Year one comp

Question 1

Which condition is characterized by ipsilateral motor and proprioceptive loss and contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation?

• A) Multiple sclerosis
• B) Brown-Sequard syndrome
• C) Stroke
• D) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

Answer 1

B) Brown-Sequard syndrome

Question 2

Which diagnostic tool is primarily used for identifying the presence of gallstones?

• A) MRI
• B) Ultrasound
• C) X-ray
• D) CT scan

Answer 2

B) Ultrasound

Question 3

What is the initial step in a thorough subjective examination in physical therapy?

• A) Conducting physical tests
• B) Building a therapeutic alliance
• C) Reviewing patient history
• D) Setting treatment goals

Answer 3

B) Building a therapeutic alliance

Question 4

Which type of precautions are necessary for managing a patient with mumps?

• A) Contact precautions
• B) Airborne precautions
• C) Droplet precautions
• D) Standard precautions

Answer 4

C) Droplet precautions

Question 5

What is the primary cause of lightheadedness upon standing up quickly?

• A) Orthostatic hypotension
• B) Dehydration
• C) Vertigo
• D) Blood sugar fluctuations

Answer 5

A) Orthostatic hypotension

Question 6

Which substance is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system?

• A) Dopamine
• B) Serotonin
• C) GABA
• D) Norepinephrine

Answer 6

C) GABA

Question 7

What is a common symptom of left-sided heart failure?

• A) Peripheral edema
• B) Jugular vein distension
• C) Pulmonary congestion
• D) Hepatomegaly

Answer 7

C) Pulmonary congestion

Question 8

Which medication is commonly used to treat hypertension?

• A) Furosemide
• B) Lisinopril
• C) Metformin
• D) Amoxicillin

Answer 8

B) Lisinopril

Question 9

What is the primary function of the deltoid muscle?

• A) Arm adduction
• B) Arm abduction
• C) Arm flexion
• D) Arm extension

Answer 9

B) Arm abduction

Question 10

What condition is often associated with chronic bronchitis?

• A) Asthma
• B) Pneumonia
• C) Tuberculosis
• D) COPD

Answer 10

D) COPD

Question 11

What is the primary action to take if a patient exhibits symptoms of a stroke?

• A) Provide immediate reassurance
• B) Monitor vital signs
• C) Administer medication
• D) Call 911

Answer 11

D) Call 911

Question 12

Which measure is most effective in preventing the spread of infections via droplets?

• A) Hand washing
• B) Wearing gloves
• C) Using masks
• D) Air filtration systems

Answer 12

C) Using masks

Question 13

What typically causes referred pain in the left shoulder known as Kehr’s sign?
A) Pancreatic issues
B) Heart conditions
C) Splenic irritation
D) Liver abnormalities

Answer 13

C) Splenic irritation

Question 14

Which medication is primarily used to manage symptoms of Parkinson’s disease?

• A) Gabapentin
• B) Levodopa
• C) Amitriptyline
• D) Cyclobenzaprine

Answer 14

B) Levodopa

Question 15

What is the most likely diagnosis for a patient experiencing acute pain and swelling in the great toe?

• A) Osteoarthritis
• B) Rheumatoid arthritis
• C) Gout
• D) Bursitis

Answer 15

C) Gout

Question 16

Which type of precautions are necessary for patients with tuberculosis?

• A) Contact precautions
• B) Droplet precautions
• C) Airborne precautions
• D) Standard precautions

Answer 16

C) Airborne precautions

Question 17

What is a common clinical feature of deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A) Cyanosis
• B) Edema
• C) Hypertension
• D) Tachycardia

Answer 17

B) Edema

Question 18

Which condition is associated with a positive Murphy’s sign?

• A) Appendicitis
• B) Cholecystitis
• C) Pancreatitis
• D) Hepatitis

Answer 18

B) Cholecystitis

Question 19

What is the primary function of insulin in the body?

• A) Break down fats
• B) Enhance glucose uptake
• C) Increase blood glucose
• D) Stimulate protein synthesis

Answer 19

B) Enhance glucose uptake

Question 20

Which dietary recommendation is most appropriate for a patient with chronic kidney disease?

• A) Low protein
• B) High potassium
• C) High phosphorus
• D) Increased fluids

Answer 20

A) Low protein

Question 21

Which hormone is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?

• A) FSH
• B) ADH
• C) Oxytocin
• D) LH

Answer 21

B) ADH and C) Oxytocin

Question 22

An injury to the accessory nerve is most likely to cause which of the following?

• A) Horners syndrome
• B) Erb’s palsy
• C) Klumpke’s palsy
• D) Scapular winging

Answer 22

D) Scapular winging

Question 23

For a patient in a SNF who is WBAT post ankle fracture with a brachial plexus strain, which DME is appropriate?

• A) 4WW
• B) 2WW
• C) 2WW with platform
• D) Crutches

Answer 23

A) 4WW

Question 24

In a SNF patient diagnosed with osteomyelitis in the right foot and extensive muscle atrophy in the left leg, which is the most appropriate transfer method?

• A) Stand pivot
• B) Slide board
• C) Squat pivot
• D) Hoyer lift

Answer 24

B) Slide board

Question 25

Which type of apraxia might a patient exhibit who cannot perform tasks on command but can when alone, typically following an ACA stroke?
A) Ideational apraxia
B) Ideomotor apraxia
C) Ideosensory apraxia

Answer 25

B) Ideomotor apraxia

Question 26

Which stroke is most likely to lead to cautious behavior and aphasia?
A) R MCA
B) L MCA
C) ACA
D) PCA

Answer 26

B) L MCA

Question 27

Which stroke would likely cause a patient to neglect their condition and fabricate lies, possibly without awareness?

A) R MCA
B) L MCA
C) ACA
D) PCA

Answer 27

A) R MCA

Question 28

Which of the following strokes could lead to prosopagnosia?
A) R MCA
B) L MCA
C) ACA
D) PCA

Answer 28

D) PCA

Question 29

What features greater deficits in lower extremities as well as urinary incontinence?
A) R MCA
B) L MCA
C) ACA
D) PCA

Answer 29

C) ACA

Question 30

A lesion in the spinal cord results in what for the DCML/Spinothalamic tract?
A) Contralateral loss in touch/proprioception, ipsilateral loss in pain/temp
B) Contralateral loss in touch/proprioception, contralateral loss in pain/temp
C) Ipsilateral loss in touch/proprioception, ipsilateral loss in pain/temp
D) Ipsilateral loss in touch/proprioception, contralateral loss in pain/temp

Answer 30

D) Ipsilateral loss in touch/proprioception, contralateral loss in pain/temp

Question 31

What is the first step in managing a patient experiencing stroke symptoms and hitting a wall?
A) Call the family
B) Provide reassurance
C) Administer medication
D) Call 911

Answer 31

D) Call 911

Question 32

What is the best approach for a patient trying to take out a catheter?
A) Restrain the patient
B) Hand off to RN
C) Provide sedation
D) Offer reassurance

Answer 32

B) Hand off to RN

Question 33

Which muscle is primarily targeted to improve weak hip abduction?
A) Gluteus Maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Tensor fasciae latae
D) Piriformis

Answer 33

B) Gluteus medius

Question 34

During which phase of gait does a hamstring strain typically cause the most trouble?
A) Initial contact
B) Mid stance
C) Terminal stance
D) Late swing

Answer 34

D) Late swing

Question 35

What precaution is necessary for a patient with Clostridium difficile (C. diff)?
A) Gloves only
B) N-95 respirator
C) Gloves and gown
D) Mask and gloves

Answer 35

C) Gloves and gown

Question 36

What prevents forward translation of the femur on the tibia?
A) ACL
B) PCL
C) LCL
D) Meniscus

Answer 36

B) PCL

Question 37

What is a likely diagnosis for a patient with delayed knee swelling?
A) ACL tear
B) PCL injury
C) Meniscus damage
D) LCL strain

Answer 37

C) Meniscus damage

Question 38

Which faulty movement is a common cause of ACL tears?
A) Trunk dominance
B) Quad dominance
C) Unilateral leg dominance
D) Ligament dominance

Answer 38

A) Trunk dominance

Question 39

What is the best test to assess for a labral tear in the shoulder?
A) Biceps Load Test
B) O’Brien’s Test
C) Jerk Test
D) Anterior Slide Test

Answer 39

B) O’Brien’s Test

Question 40

Which intervention is effective for managing mid-tendon Achilles tendinopathy?
A) Ice
B) Rest
C) Compression
D) Eccentrics

