1S [LAB]: Glossary of Terms Flashcards

Note: This DOES NOT include the full list (because the glossary is too long); selected terms only :D

1
Q

It is a situation when the ABO forward typing result does not agree with the result in backward typing

A

ABO discrepancy

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2
Q

It is the removal of a specific antibody from a mixture of antibodies using cells of known specificity

A

Absorption

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3
Q

These are chemical substances added to red cells to extend the shelf life up to 42 days

A

Additives

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4
Q

It is the production of antibody after antigenic exposure or stimulation

A

Active immunization

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5
Q

It is a rare condition characterized by the absence of antibodies

A

Agammaglobulinemia

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6
Q

It is the clumping of particulate antigens with their corresponding specific antibodies

A

Agglutination

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7
Q

It is an alternative form of a gene occupying a given locus

A

Allele

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8
Q

It is the process of collecting amniotic fluid

A

Amniocentesis

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9
Q

It is the albuminous fluid contained in an amniotic sac that provides nutrients to the developing fetud

A

Amniotic fluid

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10
Q

It is described as the silent gene that does not produce a detectable antigen

A

Amorph

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11
Q

It is known as secondary immune response, which also refers to the production of antibodies after secondary antigenic exposure

A

Anamnestic response

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12
Q

It is a severe allergic hypersensitivity reaction brought about by an antibody against IgA seen among IgA-deficient patients exposed to IgA antibody

A

Anaphylaxis

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13
Q

It occurs before birth

A

Antenatal

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14
Q

It is also known as immunoglobulin, which refers to a protein substance that is secreted by plasma cells and produced in response to antigenic stimulation

A

Antibody

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15
Q

Immune antibody against foreign antigen of the same species

A

Alloantibody

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16
Q

Antibody against its own self-antigens

A

Autoantibody

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17
Q

Antibody against its own self-antigens

A

Autoantibody

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18
Q

Also known as unexpected antibody, which refers to an antibody other than the naturally occurring anti-A and anti-B

A

Atypical antibody

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19
Q

Isoantibodies referred to as anti-A and anti-B

A

Naturally occurring antibody

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20
Q

Antibody derived from a single clone of antigen

A

Monoclonal antibody

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21
Q

Antibody derived from more than one antibody-producing plasma cells

A

Polyclonal antibody

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22
Q

These are reagents used to enhance or speed up antigen-antibody reactions

A

Antibody potentiators

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23
Q

This is used to detect immune antibodies other than the naturally occurring ones through the use of completely phenotypes group O cells

A

Antibody screening test

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24
Q

It refers to any foreign substances which, when introduced to the body, stimulates antibody production

A

Antigen

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25
Q

It describes the relative ability of a substance to illicit immune response

A

Antigenic

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26
Q

It is the table of phenotyped group O cells showing different antigens used to screen and identify immune antibody

A

Antigram

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27
Q

It is also known as “Coombs’ serum”

A

Antihuman globulin reagent (AHG)

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28
Q

It refers to a secondary antibody directed against human IgG or complement

A

Antihuman globulin reagent (AHG)

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29
Q

AHG that targets either IgG or complement C3

A

Monospecific AHG

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30
Q

AHG that targets both human IgG and complement C3

A

Polyspecific AHG

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31
Q

It is a commercially prepared reagent containing an antibody with known specificity

A

Antiserum

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32
Q

It is used to describe antigens controlled by a pair of allelic genes

A

Antithetical

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33
Q

It is a method of blood collection in which the whole blood is withdrawn and processed

A

Apheresis

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34
Q

Apheresis: removal of platelets

A

Plateletpheresis

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35
Q

Apheresis: removal of leukocytes

A

Leukapheresis

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36
Q

Apheresis: removal of plasma

A

Plasmapheresis

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37
Q

It is the process of antibody removal through the use of the patient’s own antigen

A

Autoabsorption

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38
Q

It refers to testing the patient’s serum for antibody against his/her own red cells

