2BYS*SWGOO2A.
B. The normal AC shifts to 2NJS-US4 via 2VBB-TRS1.
C. The Static switch automatically transfers to 2LAC*PNL 1 OOA.
D. Transfer switch 2VBA*TRS2A automatically shifts to 2VBA*UPS2C.
A. Correct -On loss of normal AC UPS2A will transfer to DC via BYS*SWG002A
- The plant is shutdown following a LOCA with the following conditions:
- HPCS is aligned and injecting into the core with suction from the suppression pool.
- RPV water level is 150 inches and slowly rising
- 2CSH*P1, HPCS P1 injection flow is 6500 gpm and stable
- Suppression Pool level is 192.5 feet and stable.
- The CRS has determined that 5000 gpm is needed from HPCS to maintain adequate core cooling.
Which one of the following describes (1) the impact of operating in this condition per NER-2M039, NMP 2 EOP Bases, and (2) what action is necessary per N2-EOP-6, Attachment 29 to prevent it from happening?
A. (1) 2CSH*P1 may trip due to pump runout
(2) Secure 2CHS*P1 by placing the control switch in Pull To Lock
B. (1) 2CSH*P1 flow may noticeably degrade
(2) Secure 2CHS*P1 by placing the control switch in Pull To Lock
C. (1) 2CSH*P1 may trip due to pump runout
(2) Make 2CSH*MOV107, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV throttleable and reduce 2CSH*P1 flow to 5000 gpm
D. (1) 2CSH*P1 flow may noticeably degrade
(2) Make 2CSH*MOV107, PMP 1 INJECTION VLV throttleable and reduce 2CSH*P1 flow to 5000 gpm
D. Correct -Per the EOP Bases, Section 14, operating HPCS in the bad region of the vortex curve will cause HPCS capacity to noticeably degrade and since the CRS only needs 5000 gpm from HPCS, Attachment 29 directs HPCS to be made throttleable and flow reduced.
- The plant has experienced a failure to scram with the following conditions:
- N2-EOP-C4, RPV Flooding has been entered
- 5 SRVs are open
- RPV pressure is stable at 225 psig
- The crew has commenced injection into the RPV using Condensate and Feed
Complete the following statement:
The reactor core (1) adequately cooled and the RO should (2) the rate of injection until RPV pressure rises above 235 psig or until the RPV has been flooded to the main steam lines.
(1) ; (2)
A. IS NOT ; LOWER
B. IS ; LOWER
C. IS NOT ; RAISE
D. IS ; RAISE
C. Correct -The core IS NOT adequately cooled and the RO should RAISE injection flow to cause pressure to rise above the MSCP.
- A reactor startup is in progress. While withdrawing rods to raise reactor power, the following annunciator alarms:
• 603216, SRM DETECTOR POSITION ABNORMAL
Which one of the following is correct with regard to this annunciator?
At least one SRM is indicating …..
A. <3 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 2 or below.
B. <3 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 7 or below.
C. <100 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 2 or below.
D. <100 cps with its detector not full in. A rod withdrawal block will be generated if IRMs are on range 7 or below.
C. Correct. Anytime an SRM reads <100 cps and its detector is not full in, 603216 will annunciate. A rod withdrawal block will be initiating if IRMS are on rage 2 or below, (i.e. bypassed if IRMS are on range 3 or above)
B. Incorrect. Plausible in that <3 cps is the SRM DOWNSCALE ALARM which will generate a rod block and the SRM UPSCALE alarm will generate a rod block if IRMs are on range 7 or below
- Following an AUTOMATIC initiation of the Automatic Depressurization System (ADS), the following conditions exist:
- ALL Low Pressure ECCS Pumps have been TRIPPED due to Suction Strainer clogging.
- 2CSH*P1, HPCS PMP 1 is running and injecting into the core.
- RPV Water Level is 30 inches and RISING.
What is the status of the ADS Safety Relief Valves (SRVs)?