Answer 40

D) Eccentrics

Question 41

What exercise should be avoided post-op shoulder rehab to prevent harming the external rotators?
A) Internal rotation
B) External rotation
C) Flexion
D) Extension

Answer 41

A) Internal rotation

Question 42

Which nerve is most likely affected in a patient who feels burning sensations and has pain at the lateral malleoli after an inversion ankle sprain?
A) Saphenous nerve
B) Sural nerve
C) Tibial nerve
D) Peroneal nerve

Answer 42

D) Peroneal nerve

Question 43

Which muscle should be strengthened to correct hip abduction weakness?
A) Gluteus Maximus
B) Gluteus medius
C) Piriformis
D) Psoas major

Answer 43

B) Gluteus medius

Question 44

Which movement is associated primarily with thumb flexion?
A) Lateral glide
B) Medial glide
C) Dorsal glide
D) Palmar glide

Answer 44

B) Medial glide

Question 45

What is the recommended transfer method for a patient with bilateral calcaneal non-weight bearing status?
A) Slide board
B) Stand pivot
C) Squat pivot
D) Hoyer lift

Answer 45

A) Slide board

Question 46

What site is most likely to develop a pressure ulcer when a patient is in the sidelying or supine position?
A) Sacrum
B) Heel
C) Spine of scapula
D) Ischium

Answer 46

C) Spine of scapula

Question 47

Which assessment method involves building a therapeutic alliance and allowing the patient to talk?
A) Objective assessment
B) Diagnostic assessment
C) Thorough subjective
D) Comprehensive review

Answer 47

C) Thorough subjective

Question 48

What prevents forward relocation of the femur on the tibia?
A) ACL
B) PCL
C) LCL
D) MCL

Answer 48

B) PCL

Question 49

What are the primary biomechanical risk factors for an ACL tear?
A) Tibial external rotation and large valgus
B) Quadriceps dominance
C) Poor core stability
D) Insufficient hamstring strength

Answer 49

A) Tibial external rotation and large valgus

Question 50

What is the normal end feel for knee movements?
A) Soft
B) Firm
C) Hard
D) Intraarticular

Answer 50

D) Intraarticular

Question 51

Which precautions are essential for preventing droplet transmission of infections?
A) Gloves only
B) Mask and wash hands
C) Goggles and gown
D) N95 mask

Answer 51

B) Mask and wash hands

Question 52

What is the correct procedure for doffing with Clostridioides difficile?
A) No mask; gloves and gown only
B) Gloves, gown, and mask
C) N95 mask and gown
D) Gloves only

Answer 52

A) No mask; gloves and gown only

Question 53

What condition is characterized by respiratory infection progressing from distal to proximal muscles?
A) ALS
B) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
C) Guillain-Barre syndrome
D) Myasthenia gravis

Answer 53

C) Guillain-Barre syndrome

Question 54

How should you proceed if a patient undergoing cancer treatment asks a medical question?
A) Answer based on general knowledge
B) Refer to the oncologist
C) Provide reassurance only
D) Suggest internet research

Answer 54

B) Refer to the oncologist

Question 55

What is a risk factor for end-stage renal disease?
A) Hypertension
B) Diabetes mellitus
C) Hyperlipidemia
D) Smoking

Answer 55

B) Diabetes mellitus

Question 56

What should be done if a patient attempts to remove their catheter?
A) Restrain the patient
B) Redirect them
C) Hand off to an RN
D) Provide a sedative

Answer 56

C) Hand off to an RN

Question 57

What advice should be given for managing sleep-related back pain?
A) Take pain medication before bed
B) Use a heating pad
C) Go to sleep at the same time each night
D) Perform stretching exercises before bed

Answer 57

C) Go to sleep at the same time each night

Question 58

How should a patient who feels powerless over their situation be counseled?
A) Encourage a positive outlook
B) Discuss external factors
C) Develop an internal locus of control
D) Refer for psychological evaluation

Answer 58

C) Develop an internal locus of control

Question 59

What is the likely pathology if a patient experiences shoulder pain at night and muscle weakness?
A) Frozen shoulder
B) Rotator cuff tear
C) Biceps tendinopathy
D) AC joint arthritis

Answer 59

B) Rotator cuff tear

Question 60

What type of precautions are required for a patient diagnosed with Clostridioides difficile (C. diff)?
A) Gloves only
B) N95 mask and gown
C) Gloves and gown
D) Mask and gloves

Answer 60

C) Gloves and gown

Question 61

Which statement about precautions for Clostridioides difficile is accurate?
A) No mask needed; gloves and gown only
B) Gloves, gown, and N95 mask
C) Gloves only
D) Mask, gloves, and gown

Answer 61

A) No mask needed; gloves and gown only

Question 62

What intervention is indicated for a patient with weak hip abduction?
A) Stretch the hip flexors
B) Strengthen the gluteus medius
C) Increase hip internal rotation
D) Perform closed-chain exercises

Answer 62

B) Strengthen the gluteus medius

Question 63

Which phase of the gait cycle is affected by a hamstring strain in a runner?
A) Initial contact
B) Midstance
C) Terminal stance
D) Late swing

Answer 63

D) Late swing

Question 64

What is the first-line diagnostic tool for detecting gallstones?
A) MRI
B) X-ray
C) CT scan
D) Ultrasound

Answer 64

D) Ultrasound

Question 65

What are biomechanical risk factors for an ACL tear?
A) Poor core stability
B) Quadriceps dominance
C) Tibial external rotation, large valgus, and extension
D) Insufficient hamstring strength

Answer 65

C) Tibial external rotation, large valgus, and extension

Question 66

What type of precautions are essential for managing droplet transmission of infections?
A) Gloves only
B) Mask and wash hands
C) Full PPE
D) N95 mask

Answer 66

B) Mask and wash hands

Question 67

How should you proceed if a patient with a respiratory infection experiences symptoms from distal to proximal muscles?
A) Continue normal procedures
B) Administer emergency treatment
C) Recognize it as Guillain-Barre syndrome
D) Consult a neurologist immediately

Answer 67

C) Recognize it as Guillain-Barre syndrome

Question 68

What is the appropriate action if a patient undergoing cancer treatment asks a medical question?
A) Answer with your best knowledge
B) Proceed with treatment and defer questions to the doctor
C) Direct them to online resources
D) Ignore the question

Answer 68

B) Proceed with treatment and defer questions to the doctor

Question 69

How should a patient who feels there’s nothing they can do about their condition be advised?
A) Encourage reliance on medication
B) Foster a sense of personal control
C) Suggest they accept their condition
D) Recommend depression screening

Answer 69

B) Foster a sense of personal control

Question 70

Which hormone is primarily responsible for controlling the plasma calcium levels when high?
A) Calcitonin
B) PTH
C) TSH
D) TRH

Answer 70

A) Calcitonin

Question 71

How does Botox affect synaptic transmission?
A) Blocks acetylcholine release
B) Blocks calcium release
C) Blocks glutamate release
D) Blocks sodium release

Answer 71

A) Blocks acetylcholine release

Question 72

What is the most likely involved for a patient with sensory ataxia, vertigo, and dysarthria?
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Brainstem involvement
D) Cereballer atrophy

Answer 72

C) Brainstem involvement

Question 73

If a patient is able to assist in 60% of a transfer activity, what would you document?
A) Max assist
B) Mod assist
C) Min assist
D) Independent

Answer 73

B) Mod assist

Question 74

What prevents the forward translation of the femur on the tibia?
A) ACL
B) PCL
C) LCL
D) Meniscus

Answer 74

A) ACL

Question 75

How does a Lachman test position the patient?
A) Supine, knee flexed to 90 degrees
B) Supine, knee flexed to 10-20 degrees
C) Supine, knee flexed off the table at 90 degrees
D) Sitting, knee bent off the table at 90 degrees

Answer 75

B) Supine, knee flexed to 10-20 degrees

Question 76

Which of the following conditions is assessed by the Thomas test?
A) Femoral neuropathy
B) Iliopsoas tightness
C) Gluteal tendinopathy
D) Sciatica

Answer 76

B) Iliopsoas tightness

Question 77

In which condition would you expect to see pain during the first steps in the morning?
A) Plantar fasciitis
B) Achilles tendinopathy
C) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
D) Ankle sprain

Answer 77

A) Plantar fasciitis

Question 78

Which nerve is likely affected by numbness and burning sensations at the lateral malleoli following an inversion ankle sprain?
A) Saphenous
B) Sural
C) Tibial
D) Peroneal

Answer 78

D) Peroneal

Question 79

During which phase of gait does a hamstring strain typically cause the most trouble?
A) Initial contact
B) Mid stance
C) Terminal stance
D) Late swing

