1S [LEC]: Intro + History Flashcards

1
Q

In 1492, blood was taken from three young men and given to the stricken ___ in the hope of curing him

A

Pope Innocent VII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In 1869, ___ recommended sodium phosphate as a safe anticoagulant

A

Braxton Hicks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In 1901, ___ discovered the ABO blood groups

A

Karl Landsteiner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

___ carried out vein-to-vein transfusion of blood by using multiple syringes and a special cannula for puncturing the vein through the skin

A

Edward E. Lindemann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

___ designed his syringe-valve apparatus that transfusions from donor to patient by an unassisted physician became practical

A

Unger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In 1914, ___ reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions

A

Hustin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In 1915, ___ determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts

A

Lewisohn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Mechanism of action of citrate as an anticoagulant

A

Chelates calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In 1916, ___ and __ introduced a citrate-dextrose solution for the preservation of blood

A

Rous and Turner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The function of glucose in RBC metabolism was not understood until the ___

A

1930s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In February 1941, ___ was appointed director of the first American Red Cross blood bank at Presbyterian Hospital

A

Dr. Charles Drew

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In 1943, ___ and ___ of England introduced the formula for the preservative acid-citrate-dextrose (ACD)

A

Loutit and Mollison

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In July 1947, what journal on blood preservation was published?

A

Journal of Clinical Investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

In 1957, ___ introduced an improved peservative solution called citrate-phosphate dextrose (CPD)

A

Gibson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

A citizen seeking spiritual rebirth descended into a pit, or fossa sanguinis

A

Taurobolium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The ___ bathed in blood to resuscitate the sick and rejuvenate the old

A

Egyptians

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In 1666, ___ was the first to successfully transfuse blood from one animal to another (dogs)

A

Richard Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In 1667, ___ performed animal (sheep) to man transfusion

A

Richard Lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The first man to received blood from an animal (sheep)

A

Arthur Coga

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In 1667, ___ is documented as the first one to perform animal to man transfusion

A

Jean-Baptiste Denis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

In 1667, ___ successfully transfused sheep blood into a 15 y/o with long-standing fever

A

Jean-Baptiste Denis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Substance that reacts to antibody

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The product of antigenic stimulation

A

Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

T/F: All blood groups are immunogen

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Most immunogenic blood antigen

A

A, B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Second most immunogenic blood antigen

A

RhD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Third most immunogenic blood antigen

A

K (Kell)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Foreign molecules that bind specifically to an antibody or a T-cell receptor

A

Antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Antigen in its role of eliciting an immune response

A

Immunogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Glycoprotein that recognizes a particular epitope on an antigen and facilitates clearance of that antigen

A

Antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The component of an immunoglobulin that connects the monomers

A

J chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The name of the immunoglobulin depends on the ___

A

Heavy-chain composition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The agglutinating antibody

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How many molecules of IgM are needed to activate complement?

A

1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Temperature of binding of IgM

A

20-24C or colder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The immunoglobulin capable of passing through the placenta

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Temperature of binding of IgG

A

37C (body temp)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How many molecules of IgG is needed to activate complement?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

The coating antibody

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Light-chain composition of the antibodies

A

Kappa and Lambda

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The smallest antibody

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The ratio of kappa to lambda

A

2:1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Identify the antibody:

Capable of destroying transfused antigen-positive RBCs

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Identify the antibody:

Predominant Ab produced in the secondary response

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Subclass of IgG that is best in passing through placenta

A

IgG1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Subclass of IgG that is the worst in passing through placenta

A

IgG2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Subclass of IgG that is best in complement activation

A

IgG3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Subclass of IgG that is the worst in complement activation

A

IgG4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Identify the antibody:

Rh, Duffy, Kidd, Kell

A

IgG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Identify the antibody:

Most commonly encountered naturally occurring Ab (ABO system)

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Identify the antibody:

Produced in response to commonly occurring antigens such as intestinal flora and pollen grains

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Identify the antibody:

ABO, Lewis, Ii, P, MN

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Identify the antibody:

Can interfere with detecting IgG by masking their reactivity

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Can exist in monomeric or pentameric form with J chain

A

IgM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The IgM form present in the surface of B cells

A

monomeric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The IgM form present in serum

A

pentameric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Identify the antibody:

Exist as monomer, dimer, or trimer joined by J chain

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Identify the antibody:

For mucosal immunity and secretions

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Identify the antibody:

30% of anti-A and anti-B

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Identify the antibody:

May cause severe anaphylaxis

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Identify the antibody:

Can increase the effect of IgG-induced RBC hemolysis

A

IgA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Identify the antibody:

