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704 > 1_Intro to Nervous System > Flashcards

1_Intro to Nervous System Flashcards

1
Q

What are 2 levels of analysis?

A

Segmental vs. suprasegmental Segmental= (a cross-sectional component of the brainstem or spinal cord containing neural inputs and outputs. ) suprasegmental= (spinal, medullary, midbrain, and cortical)

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2
Q

What is the emergent property

A

consciousness (an example b/c the act of thinking, emerges from the unified actions of various parts of the brain. *the structure and function of lower levels of the system cannot explain the function and structure of higher levels)

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3
Q

What is distributed control?

A

coordination of differing activities

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4
Q

Redundant representations are __________________?

A

Different sensory modalities used to describe one object (i.e. an orange)

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5
Q

What are parallel and serial processes?

A

Multiple levels of analysis vs. ascending information. Serial processing: info traveling up or down through the levels of the system. Parallel processing: different inputs (thing of orange example) processed by different sensory systems, but messages about them may be received by the brain simultaneously along different parallel pathways.

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6
Q

What are two types of feedback?

A

positive and negative (various pathways connect one nerve cell to the next cells but also to previous nerve cells, giving a cell the opportunity to affect the activity of an earlier cell in the pathway.)

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7
Q

What type of processing is integration?

A

parallel processing

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8
Q

What is considered adaptation?

A

learning, re-learning, development processes, plasticity

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9
Q

What is columnar organization?

A

development aspect of motor vs sensory [“many parts of the nervous system are organized in vertical columns, particularly the older areas. Ex: groups of cells involved in taste form a long column in the base of the brain. Also, in the base of the brain, the group of cells that control eye movements are located one above the other, in a broken column (discontinuous)”]

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10
Q

How are convergence and divergence used?

A

Used in integration and refinement of stimuli.

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11
Q

Afferent designates _____ connections. Efferent designates _____ connections.

A

incoming outgoing

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12
Q

“In this sense, a central nervous system neuron can be ____ afferent and/or efferent

A

BOTH

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13
Q

The spinal cord and brain develop from what?

A

Neural tube

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14
Q

The majority of the Peripheral Nervous System (PNS) develops from the (1)______ ____. And includes the (2)______ _____ _____ that are the cell bodies for all of the sensory side of the (3)______ _______ ______, (4) ______ _____, and the (5)________ of the autonomic nervous system.

A
  1. neural crest 2. dorsal root ganglia 3. Peripheral nervous system 4. Schwann cells 5. ganglia
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15
Q

Schwann cells are myelinating cells of the peripheral nervous system, BOTH sensory and motor, true or false?

A

True

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16
Q

What additional structures (beyond the PNS) are neural crest cells responsible for generating?

A

Melanocytes in stratum basale of the epidermis.

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17
Q

What 4 plates is the developing neural tube divided into?

A
  1. roof 2. floor 3. alar 4. basal
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18
Q

The alar plate is located ____ to sulcus limitans and forms the _____ and _______ association part of the developing neural tube.

A

dorsal sensory association

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19
Q

The basal plate lies _____ to the sulcus limitans and forms the _____ part of the developing neural tube, including both _____ and _____ motor neurons

A

anterior motor alpha gamma

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20
Q

Do the roof and floor plates generate neuronal components?

A

NO (none to speak of)

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21
Q

What is the name of the groove (oriented in the coronal plane) that separates the wall of the neural tube?

A

sulcus limitans

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22
Q

How far is this dividing line present in the developing cord and into the brainstem?

A

Only as far as the developing MINDBRAIN.

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23
Q

The developing neural tube expands at the _____ end into three primary vesicles: ____________, _______________, and ____________.

A

rostral rhombencephalon MESencephalon prosencephalon

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24
Q

The rhombencephalon expands to secondary vesicles ______ and ______.

A

MYelenchephalon METencephalon

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25
Q

The prosencephalon expands to second vesicles ______ and ______.

A

DIEncephalon TELencephalon

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26
Q

The MYelencephalon includes the _____?

A

medulla

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27
Q

The METencephalon includes the _____?

A

pons and cerebellum

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28
Q

The MESencephalon includes the _____?

A

midbrain

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29
Q

The diencephalon includes the _____?

A

thalamus and hypothalamus

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30
Q

The telencephalon includes the _____?