Answer 79

D) Late swing

Question 80

What is the typical result of Brown-Sequard syndrome due to a spinal cord lesion?
A) Loss of motor function and proprioception ipsilaterally with contralateral temperature sensation loss
B) Complete paralysis below the lesion
C) Loss of pain sensation on the same side as the injury
D) Unilateral loss of all sensations

Answer 80

A) Loss of motor function and proprioception ipsilaterally with contralateral temperature sensation loss

Question 81

What neurological deficit is primarily associated with a right hemisphere stroke?
A) Spatial neglect
B) Speech difficulties
C) Impaired logic
D) Memory loss

Answer 81

A) Spatial neglect

Question 82

Which medication is indicated for managing acute migraine attacks?
A) Aspirin
B) Sumatriptan
C) Acetaminophen
D) Amitriptyline

Answer 82

B) Sumatriptan

Question 83

In managing acute myocardial infarction, what is the primary role of thrombolytic therapy?
A) Pain relief
B) Revascularization
C) Blood thinning
D) Reducing myocardial oxygen demand

Answer 83

C) Blood thinning

Question 84

Which complication is specifically associated with a fracture of the distal radius?
A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Osteoarthritis
C) Compartment syndrome
D) Radial nerve injury

Answer 84

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome

Question 85

How is aphasia most commonly assessed?
A) MRI scan
B) CT scan
C) Speech evaluation
D) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

Answer 85

C) Speech evaluation

Question 86

What is the best dietary recommendation for managing hypertension?
A) Low carbohydrate diet
B) High protein diet
C) Low sodium diet
D) High fiber diet

Answer 86

C) Low sodium diet

Question 87

Which hormone significantly affects metabolism and is primarily produced by the thyroid gland?
A) Cortisol
B) Insulin
C) Thyroxine (T4)
D) Glucagon

Answer 87

C) Thyroxine (T4)

Question 88

What is the main treatment goal for congestive heart failure?
A) To reduce blood pressure
B) To decrease heart rate
C) To improve cardiac output
D) To increase fluid retention

Answer 88

C) To improve cardiac output

Question 89

Which joint is primarily affected in gout?
A) Knee
B) Wrist
C) Ankle
D) Big toe

Answer 89

D) Big toe

Question 90

What is the most common initial symptom of a herniated disc in the lumbar region?
A) Numbness in the legs
B) Severe lower back pain
C) Unilateral leg pain
D) Loss of bladder control

Answer 90

C) Unilateral leg pain

Question 91

Which type of hepatitis is primarily transmitted through fecal-oral contamination?
A) Hepatitis A
B) Hepatitis B
C) Hepatitis C
D) Hepatitis D

Answer 91

A) Hepatitis A

Question 92

What does a positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist indicate?

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome
B) Tarsal tunnel syndrome
C) Ulnar nerve entrapment
D) Sciatica

Answer 92

A) Carpal tunnel syndrome

Question 93

Which pulmonary function test result is indicative of obstructive lung disease?
A) Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio
B) Increased TLC
C) Decreased RV
D) Increased VC

Answer 93

A) Decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

Question 94

What is the primary therapeutic use of digoxin?
A) To control blood pressure
B) To regulate heart rhythm
C) To dilate blood vessels
D) To decrease cholesterol levels

Answer 94

B) To regulate heart rhythm

Question 95

Which condition is primarily assessed using the Glasgow Coma Scale?
A) Stroke
B) Concussion
C) Epilepsy
D) Migraine

Answer 95

B) Concussion

Question 96

What are the common clinical features of Parkinson’s disease?
A) Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia
B) Muscle weakness, atrophy, and fasciculations
C) Joint pain, stiffness, and swelling
D) Memory loss, disorientation, and mood swings

Answer 96

A) Tremor, rigidity, and bradykinesia

Question 97

What is the primary action for managing a patient with suspected meningitis in an emergency setting?
A) Immediate lumbar puncture
B) Start antibiotic therapy
C) Administer antiviral medications
D) Conduct a CT scan

Answer 97

B) Start antibiotic therapy

Question 98

What diagnostic test is most effective for confirming a diagnosis of multiple sclerosis?
A) Lumbar puncture
B) MRI
C) CT scan
D) Blood test

Answer 98

B) MRI

Question 99

What is a characteristic feature of rheumatoid arthritis compared to osteoarthritis?
A) Asymmetric joint involvement
B) Erosive joint damage visible on X-ray
C) Morning stiffness lasting more than one hour
D) Pain that worsens with activity

Answer 99

C) Morning stiffness lasting more than one hour

Question 100

What hormone is released in response to high plasma calcium levels?
A) Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
B) Calcitonin
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol

Answer 100

B) Calcitonin

Question 101

How does Botox function at the neuromuscular junction?
A) Enhances acetylcholine release
B) Blocks acetylcholine release
C) Blocks sodium channels
D) Increases calcium influx

Answer 101

B) Blocks acetylcholine release

Question 102

Which condition might involve symptoms of sensory ataxia, vertigo, and dysarthria, suggesting brainstem involvement?
A) Peripheral neuropathy
B) Multiple sclerosis
C) Brainstem lesion
D) Cerebellar degeneration

Answer 102

C) Brainstem lesion

Question 103

For a patient with suspected Clostridioides difficile, what is the correct method for doffing PPE?
A) Gloves first, then gown
B) Gown first, then gloves
C) Mask first, then gloves
D) Gloves, gown, mask in any order

Answer 103

A) Gloves first, then gown

Question 104

What is the typical progression of Guillain-Barre syndrome in terms of muscle weakness recovery?
A) Distal to proximal
B) Proximal to distal
C) Unilateral progression
D) No typical progression pattern

Answer 104

B) Proximal to distal

Question 105

What does a slide board primarily assist with for a patient with non-weight bearing status in both legs?
A) Mobility
B) Stability
C) Transfers
D) Pain management

Answer 105

C) Transfers

Question 106

What is a major risk factor for a Clostridioides difficile (C. diff) infection?
A) Antibiotic usage
B) Vaccination
C) Poor hygiene
D) Immunosuppressive drugs

Answer 106

A) Antibiotic usage

Question 107

Which type of precaution is most critical for managing a patient with tuberculosis?
A) Droplet
B) Contact
C) Airborne
D) Standard

Answer 107

C) Airborne

Question 108

How is Botox primarily used in clinical treatment?
A) To reduce wrinkles
B) To decrease muscle spasticity
C) To enhance muscle growth
D) To treat infections

Answer 108

B) To decrease muscle spasticity

Question 109

What is the initial clinical approach to handling a patient suspected of having a myocardial infarction?
A) Wait and see
B) Perform an ECG
C) Administer anticoagulants
D) Provide reassurance

Answer 109

B) Perform an ECG

Question 110

Which diagnostic test is crucial for identifying active neurological lesions in multiple sclerosis?
A) Spinal tap
B) CT scan
C) MRI
D) EEG

Answer 110

C) MRI

Question 111

What is the most effective management strategy for chronic tendon injuries?
A) Corticosteroid injections
B) Surgery
C) Eccentric loading exercises
D) Rest

Answer 111

C) Eccentric loading exercises

Question 112

Which assessment tool is used to measure cognitive impairment in stroke patients?
A) MMSE
B) MoCA
C) Glasgow Coma Scale
D) Barthel Index

Answer 112

B) MoCA

Question 113

What is the primary function of the tibial nerve?
A) Control of plantar flexion
B) Sensation to the heel
C) Control of dorsiflexion
D) Sensation to the dorsal foot

Answer 113

A) Control of plantar flexion

Question 114

In terms of hip surgery, what does the term “posterior approach” primarily refer to?
A) Surgical visualization
B) Rehabilitation protocol
C) Incision site
D) Risk of dislocation

Answer 114

C) Incision site

Question 115

Which condition is specifically indicated by a positive Hawkins-Kennedy test?
A) Rotator cuff tear
B) Impingement syndrome
C) Bicep tendonitis
D) AC joint injury

Answer 115

B) Impingement syndrome

Question 116

What is the therapeutic goal of using diathermy in physical therapy?
A) Decrease inflammation
B) Increase muscle strength
C) Increase tissue extensibility
D) Decrease tissue sensitivity

Answer 116

C) Increase tissue extensibility

Question 117

What movement is the peroneal nerve primarily responsible for?
A) Eversion of the foot
B) Inversion of the foot
C) Plantar flexion
D) Dorsiflexion

Answer 117

A) Eversion of the foot

Question 118

Which lab value is typically elevated in a patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Blood urea nitrogen
D) Hemoglobin A1c

