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atpl: perf > 01 Perf Fundamentals > Flashcards

01 Perf Fundamentals Flashcards

1
Q

What is CS-25?

A

CS-25 for large turbine-powered aeroplanes (Performance Class A), defined as having a maximum certificated take-off weight of more than 5700 kg (12,500 pounds).

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2
Q

What is CS-23?

A

CS-23 for smaller aeroplanes in the Normal category, which are aeroplanes with a passenger seating configuration of 19 or less and a maximum certificated take-off mass of 8618 kg (19,000 lb) or less.

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3
Q

General Performance Class A aeroplanes?

A

Performance Class A aeroplanes have more demanding airworthiness requirements and are allowed to operate in poorer weather conditions and on contaminated runways.

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4
Q

General Performance of Single-engine Class B aeroplanes?

A

Single-engine Class B aeroplanes have less stringent airworthiness requirements, leading to more demanding operational restrictions, including prohibitions against night or Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) operations.

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5
Q

Why do we need performance restrictions?

A

The aeroplane performance required for commercial air transport may restrict the weight of a dispatched aeroplane to ensure a sufficient level of safety.

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6
Q

How does IAS and TAS change on take off with changes of temp, density and humidity?

A
  • IAS does not change, it is a measure of the molecules on the pitot tube.
  • TAS will change and hence the amount of runway needed will change.
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7
Q

Performance Class A?

A

Multi-engine aeroplanes powered by turbo-propeller engines with a maximum approved seating config of more than nine OR a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg, and all multi-engined turbojet powered aeroplanes.

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8
Q

Specifics in CS25?

A
  • Must be able to sustain an engine failure in a phase of flight between the start of the take off run and the end of the landing run without dimishing saftey below an acceptable limit
  • A forced landing should not be nessesary.
  • Permitted to operate on a contaminated runway.
  • Strict in terms of performance, but lenient in terms of configuration.
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9
Q

Performance Class B?

A

Aeroplanes powered by propeller engines with a max approved seating config of nine OR less and a maximum take-off mass of 5700 kg or less.

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10
Q

Specicifcs of Class B?

A
  • Do not have to consider an engine failure below 300ft.
  • Not permitted to take off from contaminied runways
  • Multi Engine that cannt meet requirements can be considered a SEP.
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11
Q

Performance Class C

A

Aeroplanes powered by reciprocating engines with a max approved seating config of more than nine or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 kg.

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12
Q

The measured performance?

A

The average performance achieved by experienced and highly skilled test pilots, including data for distances, climb gradient, rates of climb, and rates of descent for all configurations of flap, slats, and landing gear, with all engines working and, if applicable, with one engine inoperative (OEI)

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13
Q

Gross Performance?

A

The average performance that a fleet of aeroplanes can achieve when satisfactorily maintained and flown in accordance with the techniques described in the flight manual.

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14
Q

Net Performance?

A

Gross Performance diminished by a safety factor (margin), as laid down by the appropriate authority.

E.g. piloting technique or below average perfromance.

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15
Q

Screen height?

A

Point at which the TOD ends

35ft for CS-25
50ft for CS-23

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16
Q

Measured Take-off distance?

A

Best aircraft, best pilot.

This will be shorter then distance, before saftey factor added.

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17
Q

Gross Take-Off distance?

A

Fleet / pilot average take off distance.

More then net, less then net.

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18
Q

Net Take Off Distance (TODR)?

A

Take off distance with a saftey factor added. A longer distance.

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19
Q

The safety margin requried for a CAT opererations?

A

Based on the probability of an event/ incident/accident being less than 1 in a million 1x10^-6

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20
Q

V1?

A

Decicion point.
2 seconds before brakes are applied.

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21
Q

V_EF?

A

Engine failure speed.
1 second before V1.

22
Q

VR?

A

Point at which climb starts

23
Q

Vlof

A

Velocity lift off.

24
Q

TOR?

A

Take off range. From BRP to V_lof.

25
Q

TOD?

A

Take off distance. BRP to screen height.

26
Q

Take-off Run Available (TORA)?

A

The distance between the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aeroplane can begin its take-off run to the nearest point, in the direction of take-off, at which the surface of the aerodrome is incapable of bearing the weight of the aeroplane under normal operating conditions. It often corresponds to the physical length of the prepared and maintained runway pavement.

27
Q

Accelerate-Stop Distance Available (ASDA)?

A

The distance from the point on the surface of the aerodrome at which an aeroplane begins its take-off roll to the nearest point in the direction of take-off at which it can’t roll over the surface of the aerodrome and be brought to rest in an emergency without risk of accident. ASDA equals TORA plus stopway.

