Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

random > 13 > Flashcards

13 Flashcards

1
Q

fixed flexion of DIP and hyperextension of PIP

A

swan neck deformity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

unable to move a swollen index finger cause

A

tendon sheath infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what can leflunomide cause

A

interstitial lung disease (need to be off for 2 years befor pregnancy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what can sulfasalazine cause

A

reduced sperm, neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what can hydroxychoroquine cause

A

eye problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what indicates active RA

A

DAS>5.1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what type of drug is allopurinol

A

xanthine oxidase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what HLA is RA

A

HLA DR4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are the 3 zones of the adrenal cortex

A

outermost-zona glomerulosa=mineralocorticoids eg aldosterone
then zona fasciculara=glucocorticoids
then zona reticularis=sex steroids and glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is in the adrenal medulla

A

chromaffin cells which secrete catecholamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

low sodium, high potassium, palmer hyperpigmentation

A

addisons disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is bowens disease and where is it found

A

SCC in situ, red scaly patch on leg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

describe typical features of BCC

A

pearly border, picket fence, slow growing, non healing ulcer, teleangectasia, these rarely metstasise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

where are eccrine glands found

A

entire body surface except clitoris, labia minora, external ear canal, high density on soles and palms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where are apocrine glands found

A

in axillae, nipples, labia, glans penis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the angle in glaucoma

A

iridocorneal angle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

which canal gets blocked in glaucoma

A

canal of schlemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the features on fundoscopy for primary open angle glaucoma

A

optic disc cupping, cup to disc ratio >0.7, optic disc pallor, bayonetting of vessels, cup notching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

mid diastolic murmur with tapping, undisplaced apex, best heard left lateral position using bell

A

mitral stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

ejection systolic murmur, radiating to neck

A

aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

systolic murmur radiates to axilla

A

mitral regurg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

best heard when patient sits up, lean forward and fully expires at left side of lower part of sternum

A

aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is tardive dyskinesia

A

repetitive involuntary purposeless movements, grimacing, sticking tongue out, lip smacking, pursing lips, blinking, may take years to develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is acute dystonic reaction

A

takes hours or days to develop-muscle spasms, treated with acetylcholine inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what are the side effects of antipsychotics

A 
weight gain 
sedation 
metabolic syndrome-increase diabetes, increase MI, increase BP
hyperprolactinaemia 
antimuscarinic
neuroleptic malignant syndrome-pyrexia, rigidity, tachycardia
decrease seizure threshold
sexual dysfunction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

pyrexia, rigidity, tachycardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

D2 blockade in the nigrostraital area causes

A

Parkinsonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

D2 blockade in the ventrotegmental area causes

A

hyperprolactinaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

how often does clozapine need check

A

weekly for first 6 months, fortnightly for next 6 months, monthly thereafter
1 month after cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what do you check for monitoring of unfracitoned heparin

A

APTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what can myelodysplasia progress to

A

AML

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

mild learning difficulty IQ

A

50-69

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

moderate learning difficulty IQ

A

35-49

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the triad in ASD

A

social interaction, communication impairment, rigid restricted/repetitive behaviours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is agoraphobia

A

fairly well-defined cluster of phobias embracing fears of leaving home, entering shops, crowds, public places/travelling along, buses or planes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

specific phobia

A

marked and persistent fear that is excessive or unreasonable cued by presence or anticipation of a specific object or situation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

describe social anxiety disorder

A

fear that they will act in a way that will be embarrassing/humiliating, common symptoms=blushing/shaking, fear of vomiting, urgency or fear of micturition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

describe brain changes in social phobia

A

increased bilateral activation of the amygdala and increase rCBF to the amygdala and related limbic areas that normalize on successful treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

is ASD strongly inheritable

A

yes, commonly relatives affected (broader phenotype), 20% of siblings will meet diagnostic criteria, no single gene identified
generally considered global inherent deficit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is the criteria for generalized anxiety disorder

A

needs to be severe enough to be long lasting (most days for at least 6 months), not controllable, causing significant distress/impairment in function
90% are co-morbid with another psychiatric disorder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the cognitive symptoms of anxiety

A

fear of losing control, difficulty concentraing, feeling objects are unreal-derealisation, hypervigilance, racing thoughts, metaworry, health anxiety