Answer 118

D) Hemoglobin A1c

Question 119

What is the primary benefit of using a tilt table for a patient with cardiovascular instability?
A) Reduce swelling
B) Improve respiratory function
C) Increase muscle tone
D) Gradual acclimatization to an upright position

Answer 119

D) Gradual acclimatization to an upright position

Question 120

Which clinical finding is indicative of a lower motor neuron lesion?
A) Hyperreflexia
B) Clonus
C) Babinski sign
D) Muscle atrophy

Answer 120

D) Muscle atrophy

Question 121

What is the key characteristic of pain associated with gallstones?
A) Radiates to the right shoulder
B) Improves with eating
C) Associated with lower back pain
D) Decreases with movement

Answer 121

A) Radiates to the right shoulder

Question 122

Which medication is typically used to manage spasticity in neurological conditions?
A) Opioids
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Baclofen
D) Acetaminophen

Answer 122

C) Baclofen

Question 123

How is the effectiveness of a Parkinson’s disease medication regimen typically assessed in clinical practice?
A) PET scans
B) Dopamine levels
C) Patient-reported symptom improvement
D) MRI

Answer 123

C) Patient-reported symptom improvement

Question 124

What management strategy is most effective for chronic tendon injuries?
A) NSAIDs
B) Corticosteroid injections
C) Eccentric loading exercises
D) Surgical intervention

Answer 124

C) Eccentric loading exercises

Question 125

Which medication is typically used to manage spasticity in neurological conditions?
A) Opioids
B) Benzodiazepines
C) Baclofen
D) Acetaminophen

Answer 125

C) Baclofen

Question 126

What is the normative temperature range for adults?
a) 95-100°F
b) 96.8-99.3°F
c) 97-100.4°F
d) 98.6-100.6°F

Answer 126

b) 96.8-99.3°F

Question 127

Which of the following is not an example of a disease requiring droplet precautions?
a) Strep throat
b) Influenza (flu)
c) COVID-19
d) Tuberculosis (TB)

Answer 127

d) Tuberculosis (TB)

Question 128

At what pulse oximetry level would a patient be considered to have hypoxemia?
a) Below 95%
b) Below 90%
c) Below 85%
d) Below 80%

Answer 128

b) Below 90%

Question 129

What is the normal respiratory rate for adults?
a) 10-20/min
b) 12-18/min
c) 15-25/min
d) 20-30/min

Answer 129

b) 12-18/min

Question 130

Which of the following is not a factor affecting blood pressure measurement?
a) Age
b) Emotional status
c) Room lighting
d) Medications

Answer 130

c) Room lighting

Question 131

What is the purpose of ramps?
a) To provide access to buildings for wheelchairs
b) To provide seating for individuals with disabilities
c) To serve as handrails for staircases
d) To support parallel bars for physical therapy

Answer 131

a) To provide access to buildings for wheelchairs

Question 132

According to the ADA, what qualifies an individual as a “qualified individual with a disability”?
a) They must be able to perform all job functions without any assistance.
b) They must have a disability that severely limits their daily activities.
c) They must be able to perform the essential functions of a job with or without reasonable accommodations.
d) They must be able to work full-time without any adaptations.

Answer 132

c) They must be able to perform the essential functions of a job with or without reasonable accommodations.

Question 133

What is the minimum width needed for an ambulatory person to pass a wheelchair?
a) 24 inches
b) 36 inches
c) 48 inches
d) 60 inches

Answer 133

c) 48 inches

Question 134

What is the primary purpose of wearing gloves as part of personal protective equipment (PPE)?
a) To protect against airborne pathogens
b) To prevent the spread of droplet infections
c) To provide a barrier against contact with bodily fluids or contaminated surfaces
d) To shield the eyes from potential hazards

Answer 134

c) To provide a barrier against contact with bodily fluids or contaminated surfaces

Question 135

Which of the following is not listed as a component of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) model?
a) Environmental factors
b) Personal factors
c) Genetic factors
d) Body structures

Answer 135

c) Genetic factors

Question 136

According to the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA), what constitutes an undue burden for employers in providing reasonable accommodations?
a) Any accommodation that requires additional resources
b) An action that significantly impacts workplace productivity
c) Modifications that cause minor inconvenience to other employees
d) Changes that pose significant difficulty or expense to the employer

Answer 136

d) Changes that pose significant difficulty or expense to the employer

Question 137

What is the minimum recommended width for a wheelchair ramp?
a) 24 inches
b) 30 inches
c) 36 inches
d) 48 inches

Answer 137

c) 36 inches

Question 138

Which of the following is not listed as a type of wheelchair cushion in the text?
a) Contoured foam
b) Air cushion
c) Memory foam
d) Fluid/gel or fluid/gel/plus foam

Answer 138

c) Memory foam

Question 139

What is the primary function of parallel bars in rehabilitation settings?
a) To assist patients in ascending and descending stairs
b) To provide stability and support during ambulation training
c) To facilitate wheelchair transfers
d) To measure the patient’s balance and coordination

Answer 139

b) To provide stability and support during ambulation training

Question 140

What is the significance of the term “Cycle of Cross Contamination and Infection” in healthcare settings?
a) It describes the transmission route of airborne pathogens
b) It outlines the steps involved in hand hygiene practices
c) It illustrates how infections spread from one host to another
d) It defines the process of sterilizing medical equipment

Answer 140

c) It illustrates how infections spread from one host to another

Question 141

What is the primary purpose of gowning when following contact precautions?
a) To protect against droplet transmission
b) To prevent direct contact with infectious agents
c) To shield the eyes from potential hazards
d) To filter airborne pathogens

Answer 141

b) To prevent direct contact with infectious agents

Question 142

What is the primary purpose of private rooms in infection control?
a) To provide comfort to patients
b) To prevent the spread of infectious diseases
c) To maximize patient interaction
d) To optimize resource utilization

Answer 142

b) To prevent the spread of infectious diseases

Question 143

What is the primary purpose of contact guarding during patient assistance?
a) To provide emotional support to patients
b) To prevent falls during ambulation
c) To ensure patient safety and stability
d) To maintain proper alignment of assistive devices

Answer 143

b) To prevent falls during ambulation and c) To ensure patient safety and stability

Question 144

What is the primary purpose of the International Classification of Functioning, Disability, and Health (ICF) model?
a) To standardize medical terminology
b) To assess the degree of disability
c) To evaluate environmental barriers
d) To understand the interaction between health conditions and environmental factors

Answer 144

d) To understand the interaction between health conditions and environmental factors

Question 145

What is the primary function of the integumentary system?
a) Digestion
b) Blood circulation
c) Temperature regulation
d) Vision

Answer 145

c) Temperature regulation

Question 146

What are the core vital signs typically monitored in cardiopulmonary care in the acute setting?
a) Blood glucose level, respiratory rate, pulse rate
b) Heart rate, blood pressure, edema
c) Temperature, respiratory rate, blood oxygen saturation
d) Muscle strength, joint range of motion, pain level

Answer 146

b) Heart rate, blood pressure, edema

Question 147

What is orthostatic hypotension?
a) A sudden increase in blood pressure due to peripheral vasoconstriction
b) A condition characterized by excessive sweating during orthostatic exercises
c) A significant drop in blood pressure upon standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting
d) A rise in heart rate during periods of prolonged standing

Answer 147

c) A significant drop in blood pressure upon standing up, leading to dizziness or fainting

Question 148

What are the positive indicators of orthostatic hypotension?
a) Decrease in systolic blood pressure (SBP) by 10 mm Hg or more
b) Increase in diastolic blood pressure (DBP) by 20 mm Hg or more
c) Increase in heart rate by 5 beats per minute or more
d) Decrease in heart rate by 10 beats per minute or more

Answer 148

a) Decrease in systolic blood pressure (SBP) by 10 mm Hg or more

Question 149

What are the post sternotomy precautions?
a) Limiting shoulder flexion beyond 90 degrees
b) Avoid pushing and pulling with the arms
c) Avoiding heavy lifting over 20 pounds
d) All of the above

Answer 149

d) All of the above

Question 150

What are the posterior hip precautions?
a) No hip extension past neutral
b) No hip abduction past midline
c) No hip external rotation
d) No hip flexion greater than 90 degrees

Answer 150

d) No hip flexion greater than 90 degrees

Question 151

Which laboratory value indicates a critical condition if it falls below 2,500 or rises above 30,000?
a) White blood cells (leukocytes)
b) Hemoglobin
c) Hematocrit
d) Platelet count

Answer 151

a) White blood cells (leukocytes)