28
Q

Take-off Distance Available (TODA)?

A

Normally the runway plus the clearway. The TODA is the lesser of: TORA plus clearway, or 1.5 times TORA.

29
Q

Landing Distance Avaliable? (LDA)

A

The length of the runway from threshold to threshold

30
Q

What is TODA limited by?

A

TODA is limited to 1.5 x TORA.

Clearway is max 50% of TORA.

31
Q

Clearway?

A

Area beyond the runway not less then 152m.

Exxtended at least 75m either side of the extended runway.

Upward slope not exceeding 1.25%.

32
Q

Limits of the clearway?

A

First frangible object or at a distance of 50% of the TORA.

33
Q

Balanced Field?

A

When TODA = ASDA.

34
Q

How can a balanced field be created?

A

By ignoring the stopway.

35
Q

Continuous Descent?

A

This involves maintaining a descent as close as possible to the Vertical Descent (VMD) in the clean configuration (minimal or no use of flaps and gear) with engines at flight idle throughout. This technique reduces fuel consumption significantly.

36
Q

RESA?

A

RESA stands for Runway End Safety Area. This is a safety feature at the end of a runway which serves as a buffer zone for airplanes that undershoot or overrun the runway during takeoff or landing.

37
Q

How does energy change states on an AC?

A

All the potential and kinetic energy acquired by an airplane is ultimately derived from the chemical energy stored in the fuel. Efficiently balancing the requirement for kinetic energy (for forward airspeed) with the fuel savings stemming from flight at high altitude (where potential energy is key) is crucial for minimizing fuel burn

38
Q

Common Descent Errors?

A
  • Failing to enter accurate winds for each flight level in the Flight Management Computer (FMC) during descent.
  • Failing to closely monitor the predicted bottom of descent position.
  • Failing to accurately calculate height versus track miles to go.
39
Q

What can be done if issues are detected in a descent?

A

If detected early, pilots can add drag using spoilers and early stages of flap deployment. If these issues are spotted late, and drag devices are already deployed, pilots may need to increase the track miles to the descent point, often requiring permission from Air Traffic Control (ATC).

40
Q

What are the risks of a high and fast approach?

A

Arriving high and fast at the start of the approach is dangerous as it limits the ability to deviate from the flight path or make significant modifications to the airplane’s configuration or thrust setting. In such cases, a go-around might be necessary to set up for the approach again.

41
Q

PCN?

A

The Pavement Classification Number (PCN) for a pavement is the highest acceptable ACN for aeroplanes operating on the surface. An aeroplane can only operate on a surface if its ACN is less than or equal to the PCN.

42
Q

ACN?

A

Relative load rating of the aircraft on pavements for certain specified sub-grade strength. This should not exceed PCN

43
Q

Overload operations

A

It is sometimes nessesary to have the ACN sligthly greater then PCN. May be permitted to operate at an aerodrome, provided permission has been granted by the aerodrome operator.

44
Q

Thrust ratings?

A

TOGA Take off go around.
MCT (Max Continous Thrust)

45
Q

What are SNOWTAMs

A

SNOWTAM is a special series NOTAM given in a standard format providing a surface condition report notifying the presence or cessation of hazardous conditions due to snow, ice, slush, standing water or water associated with snow on the movement area.

The maximum validity of SNOWTAM is 8 hours and a new SNOWTAM is to be issued whenever a new runway condition report is received. The new SNOWTAM cancels the previous one.

The SNOWTAM reports runway condition code for each third of the runway, percentage coverage of the surface, depth in millimetres and a verbal description. For instance: 3/3/3, 100/80/80, SNOW/SNOW/SNOW.

46
Q

Regulation when calculating the take off distance?

A

No more than 50% of the headwind component is assumed and no less than 150% of a tailwind component.

This allows for variation in the reported wind. This is for both single and multi engined AC.

47
Q

Best to worst descending?

A

Best - measured (Longer distance)
Medium - Gross
Worst - Net (Least distance)

48
Q

Specific Range?

A

TAS / Fuel burn

Distance an aircraft can travel per unit mass of fuel.

49
Q

Specific fuel consumption?

A

Fuel burn / Power produced?

50
Q

Reference Zero?

A

an imaginary horizontal plane passing through a point 35 ft vertically beneath below the aeroplane at the end of TODR. Reference Zero is the same point where the Take-off Flight Path begins.

51
Q

Density Altitude?

A

The density altitude is the altitude relative to standard atmospheric conditions at which the air density would be equal to the indicated air density at the place of observation

atpl: perf (18 decks)

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