Zoonoses I Flashcards

1
Q

Which virulence factor of Borrelia burgdorferi:

1) Primes PMNs to release granules and superoxides that cause joint pain (infectious arthritis - a hallmark of Lyme disease)
2) Converts plasminogen to plasmin, digesting the ECM, helping in the spread of the organism

A

OspA

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2
Q

T/F Strains of Borrelia burgdorferi with the OspB are more invasive than mutants lacking it.

A

TRUE

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3
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi OspB is used for serodiagnosis with _____

A

Western Blot

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4
Q

The vector of Borrelia burgdorferi/Lyme disease is the _____. How is the organism introduced?

A

Ixodes tick

Introduced via tick saliva and vomit

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5
Q

T/F Removal of a tick within 24 hours may stop the transmission of Borrelia burgdorferi.

A

TRUE

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6
Q

In the first stage of Lyme disease, patients demonstrate flu-like symptoms and pathognomonic _____.

A

Erythema chronicum migrans aka “Bull’s eye rash”

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7
Q

What symptoms characterize the second stage of Lyme disease? Where is the organism at this point? What mediates this stage of the disease?

A

Sx: Acute arthritis, cardiac disease, meningitis, & Bell’s Palsy (more severe cases) - Appear weeks to months after bite.

The organism may be systemic or even dead at this point

The second stage of Lyme disease is mediated by the host inflammatory response.

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8
Q

What three symptoms characterize the third stage of Lyme disease?

A

1) Chronic arthritis
2) Chronic skin lesions
3) Chronic neurological problems

These appear months to years after the tick bite

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9
Q

The third stage of Lyme disease is thought to be _____ in nature.

A

Autoimmune

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10
Q

T/F serologic evaluation of CSF, blood, or synovial fluid for B. burgdorferi can be done at any stage of the disease

A

FALSE

Must be early on in the infection

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11
Q

_____ is used to look for B. burgdorferi DNA in tick (peel it off the patient) or host tissue.

A

PCR

Lagniappe: Immunostaining of biopsy sample may also be used to detect the bacteria

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12
Q

What are the four treatment options for Lyme disease?

A

1) Doxycycline
2) Beta-lactams
3) Tetracyclines
4) Erythromycin

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13
Q

What role does Borrelia recurrentis’ virulence factor VMP play?

A

It is a surface protein that varies antigenic epitopes in response to immune clearance.

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14
Q

The relapsing nature of Borrelia recurrentis infection is attributable to _____

A

Modifications by VMP (gene activated by gene conversion)

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15
Q

Borrelia recurrentis is carried by _____ and _____

A

Human body lice and ticks (Borrelia hermsii)

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16
Q

Tick borne Relapsing Fever has the same pathogenesis as B. burgdorferi, except that they remain _____ instead of _____

A

Remains in bloodstream instead of disseminating to the organs

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17
Q

Evaluating blood smears patients with B. recurrentis after a febrile episode reveals _____

A

The appearance of a “thread” between erythrocytes

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18
Q

The most evident feature of B. recurrentis infection is _____

A

Cyclic fever and chills

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19
Q

T/F No Borrelia species have an animal reservoir

A

FALSE

The tick-borne form of Relapsing Fever (caused by B. hermsii) has a rodent reservoir.

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20
Q

The treatment of Borrelia is a low dose beta-lactam instead of a high dose. Why is this the case?

A

High doses kill all of the organism at once causing a massive release of cytokines due to the sudden exposure to many pro-inflammatory mediators.

This is known as the Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction

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21
Q

What organism causes Leptospirosis?

A

Leptospira interrogans

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22
Q

How is L. interrogans transmitted?

A

Contact with urine

Enters through mucous membranes or damaged skin

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23
Q

The acute stage of Leptospirosis (leptospiremia) is characterized by _____

A

Spiking fever due to the organism changing its antigens (about one week)

24
Q

How does L. interrogans appear under a microscope?

A

Motile, Gram (-) spiral/question-mark shaped organism with hooked ends

25
Q

Serology for _____ in CSF or blood is used for acute phase diagnosis of Leptospirosis.

A

IgM antibodies

26
Q

The convalescent phase of Leptospirosis (Weil’s syndrome) occurs when the organism spreads to _____, causing what symptoms?

A

Organism spreads to liver and kidneys

Sx: Jaundice, renal failure, can cause myocarditis. Autoimmune uveitis and interstitial nephritis may result

27
Q

How is Leptospirosis identified in the clinic?