A

cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia

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31
Q

What does the development and expansion of the secondary brain vesicles result in?

A

The formation of the brain and brainstem.

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32
Q

What does the spinal cord form from?

A

The remainder of the neural tube

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33
Q

What expands with the developing vesicles to form the ventricular system?

A

Lumen of the neural tube

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34
Q

The lumen of the neural tube is also continuous with the __________________________, a remnant of the neural tube.

A

central canal of the spinal canal.

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35
Q

At what embryological level are the two lateral ventricles located?

A

Telencephalon

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36
Q

A third unpaired ventricle is located in the ___________.

A

Diencephalon

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37
Q

The fourth ventricle is located in the ________ and ________ below the _________.

A

pons and medulla below the cerebellum.

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38
Q

What does the longitudinal fissure divide?

A

cerebral hemispheres.

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39
Q

What does the transverse fissure divide?

A

Separates the cerebrum from the cerebellum.

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40
Q

The frontal and parietal lobes are divided by the __________________.

A

central sulcus

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41
Q

The central sulcus is also the landmark separating the _______________________________________.

A

pre and poscentral gyri primary motor and sensory cortices

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42
Q

The paracentral lobule is the ________________________.

A

midline extension of the pre and postcentral gyri

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43
Q

Which sulcus divides the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal lobes?

A

Lateral sulcus

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44
Q

An “imaginary” line between which to areas separates the occipital lobe from the parietal and temporal lobes.

A

parieto-occipital notch and preoccipital notch

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45
Q

The calcarine sulcus marks which area?

A

The primary visual cortex; separating the cuneus and lingual gyri

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46
Q

Which two lobes does the parieto-occipital sulcus seperate?

A

Midline part of the occipital lobe from the parietal lobe.

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47
Q

The cingulate sulcus is also know as a

A

midline sulcus

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48
Q

List 11 structures that are best seen on a midsagittal view of the brain:

A

1) corpus callosum 2) fornix 3) anterior commisure 4) lamina terminalis 5) interventricular foramen 6) thalamus 7) hypothalamus 8) midbrain or mesencephalon 9) pons 10) medulla 11) cerebellum

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49
Q

What does the lamina terminalis mark?

A

the closure of the anterior neuropore

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50
Q

Which cranial nerve is level with the thalamus?

A

CN II

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51
Q

Which cranial nerves are level with the mesencephalon?

A

CN III, IV

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52
Q

The corpora quadrigemina is made up of what fours structures?

A

The four colliculi: 2 inferior (hearing) 2 superior (vision)

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53
Q

Where is the corpora quadrigemina located?

A

On the tectum of the dorsal aspect of the midbrain.

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54
Q

What is the function of the corpora quadrigemina?

A

Reflex centers involving vision and hearing

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55
Q

What cranial nerves are level with the pons?

A

CN V, VI, VII

56
Q

What cranial nerves are level with the medulla?

A

CN VIII, IX, X, XI, XII

57
Q

What are the three layers of connective tissue for the CNS?

A

1) dura 2) arachnoid 3) pia

58
Q

True or false: Not all layers are continuous around the brain and spinal cord?

A

False: ALL three of the coverings are continuous around the brain and spinal cord (** w/ exception of the dural periosteal layer)

59
Q

Which menigeal layer is the most external and toughest?

A

Dural

60
Q

What are the two layers of the dura mater?

A

1) periosteal (directly under the skull) 2) meningeal

61
Q

What does enfolding of the meningeal layer result in?

A

The formation of openings between the two layers of the dura

62
Q

What do the dural sinuses function as?

A

Outflow pathways for venous blood and CSF

63
Q

The enfoldings are also attached to the inside of the _______ and help anchor the brain.

A

calvaria

64
Q

These attachments are extremely rigid, such that when space occupying lessions (tumors or bleeding) are present, they cause _______________.

A

Herniations

65
Q

What is the result of cranial herniation?

A

the brain tissue is squeezed and the function is compromised.

66
Q

Which layer of the dura is found only in the cranial cavity? What does this layer fuse with?

A

The periosteal dura. Fuses with the periosteum of the skull at the foramen magnum.

67
Q

The meningeal layer is continuous into the ____________ and covers the ____________.

A

vertebral canal and covers the spinal cord

68
Q

Name 3 structures of the dura:

A

1) falx cerebri 2) tentorium 3) tentorial notch

69
Q

What does the falx cerebri separate?

