01 LEC: Hematopiesis Flashcards

1
Q

continuous, regulated process of renewal, proliferation, differentiation, and maturation of all blood cell lines

A

Hematopoiesis

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2
Q

Lifespan of RBC

A

120 days

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3
Q

3 stages of hematopoiesis

A

mesoblastic
hepatic
myeloid/medullary

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4
Q

mesoblastic period usually begins as early as __th day after fertilization in the ___ of the embryo

A

19
yolk sac

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5
Q

mesoblastic period usually lasts until the __ month and peaks at __-__ weeks

A

3rd
5-7

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6
Q

only ___ are made during the mesoblastic period

A

erythrocytes (primitive erythroblasts)

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7
Q

the erythroblasts during the mesoblastic period has hemoglobins, namely ___, ___, ___

A

Gower-1
Gower-2
Portland

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8
Q

Components of Gower-1

A

2 zeta, 2 epsilon

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9
Q

Components of Gower-2

A

2 alpha, 2 epsilon

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10
Q

Components of Portland

A

2 zeta, 2 gamma

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11
Q

the liver is an active hematopoiesis site until __-__ weeks after birth

A

1-2

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11
Q

during the hepatic period, the ___ becomes the chief site of blood cell

A

fetal liver

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12
Q

the hepatic period begins at around ___-___ gestational weeks and lasts until ___ months of gestation

A

5-7
6

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12
Q

this produces the B-cells to contribute to hematopoiesis

A

spleen

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12
Q

The only stage in hematopoiesis that occurs intravascularly

A

mesoblastic

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13
Q

this period is the beginning of definitive hematopoiesis

A

hepatic

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14
Q

this period is where the megakaryopoiesis begins

A

hepatic

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14
Q

the myeloid period begins at the __th to __th month of fetal development and peaks at the __th month

A

4-5
6

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14
Q

the predominant hemoglobin during the hepatic period are ___ and ___

A

hgbF and hgbA

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14
Q

by the end of ___ weeks of gestation, the bone marrow becomes the primary site of hematopoiesis

A

24

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15
Q

the ratio of myeloid to erythroid changes from ___ to ___ during the myeloid period

A

3:1 to 4:1

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15
Q

the period where detectable levels of EPO, G-CSF, and GM-CSF are found

A

myeloid

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15
Q

Hematopoiesis in the bone marrow is called ___ ___

A

medullary hematopoiesis

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16
Q

Hematopoiesis in areas other than the bone marrow is called ___ ___

A

extramedullary hematopoiesis

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17
Q

The ratio of red marrow to yellow marrow (what is it called and what is the normal amount?)

A

Marrow cellularity
50:50

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18
Q

This condition causes a teardrop-shaped RBC in PBS

A

Primary myelofibrosis

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19
Q

What is it called when the bone marrow increases its activity 5-10x its normal rate

A

hyperplastic

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20
Q

A condition where erythropoiesis may increase to the extent that the marrow starts to erode the bone itself

A

Severe chronic anemia

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21
Q

Common values:

Normocellular
Hypercellular/hyperplastic
Hypocellular/hypoplastic

A

30-70%
>70%
<30%

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22
Q

The ratio of granulocytes & their precursors to nucleated erythroid precursors (what is it called and give the normal value)

A

M:E ratio
2:1 - 4:1 (average of 3:1)

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23
Q

Give the M:E ratio for the ff:

Infection

A

6:1

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24
Q

Give the M:E ratio for the ff:

Leukemia

A

25:1

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25
Q

Give the M:E ratio for the ff:

Myeloid hyperplasia

A

20:1

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26
Q

Give the M:E ratio for the ff:

Myeloid hypoplasia

A

3:20

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27
Q

The liver contains phagocytic cells known as ___ ___ that act as a filter for damaged or aged cells in a manner similar to phagocytic cells in the spleen

A

Kupffer cells

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28
Q

T/F: the Kupffer cells is more effective in filtering damaged cells compared to phagocytic cells in spleen

A

F

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29
Q

This is formed from blood fluid that escapes into the connective tissues

A

Lymph

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30
Q

Lymph nodes are composed of ___, ___, and ___

A

lymphocytes
macrophages
reticular network

31
Q

An infection or inflammation of the lymph node

A

Adenitis

32
Q

Lymph nodes is responsible for ___ immunity

A

Adaptive

33
Q

Structure of lymph node:

inner area which contains plasma cells

A

medulla

34
Q

Structure of lymph node:

outer area which contains follicles with B lymphocytes

A

cortex

35
Q

Structure of lymph node:

contains T lymphocytes and macrophages

A

paracortex

36
Q

B cells is responsible for ___ immunity

A

humoral

37
Q

T cells is responsible for ___ immunity

A

cellular

38
Q

Macrophages are responsible for ___ and ___ immunity

A

innate
adaptive

39
Q

Primary lymphoid include which organs?