Question 152

What is the purpose of spinal precautions?
a) To prevent twisting and bending of the spine
b) To promote flexibility and mobility of the spine
c) To strengthen the muscles surrounding the spine
d) To increase intra-abdominal pressure extensively

Answer 152

a) To prevent twisting and bending of the spine

Question 153

What is the National Institutes of Health Stroke Scale (NIHSS) used for?
a) To assess orthostatic hypotension
b) To measure laboratory values
c) To evaluate the severity of stroke symptoms
d) To monitor core vital signs

Answer 153

c) To evaluate the severity of stroke symptoms

Question 154

What is the average length of stay in an Inpatient Rehab Facility (IRF) or Acute Rehab Facility (ARF)?
a) 5 days
b) 10 days
c) 13.1 days
d) 20 days

Answer 154

c) 13.1 days

Question 155

What is the primary purpose of differential diagnosis?
a) To classify an individual into a diagnostic category
b) To provide relief from difficult or unpleasant tasks
c) To identify problems experienced in life situations
d) To systematically differentiate between potential diagnoses

Answer 155

d) To systematically differentiate between potential diagnosis

Question 156

What are the benefits of early range of motion (ROM), strength, and mobility training in amputation management?
a) To increase intra-abdominal pressure extensively
b) To avoid hip and knee flexion positioning
c) To promote edema control and avoid contractures
d) To decrease blood circulation and prevent clotting

Answer 156

c) To promote edema control and avoid contractures

Question 157

What is the purpose of discharge planning from acute care?
a) To provide inpatient services to clients with unstable medical conditions
b) To ensure patients remain in the hospital for extended periods
c) To reduce hospital length of stay and prevent patient readmission
d) To offer respite care for caregivers of patients with chronic conditions

Answer 157

c) To reduce hospital length of stay and prevent patient readmission

Question 158

What are the primary functions of long-term care facilities (LTC)?
a) To provide temporary relief from difficult or unpleasant tasks
b) To offer private pay options for short-term stays
c) To assist patients in managing independent living safely
d) To provide supervised living arrangements for those unable to live independently

Answer 158

d) To provide supervised living arrangements for those unable to live independently

Question 159

What is the primary purpose of respite care?
a) To provide a short period of relief from difficult or unpleasant tasks
b) To offer inpatient care with 24-hour nursing supervision
c) To deliver skilled nursing and rehabilitation services in the home setting
d) To ensure patients remain homebound during treatment

Answer 159

a) To provide a short period of relief from difficult or unpleasant tasks

Question 160

What is the purpose of the PT’s responsibility in observing general skin conditions?
a) To diagnose skin abnormalities as benign or cancerous
b) To provide medical treatment for skin lesions
c) To bring awareness of any skin abnormality to the patient and document it objectively
d) To prevent skin conditions from occurring in the first place

Answer 160

c) To bring awareness of any skin abnormality to the patient and document it objectively

Question 161

What is the role of physical therapy diagnosis?
a) To treat specific medical conditions or pathologies
b) To define how a health condition affects a person’s function and causes disability
c) To provide surgical interventions for musculoskeletal injuries
d) To manage acute medical conditions in the ICU

Answer 161

b) To define how a health condition affects a person’s function and causes disability

Question 162

What are the primary components of the ICF model?
a) Vital signs, lab values, and imaging results
b) Body functions, activity limitations, and participation restrictions
c) Environmental barriers, personal factors, and demographic information
d) Disease classifications, differential diagnoses, and medical histories

Answer 162

b) Body functions, activity limitations, and participation restrictions

Question 163

What is the purpose of the “heart hugger vest” in post-sternotomy precautions?
a) To provide comfort and emotional support to patients
b) To restrict shoulder flexion and abduction
c) To prevent twisting and bending of the spine
d) To facilitate coughing while splinting the incision site

Answer 163

d) To facilitate coughing while splinting the incision site

Question 164

What distinguishes physical pain from suffering?
a) Physical pain is explained by neurology, while suffering is a state of distress beyond the physical.
b) Physical pain is temporary, while suffering is a chronic condition.
c) Physical pain affects the body, while suffering affects the mind.
d) Physical pain is easily treatable, while suffering requires emotional intervention.

Answer 164

a) Physical pain is explained by neurology, while suffering is a state of distress beyond the physical.

Question 165

What is the primary purpose of an illness narrative?
a) To provide medical documentation for insurance claims
b) To offer sympathy to patients experiencing illness
c) To present a verbal account of one’s experiences of health problems
d) To promote cultural competence among healthcare providers

Answer 165

c) To present a verbal account of one’s experiences of health problems

Question 166

How is compassion defined?
a) A deep caring response to suffering
b) A willingness to treat others as they wish to be treated
c) An emotion of care and concern for others’ difficulties
d) A human propensity to find meaning in life through self-transcendence

Answer 166

a) A deep caring response to suffering

Question 167

What is the role of cultural competence in healthcare?
a) To reinforce stereotypes and prejudices
b) To discriminate against certain patient groups
c) To provide care to patients in cross-cultural situations
d) To ignore the values and beliefs of patients from diverse backgrounds

Answer 167

c) To provide care to patients in cross-cultural situations

Question 168

What is the main goal of the 8 Minute Rule in billing for physical therapy services?
a) To maximize profits for healthcare providers
b) To ensure that patients receive a minimum amount of therapy
c) To regulate the amount of time spent on direct patient care
d) To establish guidelines for documenting skilled interventions

Answer 168

d) To establish guidelines for documenting skilled interventions

Question 169

What is the purpose of the KX modifier in Medicare billing?
a) To indicate that services are medically necessary and justified by documentation
b) To identify services provided by a physical therapist assistant (PTA)
c) To exempt certain patients from therapy caps
d) To distinguish between services provided in different healthcare settings

Answer 169

a) To indicate that services are medically necessary and justified by documentation

Question 170

Which component of scientific integrity emphasizes acting with beneficence toward both humans and research animals?
a) Respect for autonomy
b) Justice
c) Humaneness
d) Honesty

Answer 170

c) Humaneness

Question 171

What is the purpose of the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
a) To reduce workplace hazards and ensure safe working conditions
b) To regulate the billing practices of healthcare providers
c) To protect patients from medical malpractice
d) To establish guidelines for ethical research conduct

Answer 171

a) To reduce workplace hazards and ensure safe working conditions

Question 172

What is the difference between slander and libel?
a) Slander refers to written defamation, while libel refers to spoken defamation.
b) Slander involves monetary awards, while libel involves punitive damages.
c) Slander occurs in civil law cases, while libel occurs in criminal law cases.
d) Slander is transmitted orally or by signing, while libel is transmitted by all other means.

Answer 172

d) Slander is transmitted orally or by signing, while libel is transmitted by all other means.

Question 173

According to the APTA Code of Ethics, what does integrity entail?
a) Being truthful, ensuring fairness, and following through on commitments
b) Placing the needs of patients ahead of self-interest
c) Working together with patients and professionals to achieve shared goals
d) Embracing advancement and challenging mediocrity in practice

Answer 173

a) Being truthful, ensuring fairness, and following through on commitments

Question 174

What is the main purpose of the APTA Code of Ethics?
a) To dictate decision making and behavior with absolute certainty
b) To provide a comprehensive guide for ethical decision making in physical therapy
c) To ensure that physical therapists adhere to federal regulations
d) To offer guidance and framework for professional conduct in physical therapy

Answer 174

d) To offer guidance and framework for professional conduct in physical therapy

Question 175

Which component of the Core Values of physical therapy emphasizes consistently using current knowledge and skills?
a) Accountability
b) Altruism
c) Collaboration
d) Excellence

Answer 175

d) Excellence

Question 176

What is the primary characteristic of direct supervision in physical therapy?
a) The physical therapist must be physically present and immediately available
b) The physical therapist is not required to be on-site but must be available by telecommunication
c) The physical therapist is required to supervise tasks related to patient services
d) The physical therapist must be available to supervise tasks but not necessarily on-site

Answer 176

a) The physical therapist must be physically present and immediately available

Question 177

Which law ensures safe and healthful working conditions for employees by setting and enforcing standards?
a) Occupational Safety and Health Act
b) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
c) Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA)
d) Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

Answer 177

a) Occupational Safety and Health Act

Question 178

What is the primary goal of the 5 Stages of Coping/Grief model?
a) To minimize the grieving process
b) To provide a framework for resolving ethical dilemmas
c) To guide individuals through the emotional response to loss
d) To establish standards for cultural competence in healthcare