ADS SRVs …
A. remain OPEN due to a logic seal-in
B. have SHUT due to recovering RPV Water Level
C. have SHUT due to loss of ECCS Pump permissives
D. remain OPEN because an ECCS Pump is providing a permissive signal
A. Correct -Initially, LP ECCS Pumps were RUNNING. Manual Initiation switches energize K6A Initiation Relay AND K8A Seal In Relay. When K8A is energized, it seals itself in by closing a contact above the Seal In Reset pushbutton in the diagram. ADS Valves REMAIN OPEN, even if LP ECCS Pump permissives are subsequently LOST.
- The plant was operating at 100% power when a plant transient occurred. Conditions are as follows:
• Indications on the Average Power Range Monitor Chassis for APRMs 1 through 4 have “OPRM” displayed in inverse video.
Which one of the following conditions is indicated by these displays?
Reactor power is greater than or equal to 23% _(1)_ core flow is less than or equal to 75%.
OPRM trips and alarm setpoints are _(2)_
A. (1)OR
(2) ENABLED
B. (1) AND
(2)ENABLED
C. (1) OR
(2) NOT ENABLED
D. (1) AND
(2) NOT ENABLED
B. Correct -With OPRM displayed in inverse video, power must be greater than or equal to 23% AND core flow must be less than or equal to 75%. Also, when OPRM is displayed, this indicates that the OPRM trips and setpoints are ENABLED
- A reactor startup is in progress with power at 4%. Conditions are as follows:
- IRM B failed upscale causing a half scram on the B side
- IRM B has been bypassed
- The RO is in the process of resetting the half scram on the B side
Which one of the following lists the minimum number of switches that must be placed in RESET in order to reenergize the RPS B PILOT SCRAM VALVE SOLENOID white lights?
A. Only REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC B
B. Only REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC D
C. Both REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC A and B
D. Both REACTOR SCRAM RESET LOGIC B and D
A. Correct. IRM B trips only the B1 logic. Since Scram Reset Logic Switch B resets the B1 Logic, then the RO is only required to place the B switch in reset in order to reset the RPS B logic and energize the RPS B white solenoid lights.
- The plant is operating at 100% when the following occurs:
• Loop A Feed Flow Transmitter 2FWS-FT1A fails downscale
With NO operator actions, which one of the following will result first, and what actions are required?
A. RPV Water Level will LOWER until reaching Level 3, and actions will be required per N2-EOP-RPV, RPV Control
B. RPV Water Level will RISE until reaching Level 8, and actions will be required per N2SOP-1 01 C, Reactor Scram
C. RPV Water Level will RISE and stabilize below Level 8, and actions will be required per N2-S0P-06, Feedwater Failures
D. BOTH Reactor Recirculation Pumps will DOWNSHIFT, and actions will be required per N2-S0P-08, Unplanned Power Change
B. Correct -“full power” implies Three Element Auto control. When ONE Feedwater Flow Input FAILS LOW, FLCS will increase Feedwater Flow until RPV Water Level 8 is reached. L8 causes a Main Turbine and RFP Trips, which causes a scram requiring N2SOP-101C entry
- 2VBB-UPS1 B is in service with the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH in MANUAL RESTART when a temporary overload occurs and then clears.
Which one of the following describes (1) how 2VBB-UPS1 B loads are powered AFTER this event AND (2) what actions are required to restore a normal lineup per N2-0P-71 D?
A. (1) 2NJS-US6
(2) Manually transfer to the normal supply at panel 2VBB-PNL301.
B. (1) 2NJS-US4
(2) Manually transfer to the normal supply at the UPS, 2VBB-UPS1 B.
C. (1) 2NJS-US6
(2) Place the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH at 2VBB-UPS1B to AUTO RESTART.
D. (1) 2NJS-US4
(2) Place the TRANSFER CONTROL SWITCH at 2VBB-PNL301 to AUTO RESTART.
C. Correct -When the transfer control switch in manual restart, once the UPS transfers to maintenance it will remain there until manually transferred back to the normal AC. The temporary overload condition would cause the UPS to transfer to maintenance and it would remain there after the condition cleared because the transfer control switch is in manual restart. The UPS must be manually transferred back to its normal supply 2NJSUS6 at the UPS.