A

the cerebral hemispheres

70
Q

What does the tentoriium cerebelli separate?

A

the cerebral hemispheres from the cerebellum, also limiting the posterior cranial fossa.

71
Q

Where is the tentorial notch located?

A

at the opening in the tentorium cerebelli; surrounding the brainstem (midbrain) as it passes out of the middle cranial fossa into the posterior cranial fossa

72
Q

Where is the superior sagittal sinus located?

A

on the superior edge of the falx cerebri

73
Q

where is the inferior sagittal sinus located?

A

on the inferior edge of the falx cerebri

74
Q

What does the straight sinus connect?

A

the inferior and superior sagittal sinuses across the tentorial cerebelli

75
Q

What is considered the confluens of sinuses

A

the point posteriorly on tentorium cerebelli where the straight sinus and transverse sinuses join.

76
Q

Where does the transverse sinus carry venous blood?

A

toward the internal jugular vein (sinus located at the posterior edge of tentorium cerebelli)

77
Q

What is the sigmoid sinus continuous with?

A

the internal jugular vein through the jugular foramen

78
Q

Describe herniations:

A

the “squeezing” of nervous tissue through an opening such as the tentorial notch

79
Q

What are 3 common sites for herniation?

A

1) subfalcine (cingulate gyrus under the falx cerebri) 2) transtentorial or uncal (uncus through the tentorium cerebelli) 3) tonsillar (cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum)

80
Q

What is embedded between 2 layers of the dura matter?

A

Blood vessels supplying the meninges

81
Q

What is the most important blood vessel within the meningies?

A

Middle meningeal artery

82
Q

When a skull fracture tears the middle meningeal artery, an arterial blood accumulating between the dura mater and the skull is called an ______________________.

A

epidural hematoma (actually separates periosteal and meningeal layers)

83
Q

The arachnoid mater is described as a _________ and ____________ membrane.

A

delicate and non-vascular

84
Q

Describe the two layers that make up the arachnoid mater: the continuous and discontiuous.

A

continuous layer: directly opposed (but not attached) to the meningeal layer of the dura discontinuous: consisting of attachments from the outer arachnoid layer to the pia mater ( arachnoid trabeculae)

85
Q

What is termed as the potential space b/n the dura and the arachnoid?

A

subdural space

86
Q

Veins carrying blood from the brain “bridge” across this potential space to empty into the _______________.

A

Dural venous sinuses

87
Q

Can a traumatic occurrence such as whiplash cause these bridging veins to be torn due to shearing forces?

A

Yes, true.

88
Q

True or false: The arachnoid and dura are attached.

A

False: these layers are NOT attached

89
Q

Vensous bleeding into the space between the dura and arachnoid is termed:

A

subdural hematoma

90
Q

What are small extensions of the arachnoid membrane that can be identified along the superior sagital sinus termed?

A

arachnoid granulations

91
Q

What do arachnoid granulations protrude through?

A

protrude through (and extend) into the superior sagittal sinus.

92
Q

What do the arachnoid granulations function as?

A

“one-way” gate for uptake of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) into the venous vascular drainage of the brain

93
Q

Pia matter is also thought of as __________.

A

a vascular component

94
Q

The ______ dura layer is directly opposed to the brain itself

A

pia

95
Q

The pia follows the _____________________ into the brain parenchyma until the capillary beds.

A

penetrating branches of arterioles

96
Q

What is the space between the pia amd arachnoid maters?

A

subarachnoid space

97
Q

Cisterns are known as

A

enlarged areas of subarachnoid space

98
Q

Name 6 cranial cisterns:

A

1) Cistern magna (cerebellomedullary) 2) interpeduncular 3) pontine 4) Cerebellopontine 5) superior 6) lumbar

99
Q

What can be other structures can be found in the subarachnoid space?

A

arterial and venous branches

100
Q

True or false: Bleeding in this region is termed a subarachnoid hemorrhage and can be either arterial or venous.

A

True

101
Q

List 4 potential causes of subarachnoid hemorrhage:

A

1) trauma 2) arteriovenous (AV) malformations 3) stroke 4) aneurysm

102
Q

After a lumbar puncture what can be identified in the CSF?

A

blood elements

103
Q

What are the 2 layers of the pia matter?