Answer 178

c) To guide individuals through the emotional response to loss

Question 179

How are episodic conflicts of interest different from systemic conflicts of interest?
a) Episodic conflicts arise from choices made voluntarily, while systemic conflicts arise from the structure of the profession
b) Episodic conflicts are more common in healthcare settings, while systemic conflicts are more common in business ventures
c) Episodic conflicts involve individual decisions, while systemic conflicts involve institutional policies
d) Episodic conflicts have a temporary impact, while systemic conflicts have a lasting effect on the profession

Answer 179

a) Episodic conflicts arise from choices made voluntarily, while systemic conflicts arise from the structure of the profession

Question 180

What is the purpose of the PT Compact?
a) To regulate the practice of physical therapy in member states
b) To provide a comprehensive guide for ethical decision-making in physical therapy
c) To offer eligible physical therapists a faster path to licensure in multiple states
d) To establish guidelines for professional conduct in physical therapy

Answer 180

c) To offer eligible physical therapists a faster path to licensure in multiple states

Question 181

What distinguishes defamation of character from other intentional wrongdoings?
a) Defamation of character involves physical harm, while other wrongdoings involve emotional harm
b) Defamation of character requires monetary compensation, while other wrongdoings do not
c) Defamation of character tarnishes someone’s reputation, while other wrongdoings result in physical injury
d) Defamation of character is unintentional, while other wrongdoings are intentional

Answer 181

c) Defamation of character tarnishes someone’s reputation, while other wrongdoings result in physical injury

Question 182

What is the purpose of standard precautions in healthcare settings?
a) To minimize conflicts of interest between healthcare providers
b) To ensure safe and healthful working conditions for employees
c) To protect patients and healthcare providers from exposure to infectious agents
d) To establish guidelines for ethical research conduct

Answer 182

c) To protect patients and healthcare providers from exposure to infectious agents

Question 183

Which ethical theory focuses on the action versus the consequences?
a) Deontological ethics
b) Utilitarianism
c) Virtue ethics
d) Religious ethics

Answer 183

a) Deontological ethics

Question 184

What is the primary function of the Neuromatrix (Pain matrix)?
a) To process sensory information related to pain
b) To activate the body’s immune response to pain
c) To regulate emotional reactions to pain
d) To coordinate pain perception across various brain regions

Answer 184

d) To coordinate pain perception across various brain regions

Question 185

According to the “Mechanotransduction” process, what is the role of the primary cilium in cells?
a) Secreting neurotransmitters
b) Sensing and responding to mechanical loads
c) Regulating gene expression in the nucleus
d) Transmitting electrical impulses to neighboring cells

Answer 185

b) Sensing and responding to mechanical loads

Question 186

Which of the following describes a characteristic of Central Sensitization?
a) Short duration and well-localized pain
b) Pain that follows a dermatomal pattern
c) Chronic pain with no identifiable cause
d) Pain that responds well to conventional analgesics

Answer 186

c) Chronic pain with no identifiable cause

Question 187

What is emphasized in the Biomedical Approach to Pain Management?
a) Addressing the biopsychosocial aspects of pain
b) Encouraging aerobic exercise and healthy lifestyle choices
c) Providing anatomical education about the source of pain
d) Focusing on enhancing the therapeutic alliance with patients

Answer 187

c) Providing anatomical education about the source of pain

Question 188

What is a common effect of prolonged stress on the body’s hormonal system?
a) Increased production of endorphins
b) Activation of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis
c) Decreased levels of cortisol in the bloodstream
d) Regulation of serotonin synthesis in the brain

Answer 188

b) Activation of the hypothalamus-pituitary-adrenal axis

Question 189

What is the primary objective of the Pillars of Pain – Neuroscience Education (PNE)?
a) To promote the use of medication for pain relief
b) To educate patients about the physiological basis of pain
c) To emphasize the importance of surgical interventions for pain management
d) To encourage patients to avoid physical activity to prevent exacerbating pain

Answer 189

b) To educate patients about the physiological basis of pain

Question 190

Which statement accurately describes the role of Dopamine in sleep regulation?
a) Dopamine inhibits sleep-wake cycles and promotes wakefulness
b) Dopamine stimulates the release of melatonin, inducing sleepiness
c) Dopamine plays a key role in the forebrain reward system and regulates sleep
d) Dopamine suppresses the production of neurotransmitters associated with sleep

Answer 190

c) Dopamine plays a key role in the forebrain reward system and regulates sleep

Question 191

What is the primary aim of the Mechanotherapy approach in rehabilitation?
a) To reduce negative affect associated with chronic pain
b) To stimulate endogenous opioid centers for pain relief
c) To promote cellular responses to mechanical loads for tissue adaptation
d) To target specific neurotransmitters involved in pain modulation

Answer 191

c) To promote cellular responses to mechanical loads for tissue adaptation

Question 192

According to the Physical Stress Theory, what happens when stressors exceed the tissue’s maintenance level?
a) Tissue adaptation and increased tolerance occur
b) The tissue becomes atrophic and decreases in tolerance
c) There is no change in tissue or tolerance levels
d) Injury or tissue failure may occur

Answer 192

a) Tissue adaptation and increased tolerance occur

Question 193

What is the primary purpose of goal setting in pain management?
a) To encourage patients to avoid activities that cause pain
b) To provide patients with a sense of control over their pain
c) To prescribe specific medications for pain relief
d) To assess the severity of pain on a numerical scale

Answer 193

b) To provide patients with a sense of control over their pain

Question 194

Which statement accurately describes the role of positive body language in communication?
a) It indicates nervousness or discomfort in the speaker
b) It helps to establish trust and rapport with the listener
c) It suggests indifference or lack of engagement in the conversation
d) It often leads to misunderstandings and misinterpretations

Answer 194

b) It helps to establish trust and rapport with the listener

Question 195

What is the primary focus of the “Avoiders” in pain management?
a) Engaging in physical activity regardless of pain levels
b) Gradually increasing activity levels to build tolerance
c) Avoiding any movement that causes discomfort or pain
d) Seeking immediate relief through medication or surgery

Answer 195

c) Avoiding any movement that causes discomfort or pain

Question 196

What is a common effect of prolonged alcohol consumption on the brain?
a) Increased white matter integrity
b) Enhanced neurotransmitter regulation
c) Reduced hippocampal volume
d) Improved cognitive function

Answer 196

c) Reduced hippocampal volume

Question 197

Which intervention is typically used for addressing scar tissue adhesion in manual therapy?
a) Myofascial release
b) Cross friction
c) Ischemic compression
d) Pin and stretch

Answer 197

b) Cross friction

Question 198

What is the primary objective of exercise interventions in sub-acute rehabilitation?
a) To induce inflammation in the affected tissues
b) To maintain or increase cardiorespiratory fitness
c) To restrict range of motion to prevent further injury
d) To promote passive rest and immobilization of the affected area

Answer 198

b) To maintain or increase cardiorespiratory fitness

Question 199

In the context of bone remodeling, what does Wolff’s Law state?
a) Bone growth occurs in response to mechanical stress
b) Bone loss occurs due to hormonal imbalance
c) Bone density decreases with age
d) Bone mass remains constant throughout life

Answer 199

a) Bone growth occurs in response to mechanical stress

Question 200

According to the “Stimulus-Recovery-Adaptation” model, what occurs immediately following a stressor?
a) Increased tissue resilience
b) Activation of the inflammatory response
c) Decreased cellular communication
d) Impaired neuromuscular control

Answer 200

b) Activation of the inflammatory response

Question 201

Which exercise prescription is recommended for early rehabilitation following injury?
a) High-load, low-repetition exercises
b) Fast-paced, high-intensity workouts
c) Low-load, high-repetition exercises
d) Static stretching and passive range of motion exercises

Answer 201

c) Low-load, high-repetition exercises

Question 202

What type of joint is the humero-ulnar joint?
a) Planar
b) Hinge
c) Ball and socket
d) Saddle

Answer 202

b) Hinge

Question 203

Which movements occur at the glenohumeral joint?
a) Flexion, extension, and rotation
b) Flexion, extension, and adduction
c) Flexion, extension, abduction, and adduction
d) Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, internal rotation, external rotation, horizontal adduction, and abduction

Answer 203

d) Flexion, extension, abduction, adduction, internal rotation, external rotation, horizontal adduction, and abduction

Question 204

The distal radio-ulnar joint allows for which movements?
a) Flexion and extension
b) Pronation and supination
c) Adduction and abduction
d) Inversion and eversion

Answer 204

b) Pronation and supination

Question 205

What is the joint type of the first carpometacarpal joint?
a) Hinge
b) Ellipsoid
c) Saddle
d) Planar

