Antibiotics III Flashcards

1
Q

Ciprofloxacin (2nd gen.), Levofloxacin, Gatifloxacin and Moxifloxacin all inhibit DNA synthesis and are members of the class of antibiotics known as _____.

A

Fluoroquinolones

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2
Q

What do fluoroquinolones target in G- and G+ organisms, respectively?

A

G- = Gyrase

G+ = Topoisomerase IV

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3
Q

What added constituent of the fluoroquinolones increases their antimicrobial activity

A

Fluorine

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4
Q

Which fluoroquinolone is most effective against G- organisms?

A

Ciprofloxacin

others equal in efficiency, but less than cipro

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5
Q

T/F Cipro is the most effective quinolone against G+

A

FALSE

Cipro is the least effective quinolone against G+ organisms. Others are equal in efficiency, and more effective than cipro.

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6
Q

From least to most, order the quinolones in regard to their actiity against anaerobes.

A

Cipro

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7
Q

What kinds of infections are quinolones used to treat (6)?

A

1) UTI
2) Prostitis
3) GI/Abdominal (Traveler’s diarrhea, Shigellosis, Typhoid)
4) Respiratory (Atypical pneumonias [mycoplasma], S. pneumoniae)
5) Bone/joint/soft tissue (Chronic osteomyelitis, polymicrobial diabetic ulcers)
6) STDs (chlamydia, chancroid)

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8
Q

Which STDs are never treated with fluoroquinolones due to resistance?

A

Syphilis and gonorrhea

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9
Q

Which organisms are beginning to gain resistance to fluoroquinolones (3)?

A

1) S. aureus
2) P. aeruginosa
3) S. marcescens

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10
Q

Which fluoroquinolone is used to treat anthrax and tularemia?

A

Ciprofloxacin

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11
Q

Combinations of fluoroquinolones are used to treat _____ or for _____

A

Atypical mycobacteria or neutropenic prophylaxis

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12
Q

T/F Fluoroquinolone is administered via IV

A

FALSE

Administered orally (can send patients home with it!)

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13
Q

Metronidazole and Nitrofurantoin is under the class of antibiotics known as _____

A

Nitroimidazoles

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14
Q

What is metronidazole’s mechanism of action?

A

Converted to radical iron by ferredoxin, causing fragmentation of DNA

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15
Q

Metronidazole is used to treat _____ and _____.

A

Strict anaerobes (c. diff)

Parasites (trichomonas, giardia, entamoeba)

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16
Q

T/F Metronidazole can’t be used against organisms that use oxygen, including facultative anaerobes

A

TRUE

These organisms have the biological components to deal with free radicals

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17
Q

Nitrofurantoin is used almost exclusively to treat _____ or _____

A

Cystitis or lower UTIs

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18
Q

Nitrofurantoin is effective against many _____ bacteria except _____, AND _____

A

Effective against many GRAM - bacteria except PROTEUS AND PSEUDOMONAS

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19
Q

The sulfonamides function as _____ antagonists

A

Folate antagonists

20
Q

Sulfonamides are competitive inhibitors of _____

A

Dihydropterate synthase

21
Q

The enzyme sulfonamides competitively inhibits (dihydropterate synthase) is needed for the production of _____. Blocking this enzyme prevents the organism from _____.

A

Dihydropterate synthase is needed for the production of THF

Blocking this enzyme prevents the conversion of uracil to thymidine by the organism

22
Q

What are the mechanisms of bacterial resistance to sulfonamides?

A

1) New folic acid pathway
2) Altered affinity of enzyme for drug
3) Efflux

23
Q

Sulfonamides are concentrated in _____, making them _____ in this location

A

Concentrated in urine (great for UTIs!)

Bactericidal there

24
Q

Which sulfonamide is used for opthalmologic infections?

A

Sulfacetamide

25
Which sulfonamide is used to prevent infection and treat infection of burn wounds?
Silver Sulfadiazine
26
What are the therapeutic uses of Sulfonamides (4)?
1) UTI 2) Nocardiosis 3) PJP (sulfamethoxazole + trimethoprim [bactrim]) 4) Toxoplasmosis
27
Rifamycins are _____ spectrum
Broad spectrum
28
Which rifamycin is used for HIV+ patients?
Rifabutin
29
What are the therapeutic uses of rifampin (3)?
1) TB 2) Staph 3) Meningococcus prophylaxis
30
What are the therapeutic uses of ridabutin/rifapentine (2)?
1) TB in HIV+ | 2) MAC
31
T/F Rifaximin is readily absorbed in the gut.
FALSE Rifamixin is limited to the lumen of the gut
32
What is the mechanism of action of rifamycins?
Inhibit DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
33
How is bacterial resistance to rifamycins achieved?
Alteration of target (DNA-dependent RNA polymerase)
34
What is the mechanism of action of daptomycin?
Depolarizes bacterial membrane > K+ efflux > death
35
What kind of organisms does daptomycin cover?
Aerobic G+ cocci (except Pneumonias - drug inactivated by lung surfactant) - Works against MRSA, MSSA, VRE
36
What is the mechanism of action of Polymyxins?
Membrane detergent
37
What kind of organisms do the polymyxins cover? What are the exceptions?
G- organisms EXCEPT Proteus, Serratia, Burkholderia
38
Which polymyxin is nephrotoxic?
Polymyxin E
39
What are the first line anti-mycobacterium antibiotics?
Rifampin Isoniazid Pyrazinamide Ethambutol RIPE Therapy (Streptomycin)
40
What are the second line anti-mycobacterium abx?
``` Cycloserine Amikacin Moxi/Gatifloxacin Ethionamide Aminosalicylic Aid Linezolid ``` CAME to Alleviate Lung
41
Isonazid (INH) prevents the synthesis of _____
Mycolic acids
42
Is isoniazid bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
Trick question. It's both. Bactericidal for growing cells Bacteriostatic for resting cells
43
Isoniazid (INH) is a prodrug that requires _____ for activation
Catalase peroxidase
44
Ethambutl inhibits _____ involved in cell wall synthesis of mycobacterium
Arabinosyl transferase
45
Pyrazinamide is bactericidal at _____ pH, as in a macrophage or phagolysozome
Acid pH
46
What gene is inactivated by pyrazinamide?
Fatty acid synthase I gene
47
Which antimycobacterium drug targets the C subunit of mycobacterium ATP synthase?
Bedaquiline (Resistance is acquired by mutating the C subunit)