A

1) pia intima (adhered tightly to the spinal cord 2) denticulate ligaments

104
Q

What is the function of the denticulate ligament?

A

crossing the subarachnoid space, piercing the arachnoid mater and attaching to the dura.

105
Q

Is the spinal cord anchored within the spinal canal?

A

Yes, because in part due to the denticulate ligaments

106
Q

Ventricles are cavities within the central nervous system, derived developmentally from the _____ ______.

A

neural tube

107
Q

Lateral ventricle occur in each of the two cerebral hemispheres. They are continuous with a single midline third ventricle through the interventricular foramen (Monro). This third ventricle occurs on the midline in the sagittal plane and is continuous caudally with the __________________________ in the midbrain

A

cerebral aqueduct of Sylvius

108
Q

Where does the cerebral aqueduct empty into?

A

The fourth ventricle of the pons and medulla.

109
Q

The fourth ventricle is continuous with the remnants of the _____________ of the ____________.

A

central canal of the spinal cord.

110
Q

How does the ventricle communicate with the subararchnoid space?

A

Through the lateral apertures and one midline aperture

111
Q

the lateral aperatures aka:

A

foramina luschka

112
Q

the midline aperture aka:

A

foramen of magendie

113
Q

What do the aperatures allow the CSF to do?

A

to leave the ventricular system and enter the subarachnoid space.

114
Q

After CSF has entered the subarachnoid space, it then enters:

A

the venous system via the dural sinuse

115
Q

What secretes cerebral sinus fluid?

A

ependymal cells that line the ventricular system

116
Q

What is the ventricular lining of the choroid plexus?

A

capillary beds that extend into all four ventricles

117
Q

Where and how is CSF produces?

A

Where: in the subarachnoid space

How: by capillary beds in the meninges

118
Q

Name two functions of CSF:

A

1) reduces teh relative mass of the brain
2) cushions it

119
Q

At what rate is CSF continuously produced at?

A

500 ml/day

120
Q

True or false: There is a feedback mechanism to shut down the production of CSF.

A

False: There is NO feedback system to shut down production

121
Q

What is the result of the there not being a feedback mechanism?

A

Any blockage of the flow of CSF results in th build up of interventricular pressure and/or intracranial pressure.

122
Q

What is obstructive hydrocephalus:

A

results from blockage of normal flow of CSF out of the ventricular system.

123
Q

What is a common place for obstructive hydrocephalus to occur?

A

in the interventricular foramen, cerebral aqueduct and the outflow from the fourth ventricle

124
Q

Describe communicating hyrocephalus:

A

results from absorption or circulation problems with CSF.

ex: any abnormality in the ability of CSF to exit the arachnoid granulations such as extremely high venous pressure in the superior sagittal sinus.

125
Q

The blood brain barrier is composed of a series of _________ components coupled with __________ properties

A

morphological components coupled with physiological properties

126
Q

How are the endothelial cells of the blood capillaries in the central nervous system joined?

A

tight junctions

127
Q

The tight junctions aide in forming a barrier that allows for what?

A

selective exchange of only small molecules

128
Q

True or false: Large proteins, e.g. antibiotics, are restricted from crossing the blood-brain barrier.

A

True

129
Q

Are substances such as glucose and amino acids actively OR passively transported across the barrier?

A

Actively; for the nourishment of the CNS

130
Q

Which cellular processes are endothelial cells opposed to?

A

cellular processes of glial cells

131
Q

How do glial cells control the permeability of the endothelial cells?

A

By influencing the physiology of endothelial cell membranes

132
Q

What happens when glial cells are disrupted as in a pathological condition?

A

They no longer control the endothelial cells AND the barrier is made more permeable

133
Q

Why must the barrier be patent (present or patient?) at all times?

A

Because neurons do not have storage capability.

134
Q

True or false: the barrier is selective in its activity.

A

True

135
Q

What do areas of high activty show?

A

The highest uptake of necessary substances

136
Q

What has experimental evidence that follows the uptake of radioactively labeled copmounds such as glucose demonstrated?

A

An increase in perfusion rate of the capillary beds in areas of greater physiological activity along with the greatest areas of O2 uptake.

137
Q

What does radioactively labled compound imaging allow for?

A

an “on-going” view of the CNS with areas of higher glucose or O2 activity indicating areas most involved as tasks are being performed.

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