Answer 205

c) Saddle

Question 206

Which joint is primarily responsible for flexion and extension movements in the elbow and forearm?
a) Glenohumeral joint
b) Sternoclavicular joint
c) Humero-ulnar
d) Acromioclavicular joint

Answer 206

c) Humero-ulnar

Question 206

What type of joint is the talocrural joint?
a) Ball and socket
b) Hinge
c) Planar
d) Saddle

Answer 206

b) Hinge

Question 207

Which ligament connects both menisci anteriorly in the knee joint?
a) Transverse ligament
b) Medial collateral ligament
c) Posterior cruciate ligament
d) Anterior cruciate ligament

Answer 207

a) Transverse ligament

Question 208

What is the primary function of the transverse carpal ligament?
a) To stabilize the wrist joint during flexion and extension
b) To connect the ulna and radius bones in the forearm
c) To maintain the position of the carpal bones in the wrist
d) To form the passageway for the median nerve and tendons of extrinsic flexor muscles in the wrist

Answer 208

d) To form the passageway for the median nerve and tendons of extrinsic flexor muscles in the wrist

Question 209

What is the main function of the annulus fibrosus in the spine?
a) To connect adjacent vertebrae
b) To provide flexibility for spinal movements
c) To absorb shock and distribute pressure within the intervertebral discs
d) To maintain the alignment of the vertebral column

Answer 209

c) To absorb shock and distribute pressure within the intervertebral discs

Question 210

Which muscle is responsible for medial rotation of the leg and lateral rotation of the femur?
a) Quadriceps femoris
b) Hamstrings
c) Gastrocnemius
d) Popliteus

Answer 210

d) Popliteus

Question 211

What is the primary role of the screw-home mechanism in the knee joint?
a) To provide stability during weight-bearing activities
b) To lock the knee in full extension
c) To facilitate smooth movements during flexion and extension
d) To prevent excessive lateral movement of the patella

Answer 211

b) To lock the knee in full extension

Question 212

Which structure is primarily responsible for maintaining the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?
a) Plantar fascia
b) Achilles tendon
c) Tibialis anterior muscle
d) Peroneus longus tendon

Answer 212

a) Plantar fascia

Question 213

What is the main function of the t-tubules in muscle cells?
a) To store calcium ions for muscle contraction
b) To transmit action potentials deep into the muscle fiber
c) To regulate the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction
d) To anchor the sarcomeres and maintain the structural integrity of the muscle fiber

Answer 213

b) To transmit action potentials deep into the muscle fiber

Question 214

Which type of muscle fiber is primarily responsible for slow, sustained contractions and is highly resistant to fatigue?
a) Type IIB
b) Type IIX
c) Type I
d) Type IIA

Answer 214

c) Type 1

Question 215

Which type of loading occurs when force is applied parallel to the surface of a structure, causing it to slide in opposite directions?
a) Compression
b) Tension
c) Shear
d) Bending

Answer 215

c) Shear

Question 216

In the spine, what is the main function of the apophyseal joints?
a) To provide stability and support for the vertebral column
b) To allow for flexion and extension movements between adjacent vertebrae
c) To distribute body weight evenly across the intervertebral discs
d) To guide and limit the range of motion in different planes

Answer 216

d) To guide and limit the range of motion in different planes

Question 217

Which joint allows for the greatest range of motion in the human body?
a) Glenohumeral joint
b) Hip joint
c) Elbow joint
d) Knee joint

Answer 217

b) Hip joint

Question 218

What are the primary functions of epithelial tissue?
a) Contraction and movement
b) Secretion and absorption
c) Storage and support
d) Protection and insulation

Answer 218

b) Secretion and absorption

Question 219

Describe the shapes and layers of epithelial tissue.
a) Squamous, cuboidal, and stratified
b) Spherical, cylindrical, and pseudostratified
c) Circular, triangular, and monolayered
d) Hexagonal, columnar, and bilayered

Answer 219

a) Squamous, cuboidal, and stratified

Question 220

Explain the difference between atrophy and hypertrophy.
a) Atrophy is tissue enlargement, while hypertrophy is tissue shrinkage.
b) Atrophy is tissue shrinkage, while hypertrophy is tissue enlargement.
c) Atrophy involves tissue hardening, while hypertrophy involves tissue softening.
d) Atrophy involves tissue regeneration, while hypertrophy involves tissue degeneration.

Answer 220

b) Atrophy is tissue shrinkage, while hypertrophy is tissue enlargement.

Question 221

What are the phases of wound healing?
a) Inflammatory, regenerative, and maturation phases
b) Proliferative, degenerative, and fibrotic phases
c) Inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling phases
d) Regenerative, fibrotic, and degenerative phases

Answer 221

c) Inflammatory, proliferative, and remodeling phases

Question 222

Define inflammation and describe its role in the body.
a) Inflammation is the process of muscle contraction, aiding in movement.
b) Inflammation is the release of neurotransmitters at the neuromuscular junction.
c) Inflammation is a normal physiological process involved in protection and repair.
d) Inflammation is the breakdown of bone tissue, leading to osteoporosis.

Answer 222

c) Inflammation is a normal physiological process involved in protection and repair.

Question 223

What are the primary types of muscle tissue, and what are their characteristics?
a) Smooth, rough, and striated muscles; voluntary and involuntary movement
b) Cardiac, skeletal, and smooth muscles; contraction and relaxation
c) Cardiac, rough, and smooth muscles; multinucleated fibers
d) Skeletal, striated, and voluntary muscles; found in the heart and blood vessels

Answer 223

b) Cardiac, skeletal, and smooth muscles; contraction and relaxation

Question 224

Describe the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
a) Muscles contract when the filaments slide apart.
b) Muscles contract when the filaments slide together.
c) Muscles contract when the filaments twist around each other.
d) Muscles contract when the filaments elongate.

Answer 224

b) Muscles contract when the filaments slide together.

Question 225

What are the main functions of the liver, and what clinical manifestations are associated with liver disease or failure?
a) Digestion and nutrient absorption; symptoms include diarrhea and weight loss
b) Detoxification and bile production; symptoms include jaundice and ascites
c) Gas exchange and oxygen transport; symptoms include shortness of breath and chest pain
d) Hormone regulation and blood sugar control; symptoms include excessive thirst and frequent urination

Answer 225

b) Detoxification and bile production; symptoms include jaundice and ascites

Question 226

Explain the pathophysiology of pancreatitis and its common causes.
a) Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas caused by excessive alcohol consumption or gallstones.
b) Pancreatitis is a genetic disorder characterized by abnormal bone growth and heart enlargement.
c) Pancreatitis is the result of bacterial infection in the pancreas due to poor hygiene practices.
d) Pancreatitis is inflammation of the liver caused by viral infections or autoimmune disorders.

Answer 226

a) Pancreatitis is inflammation of the pancreas caused by excessive alcohol consumption or gallstones.

Question 227

Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Marfan syndrome?
a) Short stature and stocky build
b) Extremely short arms and legs
c) Crowded teeth and narrow palate
d) Tall and slender build, disproportionately long arms, legs, and fingers

Answer 227

d) Tall and slender build, disproportionately long arms, legs, and fingers

Question 228

What is the primary function of fibroblasts during wound healing?
a) Lay down new connective tissue
b) Secrete collagen and elastin
c) Transport oxygen in the blood
d) Form red blood cells

Answer 228

a) Lay down new connective tissue

Question 229

Which type of anemia is characterized by a deficiency in vitamin B12 or folic acid?
a) Iron-deficiency anemia
b) Hemolytic anemia
c) Megaloblastic anemia
d) Sickle cell anemia

Answer 229

c) Megaloblastic anemia

Question 230

What is the main role of erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) in inflammation?
a) Measures the concentration of white blood cells
b) Indicates the level of iron in the blood
c) Assesses the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube of blood
d) Determines the oxygen-carrying capacity of hemoglobin

Answer 230

c) Assesses the rate at which red blood cells settle in a tube of blood

Question 231

Which phase of wound healing involves the formation of granulation tissue and re-epithelialization?
a) Inflammatory phase
b) Proliferative phase
c) Remodeling phase
d) Hemostasis phase

Answer 231

b) Proliferative phase

Question 232

What is the primary role of the pancreas in digestion?
a) Production of bile for fat digestion
b) Secretion of insulin for blood sugar regulation
c) Synthesis of digestive enzymes for protein breakdown
d) Absorption of nutrients in the small intestine

Answer 232

c) Synthesis of digestive enzymes for protein breakdown

Question 233

What is the function of aldosterone in the body?
a) Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion
b) Stimulates glucose uptake in cells
c) Regulates blood pressure by constricting blood vessels
d) Promotes the breakdown of glycogen into glucose