A

Bone marrow and thymus

40
Q

Secondary lymphoid include which organs?

A

Spleen, lymph nodes, mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues (Peyer’s patches)

41
Q

Markers for undifferentiated T cells

A

CD2, CD3, CD5, CD7

42
Q

Marker for helper T cells

A

CD4

43
Q

Marker for cytotoxic T cells

A

CD8

44
Q

T/F: macrophages are antigen presenting cells, while dendritic cells are not

A

F (they both are)

45
Q

T/F: dendritic cells are more effective than macrophages

A

T

46
Q

This organ contains the largest collection of lymphocytes and mononuclear phagocytes in the body

A

Spleen

47
Q

This process removes old and damaged cells

A

Culling

48
Q

In this process, cells are phagocytized with subsequent degradation

A

Culling

49
Q

This process is where splenic macrophages remove inclusions or damaged surface membrane from circulatory RBCs

A

Pitting

50
Q

In which specific part of the splenic tissue are splenic macrophages synthesized?

A

Cords of billroth (red pulp)

51
Q

Decreased RBC

A

anemia

52
Q

Decreased WBC

A

leukopenia

53
Q

Decrease in RBC, WBC, and platelet

A

Pancytopenia

54
Q

Decrease in platelet

A

Thrombocytopenia

55
Q

This organ is well developed at birth and increases in size until puberty at which time it starts to decrease in size

A

Thymus

56
Q

This serves as a compartment for the maturation of T lymphocytes

A

Thymus

57
Q

Part of the thymus where small lymphocytes and macrophages can be found

A

cortex

58
Q

Part of the thymus where a few lymphocytes, macrophages, and epithelial cells can be found

A

medulla

59
Q

The “holding zone” of the thymus which contains only 15% of mature T cells

A

medulla

60
Q

Mass of the thymus as birth

A

12-15 g

61
Q

Mass of the thymus during puberty

A

30-40 g

62
Q

Mass of the thymus in adulthood

A

10-15 g

63
Q

Characteristics of interleukins

A
  1. proteins that exhibit multiple biologic activities
  2. synergistic interactions with other cytokines
  3. part of interacting systems with amplification potential
  4. very effective at very low concentration
64
Q

They are important in the complement cytokine function and help regulate adaptive and innate immune system

A

Chemokines (chemoctatic cytokines)

65
Q

This triggers the production of EPO

A

Hypoxia

66
Q

This theory states that all blood cells are derived from a single progenitor stem cell

A

Monophyletic theory

67
Q

This theory states that each of the blood cell lineages is derived from its own unique stem cell

A

Polyphyletic theory

68
Q

The more accepted theory

A

Monophyletic theory

69
Q

Marker/s for common myeloid progenitor

A

CD38
CD33

70
Q

marker for lymphoid progenitor

A

CD38
CD10

71
Q

Marker/s for pluripotent HSC

A

CD34

72
Q

Three fates of HSCs

A

Self-renewal
Differentiation
Apoptosis

73
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

multipotent

A

Progenitor cells

74
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

do not self-renew or have only an extremely limited capacity

A

Progenitor cells

75
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

respond best to multiple cytokines

A

Progenitor cells

76
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

“committed”

A

Precursor cells

77
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

do not self-renew

A

Precursor cells

78
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

respond best to one or 2 cytokines

A

Precursor cells

79
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

still replicate until near terminal differentiation

A

Precursor cells

80
Q

Progenitor cells/Precursor cells:

progeny increasingly acquire specific differentiation markers and functions

A

Precursor cells

81
Q

IL for common myeloid progenitor

A

1, 3, 6, 11

82
Q

IL for common lymphoid progenitor

A

7

83
Q

IL for granulocyte-monocyte progenitor

A

3

84
Q

IL for eosinophil-basophil

A

3, 5

85
Q

IL for megakaryocyte-erythrocyte

A

3