A

Autocontrol

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39
Q

Autocontrol is abbreviated as ___

A

PS-PR (patient serum-patient red cell)

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40
Q

It refers to the strength of an antigen-antibody reaction as influenced by characteristic features of the antigen and antibody

A

Avidity

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41
Q

These are biological substances which pose a threat to the health of living organisms, especially humans

A

Biohazard

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42
Q

It is an antibody with reactivity occurring in two phases

A

Biphasic hemolysin

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43
Q

It consists of a single bag or interconnected multiple bags with tubing used in blood donation

A

Blood bag

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44
Q

It is one of the major divisions in a hospital laboratory that provides safe blood to patients by performing blood screening, grouping, and compatibility testing

A

Blood bank

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45
Q

These refer to the different cellular and liquid compositions of blood separated by physical means

A

Blood components

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46
Q

A frozen plasma product that contains all clotting factors, usually administered to patients with clotting factor deficiencies other than hemophilia A, VWF, and hypofibrinogenemia

A

Fresh frozen plasma (FFP)

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47
Q

It is a red cell component prepared by separating the plasma from whole blood unit resulting in a hematocrit level of approximately 80%

A

Packed RBC

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48
Q

It consists of platelets removed from unrefrigerated fresh whole blood and stored for transfusion

A

Platelet concentrate

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49
Q

It is a platelet concentrate containing about 3.0 x 10^11 platelets obtained by apheresis

A

Single platelet concentrate

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50
Q

Amount of platelet in a single platelet concentrate

A

3.0 x 10^11

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51
Q

Amount of platelet in a random platelet concentrate

A

5.5 x 10^10

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52
Q

It is a platelet concentrate containing at least 5.5 x 10^10 platelets obtained manually by centrifugation

A

Random platelet concentrate

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53
Q

It is a concentrated coagulated factor VIII and factor I (fibrinogen) extracted from fresh frozen plasma

A

Cryoprecipitate

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54
Q

Components of cryoprecipitate

A

coagulated factor VIII and factor I (fibrinogen)

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55
Q

It is the blood component which includes prothrombin complexes, factor XIII, and factor VII; that is most commonly indicated in trauma, liver disease, and oral anticoagulant toxicity

A

Factor concentrate

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56
Q

Offer a rapid and relatively easy method of improving coagulation stability without the risk of FFP transfusion, volume load, or infectious complications

A

Factor concentrate

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57
Q

Coagulation factors present in a factor concentrate

A

Factors XIII, and VII

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58
Q

These are erythrocytes that are treated with a cryoprotective agent and subsequently kept in freezing temperature

A

Frozen red cells

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59
Q

These are erythrocytes that are treated by a solution which restores 2,3-DPG and ATP to at least normal levels

A

Rejuvenated cells

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60
Q

It is the application of physical mean such as refrigerated centrifugation to separate the different cellular and liquid compositions of whole blood

A

Blood component preparation

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61
Q

It is a manual blood component preparation that limits the used of blood and its components within 24 ours after exposure of the blood to open air

A

Open system

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62
Q

It is a blood component preparation that usually requires the refrigerated centrifuge

A

Closed system

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63
Q

It limits the used of blood and its components to a longer period up to the expiration date due to a sterile intact blood bag system

A

Closed system

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64
Q

It is a filter device attached to a blood or blood component unit and designed to retain unwanted cells, blood clots, or debris

A

Blood filter

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65
Q

These are soluble antigens present in fluids that can be used to neutralize their corresponding antibodies

A

Blood group specific soluble substances (BGSSs)

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66
Q

Blood group systems that demonstrate BGSSs

A

ABO, Lewis, P

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67
Q

This is the test used to determine a blood group system

A

Blood typing

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68
Q

It is a device used in warming blood stored at refrigerator temperature at 4C-6C to body temperature before infusion

A

Blood warmer

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69
Q

It is the failure of an individual to express inherited A or B genes because of the lack of H gene