Answer 233

a) Increases sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion

Question 234

What is the characteristic feature of Cushing’s disease?
a) Excessive production of growth hormone
b) Decreased secretion of cortisol
c) Overactivity of the adrenal glands
d) Hypofunction of the thyroid gland

Answer 234

c) Overactivity of the adrenal glands

Question 235

What is the primary function of the pituitary gland?
a) Regulation of blood calcium levels
b) Production of insulin
c) Secretion of growth hormone
d) Synthesis of thyroid hormones

Answer 235

c) Secretion of growth hormone

Question 236

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for “fight or flight” responses?
a) Parasympathetic
b) Sympathetic
c) Somatic
d) Enteric

Answer 236

b) Sympathetic

Question 237

Which hormone is released by the posterior pituitary gland?
a) Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
b) Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)
c) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
d) Growth Hormone (GH)

Answer 237

c) Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

Question 238

What is the main site of gas exchange in the lungs?
a) Bronchioles
b) Capilaries
c) Trachea
d) Pleura

Answer 238

b) Capilaries

Question 239

Which hormone is responsible for increasing blood calcium levels by breaking down stored calcium in the bones?
a) Calcitonin
b) Parathyroid hormone
c) Thyroid hormone
d) Adrenaline

Answer 239

b) Parathyroid hormone

Question 240

What is the function of surfactant in the respiratory system?
a) Breaks down proteins
b) Prevents fluid accumulation in the lungs
c) Breaks surface tension in alveoli
d) Stimulates mucus production

Answer 240

c) Breaks surface tension in alveoli

Question 241

Which chamber of the heart receives blood from the pulmonary veins?
a) Right atrium
b) Left atrium
c) Right ventricle
d) Left ventricle

Answer 241

b) Left atrium

Question 242

Which valve prevents backflow of blood from the left ventricle into the left atrium?
a) Aortic valve
b) Pulmonary valve
c) Mitral valve
d) Tricuspid valve

Answer 242

c) Mitral valve

Question 243

What is the function of the SA node in the heart?
a) Delays the electrical signal
b) Sends electrical signals to the ventricles
c) Controls the heart rate
d) Receives blood from the lungs

Answer 243

c) Controls the heart rate

Question 244

What is the pathway of urine through the nephron?
a) Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule
b) Distal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, proximal convoluted tubule, Bowman’s capsule
c) Loop of Henle, Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule
d) Proximal convoluted tubule, Bowman’s capsule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule

Answer 244

a) Bowman’s capsule, proximal convoluted tubule, loop of Henle, distal convoluted tubule

Question 245

Which division of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for “rest and digest” responses?
a) Sympathetic
b) Parasympathetic
c) Somatic
d) Enteric

Answer 245

b) Parasympathetic

Question 245

What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
a) Transporting oxygen to cells
b) Maintaining fluid balance in the body
c) Producing hormones
d) Regulating body temperature

Answer 245

b) Maintaining fluid balance in the body

Question 246

Which hormone is released by the adrenal cortex to help regulate blood pressure and electrolyte balance?
a) Adrenaline
b) Aldosterone
c) Cortisol
d) Thyroxine

Answer 246

b) Aldosterone

Question 247

What is the primary function of the semicircular canals in the vestibular system?
a) Hearing
b) Balance and spatial orientation
c) Vision
d) Taste

Answer 247

b) Balance and spatial orientation

Question 248

Which layer of the skin contains collagen and elastin fibers that provide structure and elasticity? (I don’t like this question)
a) Papillary layer
b) Epidermis
c) Reticular layer
d) Dermis

Answer 248

a) Papillary layer

Question 249

What is the function of the pancreas in the digestive system?
a) Producing bile
b) Absorbing nutrients
c) Regulating blood sugar levels
d) Secreting digestive enzymes

Answer 249

d) Secreting digestive enzymes

Question 250

Which hormone is responsible for stimulating red blood cell production in the bone marrow?
a) Insulin
b) Estrogen
c) Epinephrine
d) Erythropoietin

Answer 250

d) Erythropoietin

Question 251

What is the role of the nephron in the excretory system?
a) Producing urine
b) Absorbing nutrients
c) Regulating blood pressure
d) Secreting hormones

Answer 251

a) Producing urine

Question 252

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract is responsible for the absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream?
a) Stomach
b) Small intestine
c) Large intestine
d) Esophagus

Answer 252

b) Small intestine
Specifically the Jejunum

Question 253

What does Mauchly’s W assess in the context of statistical analysis?
a) Probability of type 1 error
b) Equal variances for repeated measures ANOVA
c) Correlation coefficient
d) Measure of internal consistency

Answer 253

b) Equal variances for repeated measures ANOVA

Question 254

In statistical analysis, what does the p-value represent?
a) Strength of correlation
b) Probability of type 1 error
c) Likelihood of detecting a true positive
d) Number needed to treat

Answer 254

b) Probability of type 1 error

Question 255

What is the primary function of Cronbach’s alpha?
a) Measure of internal consistency
b) Diagnostic accuracy
c) Effect size for ANOVA
d) Probability of type 2 error

Answer 255

a) Measure of internal consistency

Question 256

When interpreting a 95% confidence interval, what does it signify?
a) The probability of detecting a true positive
b) The range of values containing the confidence interval
c) Likelihood of detecting a true negative
d) Measure of internal consistency

Answer 256

b) The range of values containing the confidence interval

Question 257

What is the primary purpose of the Levene’s test in statistical analysis?
a) Assessing the likelihood of detecting a true negative
b) Evaluating the strength of correlation
c) Checking for equal variances
d) Measuring diagnostic accuracy

Answer 257

c) Checking for equal variances

Question 258

What does the negative likelihood ratio represent in statistical analysis?
a) Measure of internal consistency
b) Likelihood that a person who tests negative has the condition
c) Effect size for ANOVA
d) Number needed to harm

Answer 258

b) Likelihood that a person who tests negative has the condition

Question 259

In statistical analysis, what does the positive likelihood ratio indicate?
a) Strength of correlation
b) Likelihood of detecting a true positive
c) The likelihood that a person who tests positive has the condition
d) Diagnostic accuracy

Answer 259

c) The likelihood that a person who tests positive has the condition

Question 260

What is the purpose of the sensitivity measure in diagnostic accuracy?
a) Assessing the strength of correlation
b) Evaluating the probability of type 1 error
c) Measuring the likelihood of detecting a true positive
d) Checking for equal variances

Answer 260

c) Measuring the likelihood of detecting a true positive

Question 261

What does specificity measure in diagnostic accuracy represent?
a) Probability of type 1 error
b) Likelihood of detecting a true negative
c) Measure of internal consistency
d) Effect size for ANOVA

Answer 261

b) Likelihood of detecting a true negative

Question 262

What statistical measure represents the likelihood that a person who tests negative has the condition?
a) Positive likelihood ratio
b) Negative likelihood ratio
c) Cohen’s d
d) Eta squared

Answer 262

b) Negative likelihood ratio

Question 263

What does the term “point estimate” represent in statistical analysis?
a) The probability of type 1 error
b) A range of values that contains the confidence interval
c) The likelihood of detecting a true positive
d) A single value representing the best estimate of the population value

Answer 263

d) A single value representing the best estimate of the population value

Question 264

Which statistical measure is used to evaluate the strength of correlations?
a) Odds ratio
b) Eta squared
c) Cohen’s d
d) Correlation coefficient

Answer 264

d) Correlation coefficient

Question 265

What does the p-value represent in statistical analysis?
a) Equal variances
b) Probability of type 1 error
c) Measure of internal consistency
d) Sensitivity

Answer 265

b) Probability of type 1 error

Question 266

What is the primary purpose of confidence intervals in statistical analysis?
a) To assess the strength of correlation
b) To measure the likelihood of detecting a true positive
c) To provide a range of values containing the confidence interval
d) To evaluate internal consistency

Answer 266

c) To provide a range of values containing the confidence interval

Question 267

Which statistical test is used for independent groups in ANOVA?
a) Tukey’s HSD
b) Sidak’s
c) Fisher’s
d) Bonferroni

Answer 267

a) Tukey’s HSD

Question 268

What measure is used to determine the number of patients needed to treat to avoid one poor outcome?
a) Odds ratio
b) Relative risk
c) Number needed to treat
d) Number needed to harm

Answer 268

c) Number needed to treat

Question 269

Which measure assesses the probability of type 2 error in statistical analysis?
a) Odds ratio
b) Sensitivity
c) Beta
d) Confidence interval

Answer 269

c) Beta