- The plant is starting up following an outage when the following indications are observed for SRM A after withdrawing a control rod:
- see picture
Which one of the following actions is required to continue the startup?
A. Bypass SRM A Channel to clear the INOP condition
B. Retract SRM A Detector to clear the UPSC condition
C. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 8, THEN retract SRM Detector to clear the UPSC condition
D. Wait until ALL IRMs are on Range 3, THEN verify the Control Rod Out Block automatically clears
B. Correct -Upscale Alarm condition is indicated by light status. With a startup in progress, SRMs are required to be maintained on scale by retracting detectors
- During a reactor startup the following conditions exist:
- IRM channel “E” is on Range 1 and is reading 10 on the 0-40 scale.
- Control rod withdrawal has the reactor on a stable 100 sec period.
3 minutes later, which one of the following will be the IRM “E” indication if the RO correctly moves the IRM range switches?
Power{CPS} ; IRM Scale ; IRM Range
A. 10 ; 40 ; Range 5
B. 33 ; 125 ; Range 4
C. 30 ; 40 ; Range 3
D. 60 ; 125 ; Range 2
D. Correct -A reactor period of 100 seconds will result in power rising by 60.496 which is equivalent to 60 on IRM range 2. (p=po T/f 10 x e(180/100) = 60.496) or Reactor Period (1.44 x Doubling Time)
- Given the following:
- The main turbine has tripped and reactor pressure has increased above the scram setpoint.
- Approximately one third of the control rods remain fully withdrawn.
- MSIV’s remain open and several SRV’s are cycling.
N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram directs that SRVs be manually opened until RPV pressure drops to a certain pressure.
Which ONE of the following identifies (1) this pressure and (2) the basis for performing this action per NER-2M-039, NMP EOP Bases?
A. (1) 800 psig
(2) Prevent automatic closure of the MSIV’s
B. (1) 800 psig
(2) Maintain Turbine Bypass Valves open
C. (1) 970 psig
(2) Prevent automatic closure of the MSIV’s
D. (1) 970 psig
(2) Maintain Turbine Bypass Valves open
D. Correct -970 psig is the pressure at which bypass valves should be full open reducing below this pressure will cause them to close
- The plant is at 100% power when the following indications are observed for the Standby Liquid Control System on 2CEC*PNL601:
- see attached picture
Which one of the following is correct if the Standby Liquid Poison (SLS) system receives a valid Division 1 and 2 RRCS initiation signal?
A. Division 1 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 44 gpm.
B. Division 2 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 44 gpm.
C. Division 1 SLS Squib Valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 88 gpm.
D. Division 2 SLS Squib valve will not fire. Total boron injection flowrate into the RPV will be approximately 88 gpm.
D. Correct. With the squib continuity light out on the Division 2 squib, the squib will not fire. Even though the Division 2 squib does not fire, because the Division 1 and 2 SLS pumps are cross connected up stream of their associated squib valves, full flow (88 gpm), will be achieved into the reactor vessel through the Division 1 squib valve.
Incorrect. Plausible in that if this were the Traversing In-Core Probe Containment Isolation Squib, then the squib light would be on to indicate a loss of continuity. The candidate has to remember that the Standby Liquid Control squib and the Traversing Incore Probe squib are opposite with regards to the squib continuity light. Additionally, the candidate will have to remember that the SLS pumps are cross connected upstream of the squib valves and not downstream. If the candidate thought the pump were cross connected downstream, then 44 gpm would be the flowrate going into the RPV.
- The plant is operating at 100% power when the scram inlet valve for a control rod at position 24 opens.
Which one of the following identifies (1) the response of reactor power and the (2) scram discharge volume (SDV) level to this event?
A. (1) Rises
(2) Rises
B. (1) Rises
(2) Stays the same
C. (1) Lowers
(2) Rises
D. (1) Lowers
(2) Stays the same
D. Correct -opening of the scram inlet valve will cause the control rod to partially drift in, resulting in a drop in reactor power. Although the rod will be prohibited from fully inserting due to potential mechanism damage, the rod will still partially insert causing reactor power to lower. Because the scram outlet valve did not open, SDV level remains the same
- With the plant operating at full power, a loss of power from 2VBB-UPS3A occurs.