A

Bombay phenotype (O^h)

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70
Q

It is the main soluble protein in the serum of the cattle that is often used as an enzymatically inter protein or a negative control

A

Bovine serum albumin

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71
Q

It is the most preferred method used for crossmatching that includes three phases: immediate spin, thermophase, and AHG phase

A

Broad spectrum compatibility test

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72
Q

It is a condition producing two cell populations in an individual

A

Chimerism

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73
Q

It is a rare condition characterized by the difficulty of the phagocytic cells to generate superoxide radicals needed in killing ingested pathogens

A

Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)

74
Q

These are substances present in the plasma, which are involved in the clotting process

A

Coagulation factor

75
Q

Coagulation factor 1

A

Fibrinogen

76
Q

Coagulation factor 2

A

Prothrombin

77
Q

Coagulation factor 3

A

Tissue factor

78
Q

Coagulation factor 4

79
Q

Coagulation factor 5

A

Proaccelerin

80
Q

Coagulation factor 6

A

Activated factor 5

81
Q

Coagulation factor 7

A

Proconvertin

82
Q

Coagulation factor 8

A

Antihemophilic factor A

83
Q

Coagulation factor 9

A

Christmas factor

84
Q

Coagulation factor 10

A

Stuart-Prower factor

85
Q

Coagulation factor 11

A

Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

86
Q

Coagulation factor 12

A

Hageman factor

87
Q

Coagulation factor 13

A

Fibrin-stabilizing factor

88
Q

It is a sequence of three bases in DNA strand that provides the genetic code for a specific amino acid

89
Q

It is a batch of tests including ABO and Rh grouping, screening of serum for alloantibodies, and crossmatching

A

Compatibility testing

90
Q

It is serologically inactive when mixed

A

Compatible

91
Q

It is a complex of plasma proteins

A

Complement

92
Q

It is the transfusion of specific components rather than whole blood to treat a patient

A

Component therapy

93
Q

These are antibody-coated cells used to confirm negative results obtained in direct and indirect antihuman globulin tests

A

Coombs’ control/ check cells

94
Q

These are blood-containing stem cells which are taken from the umbilical cord after childbirth

A

Cord cells

95
Q

It is a computed value used to evaluate the effectiveness of platelet transfusion

A

Corrected count increment (CCI)

96
Q

It is the process of exchanging genetic material between two homologous pairs of chromosomes

A

Crossing over

97
Q

It is the testing of the patient’s blood against the donor’s blood

A

Crossmatch

98
Q

It is a type of crossmatch that involves mixing the patient’s serum and the donor’s red blood cells

A

Major crossmatch (PS-DR)

99
Q

It is a type of crossmatch that involves mixing the patient’s blood cells and the donor’s serum

A

Minor crossmatch (PR-DS)

100
Q

It is a process of mixing the recipient’s serum with the donor’s red blood cells and centrifuging immediately

A

Immediate crossmatch

101
Q

It uses type and screen method coupled with immediate spin

A

Abbreviated crossmatch

102
Q

These are substances that are added to erythrocytes to protect them against the harmful effects of freezing temperature

A

Cryoprotective agent

103
Q

These are hidden receptors that may be exposed when normal erythrocyte membrane are altered by bacterial or viral enzyme

A

Cryptantigens

104
Q

It is the process of removing glycerol from a unit of RBCs after thawing to return them to normal osmolality

A

Deglycerolization

105
Q

These are frozen red cells whose glycerol has been removed by several washing

A

Deglycerolized red cells

106
Q

It is a plasma expander that may be used as a substitute for plasma

107
Q

It is a sulfhydryl compound used to break down disulfide bonds of IgM

A

Dithiotreitol (DTT)