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

how do benzos work

A

cause hyperpolarizaiton of cells, they are GABAa agonists so they increase the inhibition actions of GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what is the antagonist of benzos

A

flumazenil

44
Q

what are the positive symptoms in schizophrenia

A

hallucination, delusions, passivity phenomena, disorder of thought form

45
Q

negative symptoms schizophrenia

A

decrease in speech, decreased motivation, decrease interest/pleasure, decrease social interaction, restricted range of affect (blunting)

46
Q

what can be used to help with diagnosis of ADHD

A

school reports, screening questionairres-SDQ, DAWBA, structured diagnostic questionnaire-Conners Rating Scale, ADHD rating scale

47
Q

how does ritalin work

A

it improves dopaminergic neurotransmission in networks involved in executive functioning-PFC

48
Q

what are the side effects of ritalin

A

usually minor can decrease appetite and sleep

49
Q

what is the diagnostic criteria for OCD

A

obsessional symptoms/compulsions must be present on most days for at least 2 weeks and be a source of distress and interference with activities
obsessions must be individuals own thoughts
resistance must be present
rituals are unpleasant
obsessional thoughts/images/impulses must be repetitive

50
Q

name some obsessions

A

contamination, fear of harm (eg looking doors), order/symmetry, obsessions with body/physical symptoms, religious/blasphemous thoughts, sexual thoughts

51
Q

name some compulsions

A

checking, cleaning and washing, repeating acts, mental compulsions eg special words in a set order, ordering,symmetrical exactness

52
Q

when does OCD tend to come on

A

mena age 20

53
Q

is there a gender bias/socioeconomic status affect on OCD epidemiology

A

no

54
Q

difference in onset of OCD in females and males

A

males 13-15, females 24-25

55
Q

times of onset for males and females in schizophrenia

A

15-25 for men, 25-35 for women

56
Q

what are bad prognostic indicators for schizophrenia

A 
early age of diagnosis
male
poor premorbid adjustment 
insidious onset
cognitive impairment
enlargement of ventricles
57
Q

what are the 3 categories of SZ

A

paranoid, hebephrenic, catatonic

58
Q

what is paranoid SZ

A

commonest type, hallucinations and or delusions prominent

59
Q

what is hebephrenic SZ

A

age of onset 15-25, poor prognosis, fluctuating affect, prominent with fleeting fragmented delusions and hallucinations

60
Q

what is catatonic SZ

A

characterised by stupor, posturing, waxy flexibility and negativism

61
Q

describe juvenile myoclonus epilepsy

A

onset in teenage years of myoclonic jerks and generalized seizures
typical precipitants-alcohol and sleep deprivation
symptoms tend to be worse in mornings
EEG shows characteristic 3-5Hz polyspike and wave pattern

62
Q

treatment of juvenile myoclonus epilepsy

A

sodium valproate and levetriacetam

63
Q

what is dystonia

A

prolonged muscle contractions causing abnormal posture or repetitive movements

64
Q

what is the most common type of dystonia

A

torsion dystonia=dystonia musculorum deformans which is a generalised dystonia

65
Q

describe the features of generalized/tonic dystonia

A

onset typically in childhood, dystonia in one leg, spreading to that side of the body over 5-10 years
autosomal dominant inheritance deletion in DYT1

66
Q

what is the gene involved in dystonia

A

DYST1 deletion

67
Q

how do you treat generalized dystonia

A

deep brain stimulation-a surgical procedure

68
Q

how do you treat focal dystonia

A

botulin toxin

69
Q

what is myotonia

A

failure of muscles to relax

70
Q

myotonia is due to a channopathy where

A

in the chloride channel

71
Q

describe features of smooth muscle

A

cells not striated, single cell nucleus, gap junctions between cells, significant CT around them, no sarcomere, actin myosin ratio 10:1

72
Q

where are the antibodies against in myasthenia gravis

A

to the acetylcholine receptors

73
Q

what do the antibodies in myasthenia gravis do

A

block binding of Ach but also trigger inflammatory cascade that damages the fold of postsynaptic membrane

74
Q

how do you treat myasthenia gravis

A

acetylcholinesterase inhibitor, pyridostigmine

75
Q

changes to breast tissue in menstrual cycle (luteal phase)

