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SPORT SCIENCE > YEAR 2 PHYSIOLOGY > Flashcards

YEAR 2 PHYSIOLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q

What is human physiology

A

The science of how humans’ function in an integrated way and is the basis for many biological and clinical sciences

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2
Q

what is exercise physiology

A

The branch of the biological sciences that is concerned with the way that the body responds to exercise and training

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3
Q

what is homeostasis

A
  • Maintenance of a constant and normal internal environment

- All variables of physiological mechanisms must operate within a narrow range of values

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4
Q

what is steady state exercise

A
  • Physiological variable (HR) is unchanging but not necessarily normal, plateau on graph
  • Balance between demands placed on body and the body’s response to those demands
  • Eg; HR, Body temp, Arterial BP
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5
Q

at rest what does arterial blood pressure do

A

fluctuates

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6
Q

at rest what does mean blood pressure do

A

stays constant due to baroreflex responses and kidney function

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7
Q

what are intracellular control systems

A
  • protein breakdown and synthesis
  • energy production
  • maintenance of stored nutrients
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8
Q

what are organ systems

A
  • pulmonary and circulatory systems

- replenish oxygen and remove carbon dioxide

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9
Q

in a biological control system what is a sensor for

A

detects change in a variable

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10
Q

in a biological control system what is a control centre for

A

asses input and initiates the response

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11
Q

in a biological control system what is an effector for

A

changes internal environment back to normal

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12
Q

what is negative feedback

A
  • Acts to reduce an effect. When a change occurs in a system it opposes that change and restores the controlled variable back to its usual value
  • Eg; respiratory systems control of CO2 conc in extracellular fluid
    1. Increase in extracellular CO2 triggers a receptor
    2. Sends info to respiratory control centre
    3. Respiratory muscles are activated to increase breathing
    4. CO2 conc returns to normal
    Most control systems work via negative feedback
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13
Q

what is positive feedback

A
  • Acts to increase an effect. When a change occurs, it becomes amplified
  • Eg; childbirth
    1. Initiation of childbirth stimulates receptors in cervix and sends message to brain to release oxytocin from pituitary gland
    2. Oxytocin promotes increased uterine contractions
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14
Q

what is gain

A

sensitivity of the response

  • Degree to which a control system maintains homeostasis
  • Pulmonary and cardiovascular systems have large gains (thus more capable of maintaining homeostasis)
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15
Q

what happens to homeostasis at exercise

A
  • Exercise disrupts homeostasis by changes in pH, PO2, PCO2 and temperature in cells
  • Inability to maintain steady state = fatigue and end of exercise
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16
Q

what is adaptation

A

o Changes in structure and function of cell or organ system
o Results in improved ability to maintain homeostasis
o Many adaptive changes occur within cells

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17
Q

what is acclimatisation

A

o Adaptation to environmental stresses (e.g. heat or hypoxic stress)
o Results in improved function of existing homeostatic system

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18
Q

what is exercise enduced hormesis

A

process in which a low to moderate dose of a potentially harmful stress (for example a chemical agent or environmental stress) results in a beneficial adaptive response on the cell or organ system.

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19
Q

what is the function of cell signalling

A

-communication between cells using chemical messengers
-coordinates cellular activities
-important for maintaining homeostasis
five different cell signalling pathways exist in cells

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20
Q

what is intracrine signalling

A

Chemical messengers inside cell triggers response

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21
Q

what is juxtacrine signalling

A

chemical messengers passed between 2 CONNECTED cells

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22
Q

what is autocrine signalling

A

chemical messengers acts on that same cell

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23
Q

what is paracrine signalling

A

chemical messengers acts on nearby cells

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24
Q

what is endocrine signalling

A

chemical messengers (that is hormones) released into blood. (affects cells with specific receptor to the hormone)

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25
Q

what is laboratory research

A

data collection on humans in a lab setting

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26
Q

what is field research

A

allows physiological data collection in a real world setting

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27
Q

what is applied research

A

includes studies designed to solve practical problem

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28
Q

what is the scientific method

A

a systematic approach used to test hypothesis

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29
Q

what is an example of an independent variable

A

eg exercise intensity

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30
Q

what is an example of a dependant variable

A

eg heart rate

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31
Q

what is basic research

A

study of fundamental topics in biology (eg mechanisms of adaptation to exercise)

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32
Q

what is translational research

A

application of research

also known as bench to bedside

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33
Q

what is experimental research

A

involves the manipulation of experimental variables

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34
Q

what is power

A

amount of work performed per unit of time

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35
Q

what is net efficiency

A

ratio of work output divided by energy expenditure above rest

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36
Q

what is direct calorimetry

A

measure of metabolic rate via heat production

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37
Q

what is relative VO2

A

oxygen consumed per kg of body mass

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38
Q

what is 1 MET

A

a unit of resting metabolic rate

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39
Q

what is running economy

A

oxygen uptake at specific running speeds

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40
Q

what is oxygen consumption (VO2)

A

amount of oxygen used by the body

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41
Q

What is indirect calorimetry

A

measure of metabolic rate via VO2

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42
Q

what is work

A

product of force and the distance through which that force acts

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43
Q

what type of relationship is there between exercise intensity and HR

A

linear relationship

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44
Q

what is the function of the blood

A

carries gases, nutrients and waste products

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45
Q

what is the function of the renal system

A

conserves water

contributes to maintenance of body pH

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46
Q

what is the function of the CNS

A

Controls musculo-skeletal system, circulation and body temperature

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47
Q

what is the function of the integumentary system (the skin)

A

involved in heat loss from body

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48
Q

what is the function of the musculoskeletal system

A

provides movement under CNS control

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49
Q

what is the function of the respiratory system

A

provides oxygen and removes carbon dioxide

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50
Q

what is the function of the cardiovascular system

A

pumps the blood through the circulation

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51
Q

what is the function of the endocrine system

A

supports circulation control and regulates metabolism

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52
Q

what is the function of the alimentary system

A

water and nutrient intake

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53
Q

what is feedforward control

A

results in changes in physiological responses in anticipation of a change in a variable

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54
Q

what type of feedback is clotting of blood after you cut yourself

A

positive feedback

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55
Q

what type of feedback is control of body temp, BP, and HR

A

negative feedback

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56
Q

describe afferent information

A

comes from sensors to brain

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57
Q

describe efferent information

A

brain to effectors to make change

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58
Q

what is cardiorespiratory fitness

A

refers to the interactions between the heart (cardiac) and lungs (respiratory) that maximise performance and recovery

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59
Q

what is cardiorespiratory endurance

A

the ability of an individual to perform a strenuous task for a prolonged period (where large muscle groups are used).