108
Q

It is a biphasic IgG specifically directed to anti-P found in patients with PNH

A

Donath-Landsteiner antibody

109
Q

It is the process of giving blood to a recipient

110
Q

This refers to an individual who gives blood in a blood donation

111
Q

This refers to a donor who gives blood on his/her own volition

A

Voluntary blood donor

112
Q

This refers to a donor who gives blood for monetary compensation

A

Paid blood donor

113
Q

This refers to a donor who is in the list of qualified voluntary donors and is fit to donate anytime in the community

A

Walking blood donor

114
Q

It is a phenomenon whereby an antibody reacts more strongly with red blood cells showing double does of antigens than those with single dose

115
Q

It is the product of deliberate manipulation of a red cell suspension to break an immune complex with subsequent release of the antibody into the surrounding medium

116
Q

It is a process whereby cells that are coated with antibodies are treated in such a manner as to disrupt the bonds between the antigen and antibody

117
Q

It is a substance capable of catalyzing a reaction

118
Q

It is an immunologic incompatibility between the mothed and the fetus that can produce severe or fatal consequences to the unborn or newborn infant due to the destruction of RBCs

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

119
Q

Erythroblastosis fetalis is also known as ___

A

Hydrops fetalis or hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)

120
Q

It refers to the replacement of an infant’s coated RBCs with donor blood until one or two total blood volumes are accomplished

A

Exchange transfusion

121
Q

It refers to the activity in which a person is likely to get a foreign substance

122
Q

It is a transfusion reaction caused by leukoagglutinins characterized by fever

A

Febrile reaction

123
Q

It refers to the transplacental passage of fetal blood into the circulation of the maternal organism

A

Fetomaternal hemorrhage

124
Q

It is a filamentous clot formed by the action of thrombin on fibrinogen

125
Q

Fibrinolysin is also referred to as ___

126
Q

A substance that has the ability to dissolve fibrin

A

Fibrinolysin

127
Q

It is the process of dissolving fibrin

A

Fibrinolysis

128
Q

It is a type of large glycoprotein found on the surface of cells which mediates cellular adhesion

A

Fibronectin

129
Q

It is one of the five types of immunoglobulin known to be involved in immunity; produced during the second immune response

A

Gamma globulin

130
Q

The specific place on a chromosome where a gene is located

A

Gene locus

131
Q

Any of several related proteins that can project through the thickness of the cell membrane of erythrocytes

A

Glycophorin

132
Q

A condition characterized by markedly decreased leukocytes in the blood

A

Granulocytopenia

133
Q

A condition in which a patient has a shortened red blood cell survival associated with hemolysis mediated by humoral antibody

A

Immune hemolytic anemia

134
Q

Refers to the continuous red blood cell destruction leading to anemia due to the presence of autoantibodies directed against the patient’s own red blood cells

A

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia

135
Q

The red blood cell destruction due to drug-induced production of an autoantibody that recognized red blood cell antigens

A

Drug-induced hemolytic anemia

136
Q

Red blood cell destruction due to the presence of alloantibodies to foreign red cell antigens introduced to the circulation through transfusion or pregnancy

A

Alloimmune hemolytic anemia

137
Q

The test performed on a maternal blood specimen to detect fetal maternal hemorrhage

A

Kleihauer-Betke acid elution test

138
Q

It states that the ABO antibodies are present in plasma/serum when the corresponding ABO blood antigens are not present on the erythrocytes

A

Landsteiner’s law

139
Q

It is the combination of antibody and a multivalent antigen to form cross links that result in a visible agglutination reaction

A

Lattice formation

140
Q

It is a graph used to predict the severity of HDN during pregnancy by evaluating the amniotic fluid

A

Liley graph

141
Q

It is the location of a gene on a chromosome

142
Q

The replacement of one or more blood volumes within 24-hour interval

A

Massive transfusion

143
Q

Cells that usually demonstrate mixed field reaction

A

A3 cells, Sda cells

144
Q

It is the term for a woman having borne more than one child

A

Multiparous

145
Q

A malignant neoplasm of the bone marrow characterized by abnormal proteins in the plasma and urine