A

Microscopic agglutination test or cultured in vitro

28
Q

What are the three treatment options for Leptospirosis?

A

1) Doxycycline
2) Penicillin
3) Fluoroquinolone

29
Q

What organism causes Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

Rickettsia rickettsi

30
Q

What virulence factor of R. ricketsii is the immunodominant surface-exposed antigen responsible for adhesion?

A

rOmpA

31
Q

What virulence factor of R. ricketsii mediates internalization of the organism?

A

Phospholipase

32
Q

R. ricketsii is introduced into the host by _____

A

Saliva of Dermacentor tick

33
Q

T/F R. ricketsii is a facultative intracellular pathogen

A

FALSE

R. ricketsii is an OBLIGATE intracellular pathogen

34
Q

R. ricketsii, after entering the bloodstream, infects the _____ of lungs, spleen, brain, and skin.

A

Vascular endothelium

35
Q

After infecting the vascular endothelium, R. ricketsii causes _____. Patients preset with a characteristic _____ on the extremities

A

R. ricketsii causes vasculitis

Patients often have a characteristic petechial rash on their extremities

36
Q

What are the three treatment options for R. rickettsi infection/Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?

A

1) Tetracycline
2) Chloramphenicol
3) Fluoroquinolones

37
Q

What organism causes Epidemic Typhus?

A

Rickettsia prowazekii

38
Q

Where are breakouts of Epidemic Typhus often concentrated

A

POW camps/Internment centers/Slums - Anywhere there’s a lot of people with poor sanitation crowded together and head lice

39
Q

What is the vector for R. prowazekii?

A

Human head/body live (P. humanus capitis/corporis)

40
Q

What is the animal reservoir for R. prowazekii?

A

Flying squirrels

41
Q

T/F R. prowazekii is an obligate intracellular pathogen?

A

TRUE

Both Rickettsia species are obligate intracellular pathogens

42
Q

How does R. prowazekii gain access to its human host?

A

Louse feeds and defecates (R. prowazekii is in the feces) simultaneously

Bite itches –> Host scratches bite –> Feces/bacteria rubbed into wound

43
Q

T/F Epidemic Typhus caused by R. prowazekii has similar symptoms and mortality to Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever caused by R. ricketsii

A

FALSE

The symptoms ARE similar, but Epidemic Typhus caused by R. prowazekii has a higher mortality (40%) than RMSF (10%)

44
Q

_____ is a reemergence of an old typhus infection after the R. prowazekii lies dormant in the lymph nodes for many years?

A

Brill-Zinsser

45
Q

What is the treatment for Epidemic Typhus caused by R. prowazekii?

A

Tetracycline & Chloramphenicol for 3-4 days

46
Q

What organism causes Q Fever?

A

Coxiella burnetti

47
Q

The phase I antigens of C. burnetii block _____

A

Antibodies to bacterial surface proteins

48
Q

The phase II antigens of C. burnetii are derived from phase I, when the organism undergoes a _____. After this mutation, surface proteins on the bacterial cell wall become _____.

A

Deletion mutation

After mutation, C. burnetii cell wall proteins become exposed

49
Q

The antibody against C. burnetii phase I antigens are found in _____ patients. The antibody against C. burnetii phase II antigens are found in _____ patients?

A

Phase I antibodies: Chronically ill

Phase II antibodies: Acutely ill

50
Q

Many mammals function as reservoirs of C. burnetii. Which ones are the most well known reservoirs?

A

Farm animals

51
Q

How is C. burnetii transmitted?

A

Humans inhale dust that’s infected with C. burnetii “spores” (not true endospores)

52
Q

Where does C. burnetii replicate in the human host?

A

Inside phagocytes

53
Q

T/F C. burnetii is an obligate intracellular pathogen

A

TRUE

C. butnetii is an obligate intracellular organism, just like Rickettsia

54
Q

Acute disease caused by C. burnetii presents as an _____. It may spread to the liver, causing _____

A

Acute C. burnetii disease presents as an ATYPICAL PNEUMONIA (non-productive cough, no consolidation in lower lobes of lung)

Spread to the liver can cause DIFFUSE GRANULOMAS

55
Q

Chronic disease caused by C. burnetii causes _____

A

Chronic endocarditis (on artificial/previously damaged valves)

56
Q

How is C. burnetii diagnosed in the lab?

A

PCR or serology (looking for phase antigens)

57
Q

What are the treatment options for Q fever caused by C. burnetii?

A

Tetracycline / Tetracycline + rifampin / Tetracycline + trimethoprim-sulfa