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60
Q

what is vo2 max

A

the maximal rate of oxygen consumed

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61
Q

what catagories are considered when defining an individuals physical fitness

A
  • cardiorespiratory fitness
  • body composition
  • musculoskeletal fitness (flexibility, muscular strength, muscular endurance)
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62
Q

what are 2 ways of testing cardiorespiratory fitness

A

bleep test- compares an individuals performance to population norms

VO2 max test- directly measures cardiorespiratory fitness based on an individuals maximal oxygen consumption in L/min

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63
Q

What does a high vo2 max mean

A
  • The higher the vo2 max, the greater the ability the individual has to sustain aerobic work at a higher intensity for a longer time
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64
Q

how do you know vo2 max has been reached on a graph

A

plateau in oxygen consumption despite an increase in work rate

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65
Q

what is bioenergetics

A
  • Flow and exchange of energy within a living system
  • Role of enzymes as catalysts in cellular chemical reactions
  • Processes involved in anaerobic and aerobic ATP production
  • Conversion of foodstuffs (fats, proteins, carbs) into useable energy for cell work
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66
Q

what is the cell membrane called in skeletal muscle

A

sarcolemma

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67
Q

what is the role of the cell membrane

A

semipermeable membrane that separates the cell from the extracellular environment

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68
Q

what is the role of the nucleus

A

contains genes that regulate protein synthesis

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69
Q

what is cytoplasm called in muscle

A

sarcoplasm

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70
Q

what is the function of the cytoplasm

A

fluid portion of the cell

contains organelles

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71
Q

what is the 1st law of thermodynamics

A
  • Energy cannot be created nor destroyed only transformed from one form to another
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72
Q

what is endergonic

A

overall increase in energy

picture diagram (reactants lower than product) has to go up

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73
Q

what is exergonic

A

overall decrease in energy

(picture diagram reactant higher than product) has to go down

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74
Q

what is oxidation

A
  • Removing an electron

- Or adding oxygen

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75
Q

what is reduction

A
  • Addition of an electron

- Or removing oxygen

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76
Q

what are enzymes

A

they are biological catalysts that lower the activation energy accelerating chemical reactions

They don’t get used up or changed by the reaction they are involved in

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77
Q

what does the enzyme kinase do

A

add a phosphate group

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78
Q

what does the enzyme dehydrogenase do

A

remove a hydrogen atom

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79
Q

what does the enzyme oxidase do

A

catalyse oxidation-reduction reactions involving oxygen

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80
Q

what does the enzyme isomerase do

A

rearrangement of the structure of molecules

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81
Q

what are the factors that affect enzyme activity

A

temperature

pH

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82
Q

what is the stored form of carbohydrates

A

glycogen

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83
Q

where are carbohydrates stored

A

liver and muscle

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84
Q

what is the breakdown process of carbohydrates

A

glycogenolysis

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85
Q

what is the stored form of fats

A

triglycerides

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86
Q

where are fats stored

A

muscle and adipose tissue

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87
Q

what is the breakdown process of fats

A

lipolysis

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88
Q

what is the net ATP of glycolysis

A

2

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89
Q

describe the process of the Krebs cycle (citric acid cycle)

A
  1. pyretic acid is converted to acetyl coA, losing a carbon generating co2
  2. acetyl coA combines with oxaloacetate to form citrate
  3. citrate is metabolised to oxoloacetate generating two carbon dioxides
  4. each turn of the cycle creates 1 ATP, 3 NADH and 1FADH2
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90
Q

describe the process of the electron transport chain

A
  1. NADH and FAD are re oxidised releasing high energy electrons from the H atoms. Electrons are passed down a series of electron carriers (cytochromes). H is pumped into intermebrane space
  2. increased conc of H ions in inter membrane space
  3. movement of H ions through ATP synthase produces ATP
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91
Q

What are electron carriers called

A

cytochromes

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92
Q

what are the 2 types of metabolism

A

catabolic and anabolic

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93
Q

what is a catabolic reaction

A

synthesis of molecules

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94
Q

what is an anabolic reaction

A

breakdown of molecules

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95
Q

describe the rest to exercise transition in terms of ATP and oxygen

A

ATP production increases immediately
O2 uptake rapidly increases

Initial ATP production must be anaerobic leading to an oxygen deficit

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96
Q

do trained athletes have a lower oxygen deficit than untrained athletes

A

yes

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97
Q

why do trained athletes have a lower oxygen deficit than untrained athletes

A
  • Better developed aerobic bioenergetics capacity
  • Greater regional blood flow to active muscle
  • Increased cellular adaptation and efficiency
  • Increased mitochondrial volume in muscle fibers results in less lactate production at beginning of exercise
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98
Q

what does EPOC stand for

A

excess post exercise oxygen consumption

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99
Q

what is EPOC influenced by

A

the intensity of exercise

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100
Q

what are the effects of heavy exercise

A

increased oxygen uptake
cannot be sustained, exhaustion occurs
larger oxygen deficit, therefore longer EPOC

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101
Q

What is the fast component of EPOC

A 
Re-syntheis of stored PC in muscle 
Replensihing muscle (myoglobin) and blood (Hb) oxygen stores
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102
Q

what is the slow component of EPOC

A
  • elevated HR & breathing increase O2 demand
  • elevated body temp = increased metabolic rate
  • elevated blood levels of epinephrine and norepinephrine = increase metabolic rate
  • conversion of lactic acid to glucose (gluconeogenesis
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103
Q

Responses to short term exercise (<5) in terms of energy systems

A
  • ATP produced via ATP-PC

- Shift to ATP production via glycolysis

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104
Q

Response to events lasting >45s in terms of energy systems

A
  • ATP production though ATP-PC, glycolysis and aerobic systems
  • 50% anaerobic/ 50% aerobic at 2mins
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105
Q

Responses to exercise >10 mins in terms of energy systems

A

ATP production primarily from aerobic metabolism

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106
Q

what is the lactate threshold

A

the point at which blood lactic acid rises systematically during incremental exercise

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107
Q

in untrained athletes when do you reach the lactate threshold

A

50-60% of VO2 max

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108
Q

in trained athletes when do you reach the lactate threshold

A

65-80% of VO2 max

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109
Q

what is OBLA

A

onset blood lactate accumulation

point at which blood lactate reaches > 4mmol

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110
Q

possible explanations for the lactate threshold

A
  • Low muscle oxygen (hypoxia)
  • Accelerated glycolysis
  • NADH produced faster than it is shuttled into the mitochondria, therefore NADH accumulates in cytoplasm so is converted from pyruvic acid to lactic acid
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111
Q

what enzyme catalyses the conversion of pyruate to lactate

A

lactate dehydrogenase

reversible reaction

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112
Q

how do you calculate blood lactate conc

A

lactate entry into the blood - blood lactate removal

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113
Q

is maximal oxygen intake influenced by training

A

yes

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114
Q

is lactate threshold influenced by training

A

yes

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115
Q

what does R stand for

A

respiratory exchange ratio

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116
Q

what is the crossover concept

A

the shift from fat to CHO metabolism as exercise intensity increases.

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117
Q

what is the crossover concept due to

A

recruitment of fast muscle fibres

increasing blood levels of epinephrine stimulate glycogen breakdown

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118
Q

what factors decide fuel selection during exercise

A 
exercise intensity (crossover concept)
exercise duration (due to increased rate of lipolysis`)
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119
Q

what happens to glycogen during high intensity exercise

A

it is depleted

reduced rate of glycolysis and production of pyruvate

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120
Q

what is beta oxidation

A

the process of oxidising fatty acids into acetyl CoA

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121
Q

what is the influence of exercise intensity on fuel source

A
  • The relative contribution of muscle glycogen and blood glucose varies as a function of the exercise intensity (and duration)
  • Increased rate of glycogenolysis due to recruitment of fast twitch fibers and elevated blood epinephrine levels
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122
Q

what is the lactate shuttle

A

lactate is produced in one tissue and transported to another to be used as an energy source

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123
Q

what is the cori cycle

A

the cycle of glucose –> pyruvate –> lactate

lactate then released into blood, and carried to liver

In liver it is reconverted to pyruvate and used for gluconeogenisis

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124
Q

what are the 2 parts to the neuroendocrine system

A

nervous system

endocrine system

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125
Q

how does the nervous system work

A

uses neurotransmitters to relay messages from one nerve to another. Or from a nerve to a tissue

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126
Q

what is the endocrine system

A

Releases hormones into blood to circulate to tissues

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127
Q

are the endocrine glands ductless

A

yes

it means they release the hormones directly into the blood

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128
Q

how do hormones work

and what are thee difference classes of hormone

A
  • Hormones bind to specific protein receptors to exert their effect

Several classes based on chemical makeup..

  • Amino acid derivatives (thyroid hormones, catecholamines)
  • Peptides/ protein (adrenocorticotrophic hormone – ACTN, Antidiuretic hormone- ADH)
  • Steroids (glucocorticoids, mineralocorticoids)
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129
Q

what is the effect of a hormone on a tissue determined by

A

THE PLASMA CONCENTRATION AND THE NUMBER OF ACTIVE RECEPTORS!

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130
Q

what is plasma conc determined by

A
  1. Rate of secretion of hormone from endocrine gland
    - Magnitude of slimulatory input
    - Stimulatory versus inhibitory output
  2. Rate of metabolism or excretion of hormone
    - inactivation near the receptor and/ or metabolized by the liver and kidneys
  3. Quantity of transport proteins
    - Steroid hormones are transported bound to plasma proteins
  4. Changes in plasma volume – can drop during exercise
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131
Q

What tissues can hormones effect

A

Hormones only affect tissues that contain specific hormone receptors!

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132
Q

what is the magnitude of the hormones effect dependant on

A
  1. Concentration of hormone
  2. Number of target receptors of the cell
  3. Affinity of the receptor for the hormone
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133
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms of hormone action

A
  1. Activation of genes to alter protein synthesis
    - steroid hormones
  2. activating ‘second messengers’ in the cell via G protein
    - cyclic AMP
    - Calcium
    - Inositol triphosphate
    - Diaglycerol
  3. altering membrane transport
    - insulin via tyrosine kinase
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134
Q

name some examples of steroids

A

estrogen
cortisol
testosterone

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135
Q

do hormones act fast or slow

A

slow

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136
Q

are hormones effects short or long lasting

A

long lasting

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137
Q

what are the main endocrine glands

A
  • hypothalamus and pituitary
  • thyroid and parathyroid
  • adrenal
  • pancreas
  • testes and ovaries
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138
Q

what is the function of the hypothalamus

A

controls secretions from pituarity gland

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139
Q

what does the anterior pituitary gland secrete

A
  • ACTH (adrenocorticotropic hormone)
  • FSH (follicle stimulating hormone)
  • LH (luteinising hormone)
  • MSH (melanocyte-stimulating hormone)
  • TSH (thyroid stimulating hormone)
  • GH (slow acting)
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140
Q

what does the posterior pituitary gland secrete

A

oxytocin

ADH (antidiuretic hormone)

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141
Q

what is growth hormone

A
  • GH increases protein synthesis in muscle and long bone growth
  • Used to treat childhood dwarfism
  • Also used by athletes and elderly
  • No evidence that GH promotes strength gains
  • Difficult to detect usage by athletes
  • High dose; more adverse effects than benefits
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142
Q

what is ADH

A
  • Secreted from the posterior pituitary gland
  • Reduces water loss from the body to maintain plasma volume
  • Favors reabsorption of water from kidney tubules to capillaries
  • Release of ADH stimulated by..
    1. High plasma osmolality
    2. Low plasma volume
  • Due to sweat loss without water replacement
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143
Q

what does the adrenal medulla secrete

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine

fast acting and part of fight or flight response

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144
Q

what does the adrenal Cortex secrete

A

cortisol and androgens

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145
Q

what does aldosterone do

A

control of Na+ reabsorption and K+ secretion

Regulation of BP & Blood volume

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146
Q

what does cortisol do

A

Maintenance of plasma glucose

  • promotes protein breakdown for gluconeogenisis
  • stimulates FFA mobilisation
  • stimulates glucose synthesis
  • blocks uptake of glucose into cells
  • promotes the use of free fatty acids as fuel
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147
Q

what is aldosterone stimulated by

A

increased plasma K+ conc, decreased plasma vol, ACTH and angiotensin 2

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148
Q

what is cortisol stimulated by

A

stress via ACTH hormone

Exercise

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149
Q

what is the function of the pancreas

A

Secretes counter-regulatory hormones from the islets of Langerhans

  • Has both exocrine and endocrine functions
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150
Q

what’s the function of insulin

from Beta cells

A
  • Promotes the storage of glucose, amino acids and fats
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151
Q

what’s the function of glucagon

from Alpha cells

A
  • Promotes the mobilization of fatty acids and glucose

- Stimulates gluconeogenesis in the liver

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152
Q

what rate does cortisol increase compared to exercise

A

cortisol increases proportionally to exercise

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153
Q

what happens to blood glucose homeostasis during exercise

A
  1. mobilisation of glucose from liver glycogen stores

2. mobilisation of free fatty acids (FFA) from adipose tissue

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154
Q

what do thyroid hormones do

A
  • influences the number of receptors on the surface of a cell
  • influences the affinity of the receptor for the hormone
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155
Q

what are catecholamines

A

fast acting hormones

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156
Q

what happens to epinephrine and norepinephrine during exercise

A

they increase during exercise

leading to increased HR and BP

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157
Q

What does endurance training do to catecholamines

A

causes a very rapid decrease in catecholamine responses to a fixed intensity bout

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158
Q

do trained athletes have a greater capacity to increase catacholamines?

A

yes

35% higher

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159
Q

what ratio effects the mobilisation of glucose and fatty acids

A

the ratio between plasma insulin and plasma glucagon

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160
Q

what happens to plasma insulin during exercise

A

it decreases

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161
Q

what happens to plasma glucagon during exercise

A

it increases

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162
Q

Can the muscle be an endocrine gland

A

YES
Produces myokines during contractions

  • this stimulates glucose uptake and fatty acid oxidation
  • promotes blood vessel growth in muscle
  • promotes liver glucose production triglyceride breakdown
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163
Q

why does FFA mobilisation decrease during exercise

A

high levels of lactic acid
elevated H+ conc
inadequate blood flow to adipose tissue
insufficient albumin to transport FFA in plasma

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164
Q

is CO2 produced in glycolysis

A

NO

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165
Q

where is creatine synthesised

A

in the liver

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166
Q

what is the enzyme that catalyses the reaction of creatine to phosphocreatine

A

creatine kinase

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167
Q

can the respiratory quotient ever exceed 1

A

NO

1 is max

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168
Q

can the respiratory exchange ratio exceed 1

A

YES

often exceeds 1 during vigorous exercise

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169
Q

what does RQ stand for

A

Respiratory quotient

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170
Q

What is the function of renin

A

to convert angiotensinogen to to angiotensinogen 1

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171
Q

what is the function of ACE

A

to convert angiotensinogen 1 to angiotensinogen 2

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172
Q

what does insulin do to gluconeogenisis

A

insulin inhibits gluconeogenisis

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173
Q

what are the functions of the nervous system

A
  1. Control of internal environment (coordinated with the endocrine system)
  2. Voluntary control of movement
  3. Spinal cord reflexes
  4. Assimilation of experiences necessary for memory and learning
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174
Q

what is the CNS made up of

A

Brain and spinal cord

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175
Q

what makes up the PNS (peripheral nervous system)

A

Neurons (sensory and motor division)

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176
Q

describe the sensory neurons in PNS

A

AFFERENT fibres transmit impulses from receptors to CNS

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177
Q

describe the motor neurons in PNS

A

EFFERENT fibres transmit impulses from CNS to effector organs

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178
Q

what is somatic sensory information

A

sensory input that is conciously perceived from receptors (eg eyes, ears and skin)

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179
Q

what is visceral sensory information

A

sensory input that is not consciously perceived from receptors of blood vessels and internal organs

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180
Q

what is somatic motor control

A

motor output that is conciously or voluntarily controlled

Effector is skeletal muscle

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181
Q

what is autonomic motor control

A

motor output that is not conscious or is an involuntary contraction.

Effectors are cardiac muscle, smooth muscle and glands

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182
Q

what is the function of an axon

A

carries electrical message (action potential) away from cell body

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183
Q

what factors increase neural transmission

A

increased diameter of the axon

having a myelin sheath

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184
Q

what is a negative resting membrane potential created by

A

At rest= sodium channels closed, where as some potassium channels are open therefore more potassium ions leaving cell, causing net loss of positive ions leaving cell and makes it more negative

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185
Q

how is the negative membrane potential maintained

A

by the sodium potassium pump

2K+ IN
3Na+ out

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186
Q

what is depolarisation

A

return to resting membrane potential

K+ leaves cell rapidly
Na+ channels close

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187
Q

what is an action potential

A

Occurs when a stimulus of sufficient strength depolarizes the cell

Opens Na+ channels and Na+ diffuses into the cell, making the inside become more positive

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188
Q

what value is resting membrane potential

A

-70mV

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189
Q

what is a neurotransmitter and how does it work

A
  • chemical messenger released from presynaptic membrane
  • binds to receptor on post synaptic membrane
  • causes depolarisation of post synaptic membrane
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190
Q

what does EPSP stand for

A

excitatory post synaptic potentials

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191
Q

what do EPSP do

A

EPSPs can promote neural depolarisation in 2 ways

  1. temporal summation - summing several EPSPs from ONE presynaptic neuron
  2. spatial summation- summing EPSPs from SEVERAL different presynaptic neurons
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192
Q

What does IPSP stand for

A

inhibitory post synaptic potentials

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193
Q

what do IPSPs do

A
  • causes hyperpolarisation (more negative RMP)

- Neurons with a more negative membrane potential resist depolarisation

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194
Q

give some examples of joint proprioreceptors

A
  1. Free nerve endings (touch, pressure) – most abundant
  2. Golgi type receptors (found in joint ligaments)
  3. Pacinian corpuscles (tissues around joints/ skin)
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195
Q

give some examples of muscle proprioreceptors

A
  1. Muscle spindles

2. Golgi tendon organs

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196
Q

What do we gather sensory information from

A

Joint proprioceptors
Muscle proprioceptors
Muscle chemoreceptors

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197
Q

what do muscle spindles do

A
  • Responds to changes in muscle LENGTH
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198
Q

what do muscle spindles consist of

A
  1. Intrafusal fibers- run parallel to normal muscle fibers (extrafusal fibers)
  2. Gamma motor neurons- stimulate intrafusal fibers to contract with extrafusal fibers by alpha motor neuron
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199
Q

describe the process of a muscle resisting to be stretched

A
  • Muscle spindles detect stretch of muscle
  • Sensory neurons conduct action potentials to the spinal cord
  • Sensory neurons synapse with alpha motor neurons
  • Stimulation of the alpha motor neurons cause the muscles to contract and resist being stretched
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200
Q

How do the Golgi tendon organs relieve tension applied to the tendon

A
  • Golgi tendon organs detect tension applied to a tendon
  • Sensory neurons conduct action potentials to the spinal cord
  • Sensory neurons synapse with inhibitory interneurons that synapse with alpha motor neurons
  • inhibition of the alpha motor neurons causes muscle relaxation, relieving the tension applied to the tendon
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201
Q

what are the roles of the Golgi tendon organ

A
  • Monitors force development in muscle
    Prevents muscle damage during excessive force generation
  • Stimulation results in reflex relaxation of muscle
    Inhibitory neurons send IPSPs to muscle alpha motor neurons
    Ability to voluntarily oppose GTO inhibition may be related to gains in strength
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202
Q

what are the roles of muscle chemoreceptors

A
  • Are sensitive to changes in the chemical environment surrounding a muscle

H+ ions, CO2 and K+

  • Also known as muscle metaboreceptors
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203
Q

what are muscle chemoreceptors also known as

A

muscle metaboreceptors

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204
Q

what is the innervation number

A

number of muscle fibers per motor neuron

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205
Q

for fine motor control do you want a low or high ratio

A
  • Low ration in muscles involved in fine motor control (for example 23/1 in extraocular muscles)
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206
Q

do you want a low or high ratio for movements that DO NOT require fine motor control

A
  • Higher ratio in muscles that do not require fine motor control (for example 1,000/1 or greater in large limb muscles)
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207
Q

define a motor unit

A

motor neuron and all the muscle fibres that it innervates

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208
Q

are small or large motor units recruited first during exercise

A

Small motor units recruited first during exercise

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209
Q

what is the mesencephalon and what does it connect

A

MIDBRAIN

Connects the Pons and cerebral hemispheres

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210
Q

what are the functions of the mesencephalon (midbrain)

A

controlling responses to sight, eye movement, pupil dilation, body movement and hearing

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211
Q

what is the function of the medulla oblongata

A

Involved in control of autonomic function, relaying signals between brain and spinal cord and coordination of body movements

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212
Q

what is the function of the pons

A

Involved in sleep and control of autonomic function

Relays sensory information between the cerebrum and cerebellum

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213
Q

what is the function of the cerebral cortex

A
  • Organisation of complex movement
  • Storage of learned experiences
  • Reception of sensory info
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214
Q

what is the function of the cerebellum

A

Implicated in control of movement and integration of sensory information

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215
Q

what is the function of the brainstem

A

role in cardiorespiratory function, locomotion, muscle tone, posture, receiving information from special senses

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216
Q

what is spinal tuning

A

refers to intrinsic neural networks (CPGs) within spinal cord that refine voluntary movement after receiving messages from higher brain centers

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217
Q

what is the withdrawal reflex

A

Means removing a limb from source of pain

Occurs via a reflex arc, whereby a reflex contraction of skeletal muscles can occur in response to a sensory input and is not dependent on the activation of higher brain centers

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218
Q

what is the crossed extensor reflex

A

is a reflex in which the contralateral limb compensates for loss of support when the stimulated limb withdraws from painful stimulus in the withdrawal reflex.

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219
Q

describe the control of voluntary movement

A
  • Involves cooperation of many areas of brain along with subcortical areas
  • Motor cortex receives inputs from a variety of brain areas = basal nuclei, cerebellum, thalamus
  • Spinal mechanisms (spinal tuning) results in refinement of motor control
  • Feedback from proprioceptors allows for further modification in motor control
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220
Q

what 2 words are associated with sympathetic

A

fight or flight

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221
Q

what 2 words are associated with parasympathetic

A

rest and digest

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222
Q

at rest are parasympathetic and sympathetic systems in balance

A

YES

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223
Q

at exercise are parasympathetic and sympathetic systems in balance

A

NO

parasympathetic decreases and sympathetic increases

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224
Q

what is role of sympathetic system throughout exercise

A

regulate blood flow, achieved by increasing CO

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225
Q

in terms of ganglionic neurones

describe the length of the pre and post in sympathetic neurons

A

shorter preganglionic neuron and longer postganglionic neuron

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226
Q

in terms of ganglionic neurones

describe the length of the pre and post in parasympathetic neurons

A

longer preganglionic neuron and shorter postganglionic neuron

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227
Q

what is HR variability

A
  • Variation in the time between heartbeats
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228
Q

why is there an initial increase in HR at the onset of exercise

A

initial increase due to parasympathetic withdrawal

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229
Q

what is low HRV (heart rate variability) a predictor of

A

cardiovascular morbidity and mortality in patients with existing cardiovascular disease

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230
Q

What 3 things regulate stroke volume

A
  • End diastolic volume (EDV)
  • Average aortic blood pressure
  • Strength of ventricular contraction (contractility)
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231
Q

What is end diastolic volume (EDV)

A
  • Volume of blood in ventricles at end of diastole (preload)
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232
Q

What is average aortic blood pressure defined as

A
  • Pressure the heart must pump against to eject blood (afterload)
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233
Q

how is strength of ventricular contraction altered

A
  • Enhanced by circulating epinephrine and norepinephrine

- direct sympathetic stimulation of heart

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234
Q

what does the frank starling law suggest

A

an increased EDV creates. a more forceful contraction

This is due to increased blood flowing, stretching the ventricle walls. The more stretch the more tension/ force

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235
Q

what is venous return increased by and how

A
  1. Venoconstriction
    - Via SNS
  2. Skeletal muscle pump
    - One-way valves in veins prevent backflow of blood
  3. Respiratory pump
    - Changes in thoracic pressure pull blood toward heart
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236
Q

what is the cardiac output equation

A

CO = HR x SV

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237
Q

What is systolic blood pressure (SBP)

A

Pressure generated during ventricular contraction

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238
Q

What is dyastolic blood pressure (DBP)

A

Pressure in the arteries during cardiac relaxation

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239
Q

what is pulse pressure

A

the difference between systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure

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240
Q

what is mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

Average pressure in the arteries

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241
Q

When can a MAP reading be taken??

A

MAP can only be taken at rest

as diastole generally lasts longer than systole. The equation based on timing of cardiac cycle at rest, where systole = 33% of that time but at exercise systole may be up to 66% of total cardiac time

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242
Q

What 2 things determine MAP

A

CO

Total vascular resistance

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243
Q

What happens to cardiac output during exercise

A

It increases directly proportional to metabolic rate

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244
Q

A decrease in blood pressure does what to sympathetic nerve activity

A

INCREASES SNS

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245
Q

An increase in blood pressure does what to sympathetic nerve activity

A

DECREASES SNS

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246
Q

What is arteriovenous difference

A

amount of oxygen that is taken up from 100ml of blood

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247
Q

what happens to arteriovenous difference during exercise and why

A

INCREASES due to higher oxygen uptake

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248
Q

Where is blood flow directed and not directed to at exercise

A

DIRECTED TO- working muscle

NOT DIRECTED TO- liver, kidneys

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249
Q

What affects HR and BP in terms of when exercising

A
  • Type, intensity and duration of exercise
  • environmental conditions
  • emotions
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250
Q

At heavy intensity intermittent exercise (HIIE) what does recovery depend on

A

Fitness level
Temp
Humidity
Duration and intensity of the exercise done

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251
Q

what happens to cardiac output during prolonged exercise

A

maintained (stays constant)

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252
Q

what happens to stroke volume during prolonged exercise

A

gradual increase

due to dehydration and reduced plasma volume

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253
Q

what happens to HR during prolonged exercise

A

Gradual increase particularly in heat due to cardiovascular drift

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254
Q

What is the exercise pressor reflex (EPR)

A

Peripheral feedback to the medulla oblongata to amend the CV responses to exercise

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255
Q

What is central command

A

the initial signal to drive the cardiovascular system comes from higher brain centres

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256
Q

in central command theory where is feedback from

A
  • Heart mechanoreceptors
  • Muscle mechanoreceptors (GTO & muscle spindles)
  • Muscle chemoreceptors
  • Baroreceptors
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257
Q

what happens to baroreflex during exercise

A

baroreflex is reset during exercise

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258
Q

does genetics affect VO2 max

A

yes but can be modified by training

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259
Q

what’s in the dorsal root ganglia

A

the neurones of AFFERENT fibres carrying sensory info to the spinal cord have cell bodies in dorsal root ganglia

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260
Q

what’s in the ventral horn of spinal cord

A

the neurones of EFFERENT fibres carrying info from the spinal cord to skeletal muscles have cell bodies in ventral horn

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261
Q

what forms myelin sheath

A

glial cells

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262
Q

what are dendrites

A

extend from the cell body and receive info from synaptic terminals of adjacent cells

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263
Q

what does the axon contain

A

mitochondria, microtubules and microfilaments

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264
Q

Describe the order of events in an action potential

A
  • Stimulus gated ion channels open, membrane depolarises slightly
  • Membrane potential increases to -50mV
  • Voltage gated Na+ channels open, increased permeability to Na+ ions
  • Voltage gated Na+ channels cose and desactive
  • Voltage gated K+ channels close
  • Membrane potential returns to -70mV
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265
Q

what do all the axons in the PNS have associated with them

A

Schwann cells

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266
Q

what does myelin do to the electrical impulse

A

Mylein reduces the loss of the electrical impulse

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267
Q

is the grey matter in the middle or outside of diagram

A

grey matter in middle

white matter on outside

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268
Q

how are muscle spindles arranged in relation to the muscle fibres

A

muscle spindles in parallel with muscle fibre

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269
Q

in muscle spindles do they have a high or low density for fine movement control

A

high density of muscle spindles for FINE control

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270
Q

how are Golgi tendon organs arranged in relation to the muscle fibres

A

in series

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271
Q

what are the 5 parts of the spinal cord from top to bottom

A 
Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral
Coccygeal
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272
Q

what receptor does acetylcholine bind to

A

aceytlcholine binds to nicotinic receptor

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273
Q

what receptor does norepinephrine bind to

A

norepinephrine binds to adrenergic receptor

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274
Q

What are metabolic effects of parasympathetic stimulation

A
  • stimulates insulin secretion & glucagon secretion in pancreas
  • increase glucose uptake from blood into liver
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275
Q

What are metabolic effects of sympathetic stimulation

A
  • increase metabolic rate of cells
  • in liver, stimulate release of glucose into blood
  • stimulates lipolysis in adipose tissue
  • in pancreas, inhibits insulin secretion
  • in pancreas, stimulates glucagon secretion
276
Q

on the diagram which is in the middle and which is on the outside
adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla

A

adrenal medulla in middle

adrenal cortex on outside

277
Q

what does vagal nerve stimulation do to HR

A

Decreases HR

278
Q

what is preload determined by

A

determined by venous return

279
Q

what is afterload determined by

A

determined by aortic pressure during systole

280
Q

what effects BP short term

A

sprinting

281
Q

what effects BP long term

A

high salt diet

dehydration

282
Q

where are arterial baroreceptors located

A

carotid sinus
-measure BP to brain

aortic arch
-measure BP of systemic circulation

283
Q

what is the carotid sinus

A

dilation of internal carotid artery wall

284
Q

what is a metaboreflex

A
  • during exercise there is local interstitial fluid accumulation (K+, lactic acid and adenosine)
  • This results in an INCREASE IN SYMPATHETIC NERVE ACTIVITY
285
Q

what is the equation for work

A

force x distance

286
Q

The formation of cross-bridges that initiates the contractile process in skeletal muscle is triggered by

A

calcium binding to troponin

287
Q

what are the functions of skeletal muscle

A
  1. Force production for locomotion and breathing
  2. Force production for postural support
  3. Heat production during cold stress
  4. Increasingly recognized as an important endocrine organ too (myokine release)
288
Q

what is the epimysium

A

surrounds the entire muscle

289
Q

what is the perimysium

A

surrounds bundles of muscle fibres

fascicles

290
Q

what is the endomysium

A

surrounds individual muscle fibres

291
Q

what do myofibrils contain

A

contractile proteins (actin and myosin)

292
Q

is myosin thick or thin

A

THICK

293
Q

is actin thick or thin

A

THIN

294
Q

What does the sarcomere contain

A 
Z line
M line
H zone
A band
I band
295
Q

what is the function of the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

storage sites for calcium (terminal cisternae)

296
Q

what are the functions of satellite cells

A
  • Play key role in muscle growth and repair
  • Contain Myonuclear domain (volume of cytoplasm surrounding each nucleus)
  • More nuclei allow for a greater protein synthesis
297
Q

what is the motor end plate in a NMJ

A

pocket formed around motor neuron by sarcolemma

298
Q

when acetylcholine is released from NMJ what happens to end plate

A

causes an end plate potential (EPP)

leading to depolarisation of the muscle fibre

299
Q

what’s another name for the sliding filament model

A

the swinging lever-arm model

300
Q

in the sliding filament theory when the muscle is contacted what happens to the Z lines

A

Distance between Z lines of sarcomere becomes smaller

301
Q

how does muscle shortening occur

A

due to movement of actin over myosin filament

302
Q

how is a power stroke generated

A

formation of cross bridges between actin and mysoin filaments

303
Q

where is the A band

A

in the middle

304
Q

where is the I band

A

on the outsides

305
Q

describe excitation contraction coupling

A
  1. signal from motor never fibre enters synaptic knob
  2. synaptic vesicles release aceytlcholine across synaptic cleft and to the acetylcholine receptors on the sarcolemma of muscle fibre
  3. release of acetylcholine causes excitation of muscle fibre, this travels to T tubules and causes depolarisation
  4. depolarisation opens calcium ion channels from sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae of sarcoplasmic reticulum
  5. calcium ions bind to troponin on actin molecule, causing a shift in the position of tropomyosin, so that myosin binding sites are exposed on the actin filament
  6. energised myosin cross-bridge binds to active site on actin and pulls on the actin molecule to produce a back and forth movement
  7. When neural activity is stopped calcium is removed resulting in tropomyosin moving to cover the active site in the actin filament
  8. acetylcholine release is stopped and muscle fibre = repolarised
  9. calcium is pumped from the cytosol into sarcoplasmic reticulum
306
Q

define fatigue

A

a decline in muscle power output

307
Q

what is a decline in muscle power output down to

A
  • decrease in muscle force production at cross-bridge level

- decrease in muscle shortening velocity

308
Q

describe muscle cramps

A
  • Muscle cramps are spasmodic, involuntary contractions

- Often associated with prolonged, high intensity exercise

309
Q

how do exercise-associated muscle cramps occur

A

-most likely due to hyperactive motor neurons in the spinal cord

310
Q

how do you relieve exercise associated muscle cramps

A

passive stretching often relieves this type of muscle cramp

311
Q

give an example of a concentric contraction and what happens to muscle length

A

upwards phase of a bicep curl

muscle length DECREASES

312
Q

give an example of an eccentric contraction and what happens to muscle length

A

downwards phase of a bicep curl

muscle length INCREASES

313
Q

are type 1 fibres light or dark

A

DARK

314
Q

are type 2 fibres light or dark

A

LIGHT

315
Q

what are the 3 biochemical characteristics to muscle fibres

A

OXIDATIVE CAPACITY
-quantity of mitochondria, capillaries and myoglobin around fibre

TYPE OF MYOSIN ISOFORM EXPRESSED

ABUNDANCE OF CONTRACTILE PROTEIN WITHIN FIBRE
-amount of actin and myosin

316
Q

what are type 1 fibres

A

slow twitch, slow oxidative fibres

317
Q

what are type 2a fibres

A

intermediate fibres

fast oxidative glycolytic fibres

318
Q

what are type 2x fibres

A

fast twitch

fast glycolytic fibres

319
Q

what is the maximal power output equation

A

force x shortening distance

320
Q

what is speed of contraction regulated by

A

myosin ATPase activity

321
Q

what does muscle fibre efficiency refer to

A

the amount of ATP used to generate force

the less ATP used the more efficient the muscle is

322
Q

compare the number of mitochondria in type 1, 2a and 2x fibres

A

type 1 = high
type 2a = moderate
type 2x = low

323
Q

compare the resistance to fatigue in type 1, 2a and 2x fibres

A

type 1 = high
type 2a = moderate
type 2x = low

324
Q

compare the efficiency in type 1, 2a and 2x fibres

A

type 1 = high
type 2a = moderate
type 2x = low

325
Q

what is muscle twitch

A

a contraction resulting from a single stimulus

326
Q

describe the events of a muscle twitch

A

-after stimulation a latent period occurs corresponding to the depolarisation of muscle fibre
-contraction stage
calcium released from sarcoplasmic reticulum (tension developed due to cross bridge binding)
-relaxation stage
reuptake of calcium into sarcoplasmic reticulum (cross bridge detachment)

327
Q

why is the speed of shortening greater in fast fibres

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium at a faster rate

higher ATPase activity

328
Q

what type of motor units have easily excited motor neurons

A

SLOW motor units

329
Q

what type of motor units have higher threshold motor neurons

A

FAST motor units

330
Q

what type of motor unit do u need for fine control

A

Small motor units

331
Q

what type of motor unit do u need for small and large force production

A

small motor units for low force
large motor units for high force

HENNEMAN SIZE PRINCIPLE

332
Q

does a motor unit consist of the same fibre type or multiple fibre types

A

consists of SAME fibre type

if you want multiple fibre types you need 2 motor units together

333
Q

How does the structure of a motor neuron relate to its function

A

if the motor neuron supplies a larger/ faster motor unit it has…

  • larger cell bodies
  • larger diameter axons
  • greater number of axonal branches
334
Q

what is sarcopenia

A

a skeletal muscle disorder involving the loss of muscle mass and function associated with older age

strength is lost with age

335
Q

what muscles decline first (upper or lower body) and why

A

lower body decline first due to being weight bearing

336
Q

what is the power equation

A

force x velocity

337
Q

what is SF and IF

A

Subcutaenous fat

Intermuscular fat

338
Q

describe microgravity

A
  • Wide ranging physiological effects
  • Effects vary depending on; space flight duration, mission activities
  • Countermeasures required to; maintain astronaut performance, prevent problems upon return
339
Q

what happens to muscle mass and strength with microgravity

A

muscle mass and strength decrease

340
Q

what happens to the heart after space flight

A

Shrinkage (atrophy)

341
Q

what happens to SV with mirogravity

A

SV decreases

342
Q

what are some strategies to stimulate microgravity

A
  • head down bed rest
  • wheelchair
  • immobilisation
  • parabolic flight
343
Q

what is direct calorimetry

A

measures the heat exchange between the human body and environment

344
Q

what is indirect calorimetry

A

measures the type and rate of substrate utilization, whereby energy metabolism is estimated from respiratory gas exchange measurements.

345
Q

is a large HR variability healthy or not

A

Large HR variability = healthy

346
Q

give some examples of acute stressors for HR

A

hard work out
alcoholic drinks
high caffeine intake

Anything thats effects last 24-48 hrs

347
Q

give some examples of chronic stressors for HR

A

infection
illness
study related worries

lasts over 48hrs

348
Q

where are the T tubules

A

The sarcolemma (muscle membrane) extends deep into the centre of the fibre to form T tubules

349
Q

in cross bridge cycling what breaks the link between actin and myosin

A

ATP

350
Q

In space does a body moving freely have mass or weight

A

HAS MASS

NO WEIGHT

351
Q

What systems are affected by microgravity

A 
cardiovascular
digestive
nervous system (balance)
respiratory
skeletal
urinary
endocrine
immunological
352
Q

what does the feeling of being weightless disturb

A

the semicircular canals

utricle and saccule

353
Q

what are the 2 parts to the circulatory system

A

pulmonary circuit

systemic circuit

354
Q

what are the functions of the cardiorespiratory system

A
  • transport o2 and nutrients to tissues
  • removal of co2 wastes from tissues
  • regulation of body temperature
355
Q

what happens to blood flow during exercise

A

increased cardiac output

redistribution of blood flow from inactive organs to active muscle

356
Q

describe pulmonary circuit

A
  • RIGHT side of heart
  • pumps DEOXYGENATED blood to LUNGS via pulmonary arteries
  • returns oxygenated blood to left side of heart via pulmonary veins
357
Q

describe systemic circuit

A
  • LEFT side of heart
  • pumps OXYGENATED blood to the whole body via arteries
  • Returns deoxygenated blood to right side of heart via veins
358
Q

what are the components of blood vessel walls

A

smooth muscle
collagen
elastin
endothelium

359
Q

what makes up blood

A 
PLASMA
-liquid portion of blood
-contains ions, proteins, hormones
CELLS
-rbc, wbc, platelets (clotting)
360
Q

what is HEMATOCRIT in blood

A

percentage of blood composed cells

361
Q

what is the main resistance to flow provided by

A

the arteries and arterioles

362
Q

what is TPR

A

Total peripheral resistance

sum of resistances to flow in all individual organs

363
Q

what is the blood flow equation/ darcys law

A

blood flow = change in pressure / resistance

364
Q

what is the resistance equation

A

resistance = (length x viscosity)/ radius4

365
Q

what does resistance depend on

A

length of vessel
viscosity of blood
radius of vessel

366
Q

what is the heart wall made up of

A

Epicardium
Myocardium
Endocardium

367
Q

what is a myocardial infarction

A

a heart attack

368
Q

what is the function of the epicardium

A

serves as lubricative outer covering

369
Q

what is the function of the myocardium

A

provides muscular contractions that eject blood from the heart chambers

370
Q

what is the function of the endocardium

A

serves as protective inner lining of the chambers and valves

371
Q

describe cardiac conduction

A
  1. action potentials originate in SA node
  2. Action potenial travels across wall of atrium to AV node
  3. Passes through AV node and along AV bundle going down septum
  4. AV bundle divides into right and left branches and action potentials go to bottom of each ventricle
  5. action potentials carried by purkinje fibres to ventricular walls
372
Q

what is the P wave on an ECG

A

atrial depolarisation

373
Q

what is the QRS complex on an ECG

A

ventricular depolarisation

atrial repolarisation

374
Q

what is the T wave on an ECG

A

ventricular repolarisation

375
Q

describe the heart cycle in terms of depolarising and repolarising

A
  1. atria begin depolarising
  2. atrial depolarising complete
  3. ventricular depolarisation begins at apex, progresses superiorly as atria repolarise
  4. ventricular depolarisation complete
  5. ventricular repolarisation begins at apex and progresses superiorly
  6. ventricular repolarisation complete, heart = ready for next cycle
376
Q

what happens to intraventricular pressure as ventricles contract

A

intraventricular pressure increases

377
Q

what happens to intraventricular pressure as ventricles relax

A

intraventricular pressure decreases

378
Q

what can we diagnose from the use of an ECG

A
  • evalutae cardiac function
  • atherosclerosis
  • ST segment depression (suggesting ischemia)
379
Q

is regular exercise good for the heart

A

YES
its cardioprotective
reduces chance of heart attack, and improves survival from a heart attack (improves hearts antioxidant capacity)

380
Q

define cardiac output

A

the amount of blood pumped by the heart each minute

381
Q

define stroke volume

A

amount of blood ejected in each beat

382
Q

describe the parasympathetic nervous system

A

via vagus nerve

SLOWS HR by inhibiting SA and AV node

383
Q

describe the sympathetic nervous system

A

via cardiac accelerator nerves

INCREASES HR by stimulating SA and AV node

384
Q

what is the fick equation

A

VO2 = cardiac output (Q) x arteriovenous difference

385
Q

What is hyperaemia

A

blood flow increases in relation to metabolic activity of a tissue/ organ

386
Q

is the tricuspid valve an AV or Semilunar valve

A

AV valve

387
Q

is the mitral/ bicuspid valve an AV or Semilunar valve

A

AV valve

388
Q

how to know where tricuspid and bicuspid valve are

A

Try before you buy

try comes first therefore on right side

389
Q

what does the superior vena cava do

A

returns blood from the head, neck and arms

390
Q

what does the inferior vena cava do

A

returns blood from the legs, lower torso

is the largest vein in the body

391
Q

what does chronotropic mean

A

heart rate increases

392
Q

what does inotropic mean

A

contractility increases

393
Q

what is the main metabolic vasodilator

A

adenosine

394
Q

describe the skin circulation neural control

A
  1. ADRENERGIC (vasoconstrictor)
    Non hairy skin, eg- palms, sole of foot, lips
  2. CHOLINERGIC (vasodilator)
    Hairy skin
395
Q

What neurotransmitter is used for adrenergic transmission

A

noradrenaline

396
Q

What neurotransmitter is used for cholinergic transmission

A

acetylcholine

397
Q

what does cold stress lead to

A

vasoconstriction

398
Q

what does heat stress lead to in blood vessels

A

vasodilation

399
Q

what does splanchnic circulation involve

A

Liver
GI tract
Pancreas
Spleen

400
Q

why is blood flow to the brain so important

A
  • Vital for survival
  • Stroke caused by not enough oxygen to brain
  • Functional consequences; eg decreased performance, cognitive function
401
Q

what is at the acute side of impaired cerebral flood flow

A

faint

stroke

402
Q

what is at the chronic side of impaired cerebral flood flow

A

hypertension
dementia
concussion

403
Q

Is exercise good for brain blood flow

A

regular exercise is good for brain blood flow

reduces the decline in the relationship between getting older and reduced brain blood flow

404
Q

what are some brain perfusion imaging techniques

A
  • MRI
  • Transcranial doppler
  • Near infrared spectroscopy (NIRS)
405
Q

what is the normal body core temp

A

between 36.5-37.5

406
Q

what is core temp defined as

A

the temp of the hypothalamus, the thermoregulatory centre of the body

407
Q

what are humans known as

clue ….therm

A

HOMEOTHERM

408
Q

what is the normal skin temp

A

32-35 degrees

409
Q

what does the homeostatic maintenance of body temp require

A 
temp sensors (peripheral and central thermoreceptors)
and regulated effectors
410
Q

describe how heat is lost

A
  • body temp increases
  • afferent info to brain
  • efferent info to body
  • blood vessels dilate
  • sweat glands secrete fluid
  • heat = lost to environment
411
Q

describe how heat is retained

A
  • body temp decreases
  • afferent info to brain
  • efferent info to body
  • blood vessels constrict
  • sweat glands DO NOT secrete fluid
  • shivering generates heat
  • heat = conserved
412
Q

does aerobic fitness effect body temp when exercising

A

YES

A trained person can exercise with a lower core temp than an untrained person exercising at same intensity

413
Q

Describe conduction

A
  • Transfer of heat down a thermal gradient via direct contact between objects
  • Rate of heat transfer is proportional to the temperature gradient between objects
  • Rate of heat transfer is proportional to the conductivity of each object and the area in contact
  • Important within cells (cell  capillary wall)
  • Only 3% heat loss at normal room temp (eg to chair)
414
Q

describe convection

A
  • Transfer of heat between object and moving fluid or air
  • 12% heat loss at normal room temp
  • Blood is main mover of heat within the body
  • Water conducts heat 25x faster than air
  • Rate of heat transfer is proportional to the
    1. Temp gradient
    2. Thermal conductivity
    3. Surface area
    4. Velocity of fluid (eg wind chill factor)
415
Q

describe radiation

A
  • Loss or gain or heat in the form of electromagnetic waves
  • 60% heat loss at normal room temp
  • Sun is major source of radiant heat
  • Rate of radiant heat transfer is proportional to
    1. Temp gradient
    2. Area of mutually exposed surface
    3. Colour & reflectivity (eg space blanket)
416
Q

Describe evaporation

A

quantity of heat absorbed by sweat when it evaporates

  • 1gm sweat has latent heat of evaporation of 2411J
  • 25% heat loss at normal room temp
  • Sweat only effective for cooling if it evaporates
417
Q

what is heat exchange between

A

the body and the environment

418
Q

what happens to central blood volume (CBV) and stroke volume (SV) during exercise in HEAT

A

they decrease in the heat

419
Q

what happens to HR in the heat

A

It increases to compensate for decrease in CBV and SV

420
Q

what are the effects of excessive dehydration

A

decreases. ..
- sweat rate
- plasma volume
- CO
- Maximal oxygen uptake
- Work capacity
- Muscle strength
- liver glycogen