May cause urticaria if transfused in patients with severe allergic reactions

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Identify the antibody:

Releases histamines

A

IgE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Form of IgE most commonly seen in secretions

A

dimer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Identify the antibody:

Least significant in blood banking

66
Q

Identify the antibody:

Found in the surface of B cells

67
Q

Identify the antibody:

Not able to cross placenta and activate complement

68
Q

Antibodies derived from more than one antibody-producing parent cell

A

Polyclonal

69
Q

Produced in response to a single antigen with more than one epitope

A

Polyclonal

70
Q

Heterogenous antibody against the same antigen

A

Polyclonal

71
Q

Antibodies derived from a single ancestral antibody-producing parent cell

A

Monoclonal

72
Q

Preferred in testing; highly specific, well-characterized, and uniformly reactive

A

Monoclonal

73
Q

The antigen-binding site

74
Q

The antibody-binding site

75
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Found in individuals without previous exposure to RBC antigens from transfusions, injection, or pregnancy

A

Naturally occurring

76
Q

Type of alloantibody:

ABH, Hh, Ii, Lewis, MN, P

A

Naturally occurring

77
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Mostly IgM cold agglutinins

A

Naturally occurring

78
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Needed for serum typing

A

Naturally occurring

79
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Found in individuals with previous exposure to transfusion, injection, and pregnancy

80
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Mostly IgG

81
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Rh, Duffy, Kidd, Kell, Ss

82
Q

Type of serological test done in naturally occurring alloantibody

A

Indirect/ Reverse/ Backward

83
Q

Type of serological test done in immune alloantibody

A

Direct/ Forward

84
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Reacts in saline at ambient room temp or at 4C

A

Naturally occurring (IgM antibody)

85
Q

Type of alloantibody:

May cause hemolysis at 37C

A

Naturally occurring (IgG antibody)

86
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Reacts best at 37C

87
Q

Type of alloantibody:

Requires AHG (Coomb’s) sera for detection

88
Q

Type of antibody:

Produced after exposure to non-self antigens

A

Alloantibodies

89
Q

Type of antibody:

Produced in response to self-antigens

A

Autoantibodies

90
Q

Type of antibody:

Transfused px with undetectable alloAb may elicit a stronger immune response against previous Ags and cause severe transfusion rxns

A

Autoantibodies

91
Q

Type of antibody:

Positive autocontrol or direct antiglobulin test (DAT)

A

Autoantibodies

92
Q

Type of antibody:

Targets antigen absent to px’s red cell

A

Alloantibodies

93
Q

Type of antibody:

Targets antigen present to px’s red cell

A

Autoantibodies

94
Q

This test differentiates alloantibody from autoantibody

A

Autocontrol

95
Q

Components of autocontrol testing

A

px’s red cell + px’s serum

96
Q

Positive result for autocontrol test

A

Agglutination

97
Q

The antigen-antibody or immune complex is also called as ___

A

epitope-paratope complex

98
Q

Complex of one or more antibody molecules bound to an antigen

A

Immune complex

99
Q

The extend of the reciprocal relationship (fit) between the antigen and its binding site on the antibody

A

Lock and key mechanism

100
Q

Factors influencing antigen-antibody reactions

A
  1. intermolecular binding forces
  2. antibody properties
  3. host factors
  4. tolerance
101
Q

Intermolecular binding force:

Attraction between two molecules on the basis of opposite charge

A

Electrostatic forces (ionic binding)

102
Q

Intermolecular binding force:

A positively charged region of a molecule is attracted to the negatively charged region of another molecule

A

Electrostatic forces (ionic binding)

103
Q

Intermolecular binding force:

Attraction of two negatively charged groups (X-) for a H+ atom

A

Hydrogen binding

104
Q

Intermolecular binding force:

Weak bonds formed as a result of the exclusion of water from the antigen-antibody complex

A

Hydrophobic bonding

105
Q

Intermolecular binding force:

Attraction between the electron cloud (-) of one atom and the protons (+) within the nucleus of another atom

A

van der Waals forces

106
Q

Antibody property:

Strength of the binding between a single antibody and an epitope of an antigen

107
Q

Antibody property:

Overall strength of reaction between several epitopes and antibodies; depends on the affinity of antibody, valency, and noncovalent attractive forces

108
Q

Antibody property:

Number of epitopes per molecule of antigen

109
Q

High avidity = ___ dissociation

110
Q

One of the most important characteristics of an antibody that is related to its relative avidity for antigen

A

Specificity

111
Q

A characteristic of an antibody that produces a reaction to similar antigen

A

Cross reactivity

112
Q

Defined as the lack of an immune response or an active immunosuppressive response