A

increase in height of epithelial cells, secretions lining ducts increase and lumina of ducts enlarge

76
Q

changes to breast tissue in first trimester

A

elongation and branching of smaller ducts combined with proliferation of epithelial cells of the glands and myoepithelial cells

77
Q

changes to breast tissue 2nd trimester

A

glandular tissue increase and secretory alveoli increase

plasma cells and lymphocytes infiltrate nearby connective tissue

78
Q

breast tissue changes 3rd trimester

A

secretory alveoli continue to mature, development of extensive rER,

79
Q

how does connective tissue and adipose tissue change in pregnancy

A

adipose tissue and connective tissue decreases

80
Q

how are lipids transported

A

apocrine secretion

81
Q

how are proteins transported

A

merocrine secretion

82
Q

breast tissue after menopause

A

secretory cells of TDLU degenerate leaving only ducts. In CT there are fewer fibroblasts, decreased collagen and elastic fibres

83
Q

what is the proposed pathophysiology for MND

A

decreased activity of excitatory amino acid transported EAAT2 which mops up glutamate so get excess glutamate that’s toxic

84
Q

what are the 4 types of MND

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
primary lateral sclerosis
progressive bulbar palsy
progressive muscular atrophy

85
Q

describe ALS

A

this is the most common type, with UMN and LMN features

disease of lateral corticospinal tracts

86
Q

describe primary lateral sclerosis

A

least common, causes only UMN symptoms, due to loss of Betz cells, there is no cognitive decline

87
Q

describe progressive muscular atrophy

A

only LMN signs, tends to affect mostly men, develops into ALS

88
Q

describe progressive bulbar

A

more common in women, always generalization into ALS

89
Q

what is kennedys syndrome

A

X linked bulbar and spinal muscular atrophy, no UMN, also develop sensory loss in feet and hands, may have enlargement of male breasts/develop non insulin dependent DM

90
Q

what is another name for RAPD

A

Marcus Gunn pupil

91
Q

what happens in RAPD

A

on swinging light to the affected eye it dilates

92
Q

what are the causes of RAPD

A

large retinal detachment, central retinal artery/ optic nerve ischaemia, optic neuritis, compression, asymmetrical glaucoma

93
Q

where does the base of stapes fit into

A

oval window

94
Q

what can spontatneous intracranial hypotension be caused by

A

rare cause of headache that results from CSF leak
risk factors eg CTD, marfans
headache generally worse when upright

95
Q

what can an increase in nuchal translucency be due to

A

downs, abdo wall defects, congenital heart defects

96
Q

what are the SE of ECT

A

headache, nausea, short term memory impairment, memory loss prior to ECT, cardiac arrhythmia

97
Q

what foods do you need to avoid in pregnancy

A

unpasteruised milk, ripened soft cheeses eg camembert, brie, blue cheese, pate/undercooked meat
avoid raw/partially cooked eggs and no liver as high in vit A which is teratogenic

98
Q

when is booking visit

A

8-12 weeks

99
Q

describeinternuclear opthalmoplegia

A

due to lesion in medial longitudinal fasciculus for conjugate eye movement
impairment of ADDuction of ipsilateral eye, contralateral eye abducts but with nystagmus

100
Q

describe eye in CN VI palsy

A

eye doesn’t abduct, innervation of lateral rectus
gaze naturally in esotropia
medially rotated eye which cannot be abducted past the midline

101
Q

25 year old male with PCKD presents with headache and dilated left pupil unreactive to light and opthalmoplegia

A

CN III due to posterior communicating artery aneursym

102
Q

what is the synctiotrophoblasts

A

the outer cells of the trophoblast that are multinucleate and invade decidua to break down capillaries to from cavities filled with maternal blood

103
Q

what are the drugs used in non Hogdkin lymphoma

A 
rituiximb 
cyclophosphamide 
doxorubicin (hydroxydaunomycin)
vincristine (oncovin)
prednisolone
104
Q

what are triptans

A

specific 5-HT1 agonists used in the acute treatment of migraine
should be taken asap after onset of headache rather than onset of aura

105
Q

side effects of triptans

A

tingling, heat, tightness eg throat, chest, heaviness, pressure

106
Q

contraindications to triptans

A

history of IHD

random (15 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions