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M11 Consolidation > 11.05.1 Instruments > Flashcards

11.05.1 Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What instruments form the basic T?

A
  • Altimeter
  • Attitude Direction Indicator (ADI)
  • Airspeed Indicator (ASI)
  • Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
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2
Q

What is meant by the term, International Standard Atmosphere (ISA)?

A

It is a model for the standardised pressure, temperature, density and viscosity of the Earth’s atmosphere

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3
Q

What is the static pressure at sea level in the standard atmosphere?

A

1013.25 hpa

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4
Q

What static pressure setting is used to indicate airfield elevation?

A

QNH

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5
Q

With an aneroid bellows meter, what is significant about small pressure changes at low and high flight altitudes?

A

At low levels there is a small indicated height change, but at high levels there are large indicated height changes

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6
Q

Setting an altimeter to QFE provides the pilot with what information?

A

The height of the aircraft at the current location with respect to the underlying ground surface

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7
Q

Why are altimeters set to the standard baro setting during cruise flight?

A

This enables all aircraft to maintain vertical separation following clearance from ATC

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8
Q

What two factors, external to the aircraft, can give rise to variations in indicated altitude?

A
  • Flying through areas of differing air pressure

- Variations of air temperature

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9
Q

The difference between total and static pressure is known as what?

A

Dynamic pressure

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10
Q

What is the limitation of indicated airspeed (IAS)?

A

It’s an indication of the real speed of the aircraft at mean sea level with standard conditions

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11
Q

How is true airspeed (TAS) derived?

A

It is calculated from EAS by replacing the standard air density with the real air density. TAS increases with altitude

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12
Q

What are the following speed limits:

  • VSO
  • VS1
  • VFE
  • VNO
  • VNE
A
  • VSO = Stall speed in landing configuration, gear and flaps down
  • VS1 = Stall speed in clean configuration, maximum weight
  • VFE = Maximum allowable speed with flaps extended
  • VNO = Maximum airspeed in cruise flight
  • VNE = Maximum allowed airpseed
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13
Q

What is the difference between VNE and VMO?

A
  • VNE is used for piston aircraft and is a fixed value

- VMO, Maximum Operating Velocity, depends on the dynamic pressure acting on the aircraft structure at low levels

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14
Q

What is the basic operation of a vertical speed indicator (VSI)?

A
  • The internal bellows of the instrument is connected to the aircraft static line
  • Bellows expand and contract with changes in altitude, moving a pointer accordingly
  • When the vertical change stops, the pressure differential between the bellows and the inside of the instrument equalises (through metered orifice)
  • Pointer then moves back to the centre position
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15
Q

What allows the pressure equalisation to take place in the operation of the VSI?

A
  • Calibrated metering unit
  • Capillary tube
  • Capillary orifice
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16
Q

What is the difference between a VSI and an IVSI?

A

An IVSI has an internal spring-loaded piston, which responds to positive and negative gravitational forces during the initial stages of an aircraft’s changes of vertical movement. This provides instant height change indication

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17
Q

What is used to display the ratio of an aircrafts true air speed and the actual speed of sound?

A

A mach meter

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18
Q

What is Static Source Error (SSE)?

A

The difference between the measured and real static pressure

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19
Q

What is important about the condition of static port surfaces?

A

They must be kept clean and smooth to prevent disturbance of the airflow

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20
Q

What must be done to static ports when the aircraft is being washed or painted?

A

The static ports must be covered/blanked to prevent the ports getting blocked

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21
Q

What must be considered for the location of static ports?

A

Must be located in an area of smooth airflow allowing undisturbed measurement of the static air pressure

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22
Q

What influences SSE?

A
  • Fuselage shape
  • Airspeed
  • Flap position
  • Angle of attack
  • Flap and gear position also have an influence
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23
Q

What flight condition can affect measured static pressure?

A

Sideslip manoeuvre

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24
Q

What can be done to compensate for the error in measured static pressure due to sideslip?

A

The installation of a second static port and cross-porting them together

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25
Q

How is pitot pressure measured?

A

It is measured by a pitot tube pointing into the airstream and directing the pressure along tubes to the instruments/pressure indicators

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26
Q

Where, on aircraft, are pitot tubes located?

A
  • Selected by manufacturer so that undisturbed air pressure can be measured
  • For military aircraft, at the nose
  • For small aircraft below the front of the wing
  • For large aircraft, generally at the front of the aircraft
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27
Q

why must the leading edge of the pitot tube be free from deformation and damage?

A

To ensure the airflow is unaffected

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28
Q

What prevents water and foreign objects from entering the pitot pressure line?

A

By fitting the tube with a baffle

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29
Q

How is any water or dust particles that have entered the pitot tube removed?

A

Through a drain hole at the lowest point of the tube

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30
Q

Why do pitot tubes have heaters?

A

To prevent the formation of ice under certain flight conditions , blocking the airflow

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31
Q

On large aircraft with a second pilot, what can be noted about the instruments used by both pilots?

A

Both sets of instruments are completely separate

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32
Q

The installation of an alternate static source selector is done for what reason?

A

In enables the captain to use the copilots static pressure system

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33
Q

What is used to provide pitot and static information to today’s electronic air data computers (ADC’s)?

A

Air data modules

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34
Q

Following maintenance on the pitot/static system, according to the aircraft maintenance manual, what must be undertaken?

A

Air data leak test

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35
Q

Periodically, what else must be checked for and how can it be corrected on the pitot static system?

A
  • Water in the interconnecting pipes

- Drain out the water gathered in the drain taps

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36
Q

What are the three types of ADC that are used on aircraft?

A
  • Analogue
  • Digital
  • Hybrid
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37
Q

How much deviation from a selected altitude would generate an alert to the pilot?

A

300ft

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38
Q

When would the altitude alert be inhibited?

A
  • When a change of altitude is dialled into the autopilot control panel with the altitude knob
  • When the aircraft intercepts the glide slope during an approach to landing
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39
Q

When would the pilot get an over speed warning?

A

When speed exceeds:

  • VMO (Maximum operating velocity)
  • MMO (Maximum allowed mach number)
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40
Q

What is the difference between static air temperature (SAT) and outside air temperature (OAT)?

A

Nothing

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41
Q

What is the result of ram rise?

A

A direct temperature reading outside the aircraft, total air temperature (TAT)

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42
Q

What is alpha max?

A

This is when an aircraft increases its angle of attack to a point where the airflow does not follow the upper surface of the wing and lift drops dramatically. Every aircraft has its own alpha max value dependent upon its flight config.

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43
Q

At what point during flight would the stick shaker motor start to operate?

A

When the comparison between an aircraft’s alpha max and actual angle of attack reach the aircraft’s critical angle of attack

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44
Q

What sensor is used to provide angle of attack information?

A

the alpha vane

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45
Q

What storage mediums can be used for flight data recorders?

A
  • Magnetic tape

- Solid state memories

46
Q

What is the duration of an FDR Recording?

A

25 hours, being constantly overwritten

47
Q

To protect the recorded data, what must an FDR be able to withstand?

A
  • High G loads of up to 3400g (was 100g)

- High temps of up to 1000 celcius

48
Q

What are the operating parameters of the underwater locator beacon?

A
  • Transmits 40khz audio signal
  • Automatic operation on immersion in water for a minimum of 30 days
  • Can withstand depths greater than 3000 meters
49
Q

What unit combines all the required fight data parameters into a recordable format before recording by the FDR?

A

Flight data acquisition unit

50
Q

What 3 factors affect gyro stability?

A
  • Mass (evenly distributed around the spin axis)
  • Rotational speed
  • Distance between the spin axis and the centre of mass
51
Q

What is precession?

A

A reaction force which tried to tilt the gyro axis. This reaction is shifted by 90 degrees

52
Q

What type of gyro has 1.5 degrees of freedom?

A

A rate gyro

53
Q

What is the rate of apparent drift of a horizontal gyro at the north pole?

A

15 degrees per hour

54
Q

What is the rate of apparent topple of a vertical gyro at the north pole?

A

0 degrees

55
Q

What is the cause of gyros eventually being affected by real drift and topple?

A

Incorrect handling along with wear generating unwanted precession

56
Q

Why are modern gyros driven by electric motors?

A

Electric motors provide a more stable speed in all flight situations and are also more reliable

57
Q

What type of gyro is used for horizon indication?

A

Vertical gyro

58
Q

What is use to keep the spin axis of a vertical gyro in the correct plane?

A

An erection system comprising of level switches or moving mass (pendulum)

59
Q

When can a gyro erection system not work correctly?

A

During accelerations

60
Q

How are incorrect indications during accelerations avoided?

A

The erection system is limited to 3 degrees per minute

61
Q

What flight condition must be avoided because gyro topple cannot be compensated for?

A

Long accelerated turns

62
Q

A directional gyro is used to provide what information?

A

Heading

63
Q

In comparison to a vertical gyro (VG), what is an important difference of the directional gyro (DG)?

A

The DG tends to drift

64
Q

What are rate gyros primarily used for?

A

To detect and measure rates of change around their sensitive axis

65
Q

Only one type of rate gyro can be used for indications, which one?

A

Yaw rate gyro

66
Q

When would a rate of turn indicator display full deflection L or R?

A

When a full turn would take 2 minutes - a standard turn

67
Q

Rate of turn indicators are only accurate in use, when?

A

When the gyro is operating at full speed

68
Q

When a gyro is running at medium speed, what must be observed?

A

The gyro must not be moved, including when fitted to aircraft

69
Q

What is classed as medium speed regarding gyro handling?

A

Between 3 and 20 minutes from power interruption

70
Q

Where does the attitude direction indicator (ADI) get its attitude information from?

A

From the inertial reference unit or a vertical gyro

71
Q

What sort of indicator is the ADI (Attitude Direction Indicator)?

A

Electromechanical or flat screen (LCD)

72
Q

What else does the ADI display?

A

Flight director bars

73
Q

What is DH (decision height) lamp for?

A

To provide indication of descent to the selected decision height

74
Q

What is fast/slow pointer for?

A

Indication of reaching or not a pre-selected landing speed

75
Q

On the fast/slow pointer, what does the fill deflection up indicate?

A

The landing speed is 10 kts too fast

76
Q

When does ADI get gyro valid signal?

A

When the gyro is operating at normal speed

77
Q

What happens if pilot or first officer gyro fails?

A

The output from a 3rd vertical gyro can be switched in to replaced the failed gyro

78
Q

What else can vertical gyros feed?

A

autopilot systems, weather radar

79
Q

What safety feature is built in to the vertical reference system?

A

A comparison between the two attitude display systems is undertaken. If a predetermined difference is detected, a warning is indicated for corrective action

80
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

This is the difference between true north (TN) and magnetic north (MN)

81
Q

What magnetic field lines can a compass use?

A

Horizontal field lines. Only occur like this at the equator

82
Q

Where is compass not usable?

A

above 70 degrees north or south

83
Q

What is used instead of compass above 70 degrees north or south?

A

a directional gyro based system or an inertial stabilised system

84
Q

Where is a direct reading compass located?

A

usually at the centre post between the windscreens, away from electrical equipment and magnetic forces

85
Q

What is a direct reading compass filled with and why?

A

A fluid to dampen movements

86
Q

regarding the direct reading compass, what is deviation?

A

this is the difference between real magnetic north and the indicated magnetic north on the compass

87
Q

How can direct reading compass deviation be corrected?

A

A process called compass compensation incorporating the use of small adjustable magnets within the direct reading compass

88
Q

Accelerations can affect a direct reading compass, what other unit could provide stable heading information?

A

A directional gyro (DG)

89
Q

There is an inherent problem during operation of the DG’s, what is this problem?

A

DG’s tend to drift and need correcting frequently

90
Q

What additional unit, along with the DG, forms the core of the remote compass system?

A

The flux valve

91
Q

What is the basic principle of operation of the flux valve?

A

The induction of electrical signals into 3 sensing coils by alternate switching of the detected magnetic field

92
Q

How is the drift of the DG corrected in the remote compass system?

A

An error signal derived from the comparison of the heading displayed in the heading indicator and the detected magnetic field, is applied to a torque motor which adjusts the DG direction

93
Q

What provides the pilot and indication of the difference between the indicated heading and the detected signal?

A

Slave annunciator

94
Q

What is the advantage of using electronic instrument display systems?

A
  • All display units are identical, so displayed information can be switched if a display unit fails
  • Clear, bright coloured displays
  • Fewer different parts required
95
Q

In a typical cockpit display suite, the 6 main displays can be split into two groups, which are:

A
  • Electronic flight instrument system (EFIS) - Pilot and first officer
  • Engine indicating and Central Warning System - Centre Instrument panel
96
Q

When does automatic display switching occur?

A

If an outboard display unit fails, or the centre upper display fails

97
Q

If the pilot’s PFD has failed and automatic switching has taken place, how can the pilot view navigation information?

A

The single remaining display can be switched manually between PFD and ND information

98
Q

How can the quality of a display be tested?

A

Select the display test picture by using the multifunction control display unit (MCDU) from the CMC (central maintenance computer) and comparing the displays driven by the same display management computer (DMC)

99
Q

The flight information displayed on a PFD follows what format?

A

The basic T, identical to original analogue instruments

100
Q

What are the two types of alert used to inform flight crew of abnormal conditions?

A
  • Central warnings

- Local warnings

101
Q

What are the different types of local warnings?

A
  • Push Button lights
  • Flags
  • Display limit exceedance
102
Q

What are the different types of central warnings?

A
  • Warnings (level A for boeing, level 3 for airbus)
  • Cautions (Levels B for boeing, level 2 for airbus)
  • Advisories (Level C for boeing, level 1 for airbus)
103
Q

What is used to give the pilots an initial indication to an abnormal condition?

A

Master warning and Master caution lights on the glare shield

104
Q

What does the upper central display provide?

A

Information relating to:

  • Central warning system (CWS) messages
  • Permanent aircraft information
105
Q

What does the upper central display provide?

A

Information relating to the condition of aircraft systems

106
Q

The fuel system page displays what parameters?

A
  • Valve and pump status
  • Tank fuel quantity
  • Total fuel
  • Fuel temperature
107
Q

Fuel quantity probes can also be known as what?

A

Tank units

108
Q

What two additional sensors are used to determine the characteristics of the fuel?

A
  • Compensators

- Densitometers

109
Q

What are the three types of level sensors?

A
  • Float switch
  • Thermistor
  • Single point sensor
110
Q

What are the main parts to the engine vibration monitoring system?

A
  • Cockpit indications
  • Vibration sensors
  • Computer - Engine Vibration Monitoring Unit (EMVU)
111
Q

What are the two types of accelerometers that can be used as vibration sensors?

A
  • Electromagnetic accelerometer

- Piezoelectric crystal acceleromter

M11 Consolidation (18 decks)

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