113
Q

Exposure to an antigen during fetal life

114
Q

Presence of different populations of cells in a single individual

115
Q

Prevents D-negative mothers from developing anti-D antibodies after delivering Rh-positive infants

116
Q

The most common complement pathway where there is an antigen-antibody reaction

A

Classical pathway

117
Q

A complement pathway where the membrane property of a microorganism is involved

A

Alternative pathway

118
Q

The antigen-antibody complex is removed from the body’s circulation through the ___

A

Mononuclear phagocyte system

119
Q

In vitro RBC Ag-Ab reactions are detected by visible ___

A

Agglutination (hemagglutination) or hemolysis

120
Q

Result of complement activation

A

Lysis (hemolysis)

121
Q

Stage of hemagglutination:

Attachment of Ab to corresponding Ag on RBC membrane

A

Sensitization

122
Q

Stage of hemagglutination:

Combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form crosslinks

A

Lattice formation

123
Q

Lattice formation is improved by ___

A

Centrifugation

124
Q

Factors that influence agglutination

A

Centrifugation
Ag-Ab ratio
pH
Temperature
Ig type
Enhancement media

125
Q

Factors that influence agglutination:

Enhances agglutination reactions

A

Centrifugation

126
Q

Factors that influence agglutination

Decreases reaction time by increasing the gravitational forces on the reactants to bringing reactants closer together

A

Centrifugation

127
Q

Ag-Ab ratio:

Excess Ag

A

Postzone (false neg)

128
Q

Ag-Ab ratio:

Excess Ab

A

Prozone (false neg)

129
Q

Ideal pH for Ag-Ab reactions

130
Q

T/F:

Anti-M and Anti-Pr (Sp1) reacts at a higher pH

A

False (lower pH)

131
Q

Ig type:

Can readily agglutinate RBCs in saline than IgG

132
Q

Ig type:

Has more Ag-combining sites

133
Q

Ig type:

Cold reacting

134
Q

Ig type:

ABO Abs

135
Q

Ig type:

Warm reacting

136
Q

Ig type:

Rh Abs

137
Q

A biphasic antibody, causing Donath-Landsteiner hemolytic anemia

A

autoanti-P

138
Q

Difference in negative charge between the inner and outer surfaces of the cloud

A

Zeta potential

139
Q

Higher zeta potential = ___ Distance

140
Q

T/F: The higher the zeta potential, the more difficult for RBCs to agglutinate

141
Q

Decreases ZP by increasing dielectric constant or adding more cations

A

Protein media

142
Q

Protein media:

Cheapest but longest incubation time

A

Bovine serum albumin (BSA)

143
Q

Protein media:

Removes excess water and doesn’t need centrifugation

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

144
Q

If centrifugation is done when using PEG as a protein media, there is a possibility of ___ in the result

A

false positive

145
Q

Protein media:

Most commonly used with shortest incubation time of 5-15 mins; ave. 10 mins

A

Low ionic strength solution (LISS)

146
Q

NaCl concentration of LISS

147
Q

In using LISS as a protein media, the higher the rate of Ab uptake = ___ incubation time

148
Q

In using LISS as a protein media, when the rate of Ab uptake is increased the incubation time is improved from ___ to ___ mins

A

30-60 mins to 5-15 mins

149
Q

Incubation time of PEG

A

10-30 mins

150
Q

Mechanism of action of proteolytic enzymes as enhancement media

A

Cleaves sialic acid from RBC membrane

151
Q

Identify the proteolytic enzyme used in BB:

Isolated from fig plants

152
Q

Identify the proteolytic enzyme used in BB:

From papaya

153
Q

Identify the proteolytic enzyme used in BB:

From pig stomach

154
Q

Identify the proteolytic enzyme used in BB:

From pineapple

155
Q

Blood antigens enhanced by proteolytic enzymes

A

Rh, Kidd, P1, Lewis, I Ags

156
Q

Blood antigens depressed by proteolytic enzymes

A

MNSs, Duffy Ags

157
Q

An enhancement media that determines if RBCs are coated with Ab and/or complement

A

Anti-human globulin (AHG) reagents

158
Q

An enhancement media that acts as a bridge

A

Anti-human globulin (AHG) reagents

159
Q

T/F: In using AHG reagents, small IgG can both sensitize and cause agglutination

A

False (they rarely cause agglutination and cannot overcome zeta potential)

160
Q

Components of LISS

A

0.2% NaCl
Glycine (to prevent cell lysis)

161
Q

Introduced direct blood transfusion using two silver cannulae

A

James Aveling