A

Multiple myeloma

146
Q

The fusion of a malignant and normal cell that produces large quantities of monoclonal antibodies

A

Murine hybridoma

147
Q

A group of sugars found on the RBC membrane attached to a protein backbone

A

NANA (sialic acid)

148
Q

An enzyme that cleaves sialic acid from the RBC membrane

A

Neuramidase

149
Q

The spontaneous clumping of RBC against a given serum

A

Panagglutination

150
Q

The group O reagent RBC that are used for antibody identification

A

Panel cell

151
Q

Refers to a woman who has had at least one pregnancy

A

Primiparous

152
Q

The chance that the alleged father is the biological father

A

Paternity index

153
Q

The extra blood sample collected during whole blood donation from a donor and which is intended for serological test

A

Pilot tube

154
Q

Products that are transfused in patients suffering from hypovolemia or indicated among burn and shock patients

A

Plasma volume expanders

155
Q

A condition of decreased plasma volume

A

Hypovolemia

156
Q

The inability of the patient to respond favorably after platelet transfusion; thus, the desired increment in platelet is not achieved

A

Platelet refractoriness

157
Q

Identify the plasma derived volume expander:

96% albumin + 4% globulin

A

Normal serum albumin (NSA)

158
Q

Identify the plasma derived volume expander:

83% albumin + 17% globulin

A

Plasma protein fraction (PPF)

159
Q

The spontaneous agglutination of red cells by most normal adult sera regardless of blood group

A

Polyagglutination

160
Q

A positively-charged polymer that reduces zeta potential by neutralizing the negative charge in red cell

161
Q

Useful in the identification of antibodies in the Kidd blood group system

162
Q

Enhances antigen-antibody reaction by concentrating antibody in the mixture through removal of water

A

Polyethylene glycol (PEG)

163
Q

A system of procedures that ensures a laboratory is operating with the most minimal errors

A

Quality assurance

164
Q

The close monitoring of laboratory operations to allow maximum reliability transfusion

A

Quality control

165
Q

The disease of unknown cause most frequently seen among premature infants characterized by acute difficulty in breathing

A

Respiratory distress syndrome

166
Q

Respiratory distress syndrome is formerly known as ___

A

Hyaline membrane disease

167
Q

Used to determine fetomaternal hemorrhage based on the ability of fetal cells to aggregate around indicator cells

A

Rosette test

168
Q

Additional bags attached to the primary bag generally intended for component preparation

A

Satellite bags

169
Q

The group O cells with complete profile of antigens used in antibody detection

A

Screening cells

170
Q

The process of allowing interaction or attachment of an incomplete antibody to red cell antigen but there is no subsequent agglutination reaction seen

A

Sensitization

171
Q

A chemical preservative used in commercial typing sera to prevent bacterial contamination

A

Sodium azide (0.1%)

172
Q

The biochemical change happening to blood upon in vitro storage

A

Storage lesion

173
Q

Refers to the boundary of the ionic cloud surrounding RBC in saline at which zeta potential is measured

A

Surface of shear (slipping plane)

174
Q

A reagent that can be used to disperse agglutination caused by cold reactive IgM autoantibodies

A

Thiol reagent

175
Q

A batch test that includes ABO, Rh, and antibody screening test

A

Type and screen (T/S)

176
Q

The vascular skin reaction commonly signaling allergic reaction

A

Urticaria (hives)

177
Q

The plasma cell dyscrasia characterized by excessive production of IgM

A

Waldenstrom’s macroglobulinemia

178
Q

The period of time when the disease is present but tested serologically negative

A

Window period

179
Q

A soluble haptenic forms of A ad B antigens capable of neutralizing their corresponding antibodies

A

Witebsky substance

180
Q

The blood group whose genes are located in the X-chromosome

A

Xg blood group

181
Q

A mixture of 0.1M dithiothreitol plus 0.1% cysteine-activated papain used to dissociate IgG molecules from erythrocytes showing a positive DAT reaction