Which one of the following describes the impact of this power loss on the Rod Block Monitor and Average Power Range Monitors?
A. APRM Channels 1 and 2 are de-energized and produce an RPS A half scram. RBM Channel A loses power and causes a rod block.
B. APRM Channels 3 and 4 are de-energized and produce an RPS B half scram. RBM Channel B loses power and causes a rod block.
C. APRM Channels 1 and 2 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 2/4 Logic Module produces an RPS A half scram. RBM Channel A loses a power source but remains energized.
D. APRM Channels 3 and 4 lose a power source, but remain energized. Loss of power to a 2/4 Logic Module produces an RPS B half scram. RBM Channel B loses a power source but remains energized.
C. Correct -APRMs and RBMs are powered from Quadruple Low Voltage Power Supplies with redundant supply sources. Loss of 2VBB-UPS3A removes one of two inputs of power to QLVPS, and a loss of power to the 2/4 Logic Module which produces an RPS
A Half Scram
- The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
- Suppression Pool Water Level is 233 feet
- Suppression chamber pressure is 5 psig and stable
Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?
If RHS A were placed in suppression chamber spray,
A. suppression chamber pressure would not be affected because the suppression chamber spray ring is submerged.
B. suppression chamber and drywell pressure would lower at the same rate because the pressure suppression function of the primary containment has been lost.
C. the primary containment could potentially reach its design negative pressure capability of -4.7 psig because the drywell to suppression chamber vacuum breaker openings are submerged.
D. the drywell floor could potentially reach its design upward floor differential pressure of 10 psid because the drywell to suppression chamber vacuum breaker openings are submerged.
A. Correct. The suppression chamber spray rings are at elevation 231 feet. Per NER-2M039 (page 5-17), with the spray nozzles submerged, there will be no spraying action and suppression chamber pressure would be unaffected.
- A reactor shutdown is in progress. An operator is attempting to move rod 02-35 from position 26 to position 24 using single notch movement when the following occurs:
- Rod 02-35 triple notches to position 20
- Troubleshooting has determined the directional control valves, (DCV) on HCU 02-35 malfunctioned.
Which ONE of the following directional control valve failures could have caused rod 02-35 to triple notch?
Note:
• SOV-120 is Withdraw, Exhaust, and Settle DCV
• SOV-121 is Insert Exhaust DCV
• SOV-122 is Withdraw Supply DCV
• SOV-123 is Insert Supply DCV
A. SOV-121 and SOV-123 shut earlier than required during the DCV insert sequence.
B. SOV-120 and SOV-122 shut earlier than required during the DCV insert sequence.
C. SOV-121 and SOV-123 stayed open longer than required during the DCV insert sequence.
D. SOV-120 and SOV-122 stayed open longer than required during the DCV insert sequence.
C. Correct. With 121 and 123 staying open longer, drive flow is applied to the insert side of the CRDM causing the rod to continue to move in.
- The plant is shutdown following a LOCA. Conditions are as follows:
- HPCS system is not injecting
- Indicated RPV level is -50 inches
- RPV pressure is 600 psig
Which one of the following correctly completes the following statement?
Actual RPV water level is __(1)__the Top of Active Fuel and the core is being cooled using __(2)__.
-See attached picture
A. (1) ABOVE
(2) boiling heat transfer only
B. (1) ABOVE
(2) boiling heat transfer AND steam flow
C. (1) BELOW
(2) steam flow only
D. (1) BELOW
(2) boiling heat transfer AND steam flow
D. Correct. When plotting on the graph, actual water level lies between the TAF and the IVISCWL. When operating in this region, the method of ACC is submergence for the covered portion of the core and steam cooling for the uncovered portion of the core.
- The plant was at 18% power when a FWLC failure caused RPV level to lower and a Recirc Flow Control Valve Runback occurred. Conditions are as follows:
- Power is at 15%
- Core flow is at 19.5 Mlbs/hr
Per N2-S0P-29, Sudden Reduction in Core Flow, which one of the following actions is REQUIRED to be done first?
A. INSERT the first four CRAM rods
B. PLACE the mode switch in shutdown
C. MONITOR for core oscillations and SHIFT APRM recorders to fast speed
D. TAKE manual control of FWLC and RAISE RPV water level to reset the runback
B. Correct. Plotting the power and core flow on the two loop power to flow map shows they are to the left of the Natural Circ Line, (Scram Region). N2-S0P-29 requires the reactor to be scrammed if the plant is operating in the Scram Region.
- The reactor was operating at 100% when a manual scram was initiated. 30 seconds later, the following indications are observed on a portion of the Full Core Display:
- see attached picture
Assuming all other indications not shown for the Full Core Display have normal scram indications, which one of the following is correct?
Before the scram …
A. Rod 34-23 was at position 00 and is now full in. Entry into N2-EOP-C5, Failure to Scram will not be required.
B. Rod 34-27 was at a position greater than position 00, but is now full in. Entry into N2EOP-C5, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.
C. Rod 38-23 was at a position greater than position 00 but it did not move and is now stuck at its pre-scram position. Entry into N2-EOP-CS, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.
D. Rod 38-27 was at a position greater than position 00, but is now is stuck after partially inserting. Entry into N2-EOP-CS, Failure to Scram will eventually be required.
A. Incorrect. Because both rod 38-23 and 38-27 are not fully in, then more than one rod is not full in which requires entry into N2-EOP-CS.
B. Incorrect. Since the RED drift light is not on for rod 34-27, this means that the rod did not move past an odd reed switch. Since the full in light is on, this means the rod was at position 00 before the scram happened.
C. Incorrect. Since the RED drift light is on for 38-23, this means that the rod inserted at least a half a notch (enough to pick up an odd reed switch). If the rod was stuck at its prescram position, then the RED drift light would not be on.
D. Correct. With the RED drift light in and the GREEN full in light not in, the rod is stuck after partially inserting. If the rod had not moved, then the RED drift light would not be in. Because both rod 38-23 and 38-27 are not fully in, then more than one rod is not full in which requires entry into N2-EOP-CS.
- The plant has experienced a LOCA. The following conditions exist
- Drywell Temperature is 310°F
- RPV Pressure is 50 psig
- ECCS Systems are injecting into the RPV
- Wide Range RPV water level is 30 inches and steadily rising
- Fuel Zone instruments read upscale
-see attached picture
Which one of the following describes the current requirement regarding entry into RPV Flooding EOP and why?
A. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve and reference leg flashing IS occurring.
B. RPV Flooding must be entered because parameters are in the BAD region of RPV Saturation Temperature curve even though reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.
C. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values even though reference leg flashing IS occurring.
D. RPV Flooding entry is NOT required because water level readings are above Minimum Indicated Level values and reference leg flashing IS NOT occurring.
D. Correct -Conditions are above DETAIL A’s Saturation Temperature Curve of EOP-PC and RPV. Although elevated DWT and low RPV pressure can result in flashing there is no evidence of flashing on the Wide Range instruments. The Caution states that Level instruments can only be used if “there is NO evidence of instrument leg flashing AND the instrument reads above the Minimum Indicated Level (Table C). Since there is NO evidence that instrument leg boiling is taking place on the Wide Range and Wide Range level is above the minimum indicated value of 25 inches, level can be determined.
- The plant is at 100% power. Conditions are as follows:
- Annunciator 601260, DRYWELL UNIT COOLERS LEAKAGE HIGH, alarmed
- CCP*MOV265/273 and CCP*MOV122/124, Unit Coolers RBCLC Supply and Return valves were closed
- Highest Drywell Temperature is 140 F and slowly rising
- Drywell pressure is 0.8 psig and slowly rising
Per N2-S0P-60, Loss of Drywell Cooling, which of the following actions are required to restore the Drywell Unit Cooler Fans to service and lower drywell temperature and pressure?
Override Switches ; Required Action
B. Correct: Since only the fans are being restored, N2-S0P-60 directs that the UNIT COOLER FANS GR1 and GR2 LOCA OVERRIDE be operated. Additionally, because the fans tripped, the fans must be restarted.
C. Incorrect: The DRYWELL UNIT COOLER WTR DIV I and DIV II LOCA OVERRIDE switches override the LOCA signal to the CCP valves to re-open them with a LOCA signal present. The UNIT COOLER FANS GR 1 and GR2 LOCA OVERRIDE switches must be operated to restart the fans with the CCP valves closed.
- The plant is at 100% power when the following indications are observed on 2CEC*PNL849:
- see attached picture
Indications for ZONE 505 SW FPW-MOV172A, 172B on the sloping section of 2CEC*PNL849 show that the header is pressurized.
The Fire Brigade Leader reports that ZONE 505SW XFMR 2STX-XNS1 is in alarm at the Local Fire Panel.
Per EPIP-EPP-28, FIRE FIGHTING, the control room staff __(1)__ call this a CONFIRMED FIRE because __(2)__
A. (1) SHOULD NOT
(2)suppression system actuation and flow CANNOT be confirmed.
B. (1) SHOULD NOT
(2) the Fire Brigade Leader has not reported back to the control room that an actual fire exists.
C. (1) SHOULD
(2) the alarm at the Local Fire Panel indicates that there is an actual fire.
D. (1) SHOULD
(2) a fire has been detected and there is indication of suppression system activation with flow.
*** This question is outdated***
A. Incorrect. Per EPIP-EPP-28, a fire can be called CONFIRMED provided the following exists; Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation accompanied by actual flow or discharge. Having the electric fire pump start and ZONE 505 indicating the header is pressurized is sufficient to show suppression system activation with actual flow.
B. Incorrect. Although the FBL can call a fire confirmed, the control room staff can also call the fire confirmed if there are indications in the control room consistent with a Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation accompanied by actual flow or discharge.
C. Incorrect. A local fire panel alarm is not sufficient to call a fire confirmed.
D. Correct. Per EPIP-EPP-28, a fire can be called CONFIRMED provided the following exists; Fire Alarm/Annunciator and suppression system activation which is indicated by annunciator 849227, FIRE DETECTED PNL 121 CB W CORRIDOR ELEV/261, accompanied by actual flow or discharge. Having the electric fire pump start, determined by annunciator 849204 and ZONE 505 indicating the header is pressurized, is sufficient to show suppression system activation with actual flow. ZONE 505SW XFMR 2STX-XNS 1 is a deluge system for the Station Service Transformer once this system is pressurized there will be flow because all the nozzles are open.
- The plant is operating at 100% power, when the following sequence occurs:
Time Event
0800 • The Reactor Building isolates on high exhaust radiation.
0805 • Reactor Water Cleanup System WCS Pump Room A temperature is 160 degrees F and steady
• Reactor Water Cleanup failed to isolate both automatically and manually.
0820 • Radiation monitor RMS2A on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 9.2 E+03 mRlhr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display
• Radiation monitor RMS2B on Reactor Building Elevation 215 is reading 8.2 E+03 mRlhr steady and indicating RED on DRMS display
Which one of the following describes the proper implementation of EOP-SC with regards to area radiation levels?
A. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. Continue to try to isolate WCS system. A normal plant shutdown is NOT required.
B. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A normal plant shutdown IS required. RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
C. Only one area is affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required but an RPV Blowdown is NOT required.
D. Two areas are affected by elevated radiation levels. A manual scram IS required AND an RPV Blowdown IS required.
D. Correct: Per the TMG page 39, each area radiation monitor is treated as a separate area. Since RMS2A and 2B are reading above Max Safe Values, then 2 areas are affected. Because WCS (Reactor Water Cleanup) is a primary system entry into N2EOP-RPV is required via EOP-SC, step 8, which will require a scram. Because 2 areas are above Max Safe a Blowdown is required by EOP-SC Step SC-1O.