421
Q

what are some warning signs of heat stroke

A
  • headache
  • nausea
  • thirst
  • chills/ goosebumps
  • faintness/ dizzy
  • fatigue
  • hot dry skin
  • confusion
  • weakness
422
Q

what are some factors affecting heat injury

A
  • fitness
  • clothing
  • envionmental humidity
  • metabolic rate
  • environmental temp
  • wind
  • hydration
  • acclimitization
423
Q

what is cold stress called and describe it

A

HYPOTHERMIA

  • Core temperature below 35 degrees
424
Q

describe cold acclimatisation

A
  • Results in lower skin temperature at which shivering begins
  • Increased non shivering thermogenesis
  • Maintains higher hand and foot temperature
  • Improved peripheral blood flow
  • Improved ability to sleep in the cold, due to reduced shivering
  • Adaptations begin in one week
425
Q

What is another name for the innate immune system

A

non specific

426
Q

What is another name for the aquired/ adaptive immune system

A

specific

427
Q

what is the main principle for immunity to work

A

to be able to recognise self v non self

428
Q

give some functions of the immune system

A
  • fight pathogens
  • repair damaged tissues
  • eradicate cancer cells
  • mediate allergic reactions
  • promote successful vaccinations
429
Q

what responses come under the innate/ non specific immune system

A

cell mediated (T cells)

Humoral (B cells)

430
Q

what responses come under the adaptive/ specific immune system

A

bloodborne (phagocytes)

physical barriers (skin, saliva, tears, stomach, mucas)

431
Q

what is another name for white blood cells

A

leukocytes

432
Q

give examples of lymphocytes

A

T cells and B cells

433
Q

what are the cells of the immune system

A

monocytes
neutrophils
WBC
Lymphocytes

434
Q

how do physical barriers work in immunity

A

they PHYSCIALLY prevent a foreign pathogen from entering the site of infection

eg

  • trapped by skin cells or mucas
  • killed by antibodies in tears, saliva, or mucas
  • removed from body by shredding skin, coughing or flushing bodily fluids (urine/ tears)
435
Q

what are macrophages

A

a type of phagocyte located in tissues

consumes microbes and dead cells within tissues (phagocytosis)

436
Q

what are neutrophils

A

Type of phagocyte that exits the blood to enter tissues during an acute phase response
RAPID responders to infection/ stress

the most abundant immune cells in blood (45-75%)

437
Q

what are natural killer cells

A

Destroy virus infected cells and cancerous cells
Produce proteins, such as cytokines and perforin to kill infected/ transformed cells

Found in blood (1-6%)

438
Q

where are complement proteins made

A

in the liver

439
Q

what are complement proteins part of

A

innate/ non specific immune system

440
Q

what do complement proteins do

A

circulate as inactive proteins in the blood

when activated they attach to the surface of microbes (bacteria) or dead cells
They tag the surface and signal via chemical gradients to recruit phagocytes to the site and destroy microbes/ dead cells

441
Q

what are T cells

A

a type of lymphocyte produced in the thymus that conducts cell mediated immunity
Release proteins that can kill eg virus infected cells

20-40% in blood

442
Q

what are B cells

A

A type of lymphocyte that can trigger the making and release of antibodies

can differentiate into plasma cells to produce antibodies
antibodies trap infected cell and trigger other immune cells to destroy them

443
Q

what’s special about T and B cells

A

They have the ability to create memory cells

444
Q

what are helper T cells (CD4+)

A
  • Can activate B cells to produce plasma cells
  • Co-ordinate immune responses by recruiting other immune cells to site of damage/ infection
  • Regulatory T cells have a role in supressing the activity of immune system (prevent autoimmune illness)

60-70% of T cells

445
Q

What are cytotoxic T cells (CD8+)

A

Highly efficient, specific killers that can recognise antigens on the surface of damaged or infected cells or tumours

30-40% of T cells

446
Q

where are B cells made

A

produced in bone marrow

447
Q

What is the function of plasma cells in immunity

A

Secrete antibodies (immunoglobulins) that bind to a non-self protein (antigen) or an infected cell

448
Q

in terms of excise and immunity describe the shape of the graph

A

TICK SHAPE

Low exercise makes infection risk average

Moderate exercise makes infection risk below average - this is good

High exercise makes infection risk above average - this is bad

449
Q

how can we measure immune function

A

-Self reported illness
(upper respiratory tract infections - URTI)
-Cellular level

-Release of ‘stress’ molecules from immune cells

450
Q

What are altered cells

A

cells becoming cancerous

451
Q

describe innate immunity when there is exercise induced muscle damage

A

Exercise induced muscle tissue elicits a strong innate Immune response involving neutrophils, monocytes and macrophages

these cells release proteins that initiate mediate and terminate muscle repair by modulating processes such as

  1. migration (to sites where the body may encounter damage)
  2. muscle fibre breakdown and regeneration
  3. antimicrobial defence
452
Q

what happens to lymphocytes after exercise

A

Exercise increases blood pressure, stress and induces adrenaline and proteins (cytokines) that mobilise lymphocytes into blood

453
Q

what are the factors affecting susceptibility to infection in athletes

A
  • increased exposure to pathogens
  • exercise induced immune suppression
  • inadequate diet
  • mental stress
  • lack of sleep
454
Q

what are the roles of the respiratory system

A

-PULMONARY RESPIRATION
ventilation
exchange of o2 and co2 in lungs

-CELLULAR RESPIRATION
o2 utilisation and co2 production by tissues

455
Q

what is the purpose of respiratory system during exercise

A
  • Gas exchange between environment and body

- Regulation of acid-base balance during exercise

456
Q

describe the movement of oxygen down the partial pressure gradient

A
  • from the alveoli into pulmonary capillaries in the lungs

- from tissue capillaries into tissues in the periphery

457
Q

describe the movement of carbon dioxide down the partial pressure gradient

A
  • from tissue into tissue capillaries in the periphery

- from the pulmonary capillaries into alveoli in the lungs

458
Q

what is the function of the pleural cavity

A
  • Holding the lungs inflated without any physical attachments
  • Lubrication for the constant movement of the lungs
459
Q

What is Ficks law of diffusion

A

The rate of gas diffusion is proportional to the tissue area

rate of diffusion = (tissue area/ tissue thickness) x diffusion coefficient of gas x difference in partial pressure

460
Q

when does inspiration occur

A

when the volume of the lung increases

461
Q

when does expiration occur

A

when the volume of the lung decreases

462
Q

inspiration during exercise recruits which muscles

A

external intercostals and scalene muscles

463
Q

what does airflow depend on

A
  • pressure differences between 2 ends of the airway

- resistance of airways

464
Q

what is the pulmonary ventilation equation

A

pulmonary ventialtion = volume of gas moved per breath x frequency of breathing

465
Q

what is tidal volume

A

amount of air inhaled or exhaled in one breath during quiet breathing

466
Q

what is total lung capacity

A

maximum amount of air in the lungs at the end of a maximum inspiration

467
Q

what is FEV

A

Forced expiratory volume

468
Q

what does chronic obstructive pulmonary disease do to vital capacity

A

decreases vital capacity

469
Q

what is daltons law

A

the total pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressure that each gas would exert individually

470
Q

what is the PO2 like at the lung

A

High PO2

Formation of oxyhemoglobin

471
Q

what is the PO2 like at the tissues

A

Low PO2

Release of O2 to tissues

472
Q

what is a leftward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve

A

improved affinity

473
Q

what is a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve

A

reduced affinity

474
Q

what is myoglobin

A

an oxygen binding protein in skeletal muscle with a much higher affinity for oxygen compared to Hb

It shuttles oxygen from cell membrane to mitochondria

475
Q

give a benefit of myoglobin

A

-It binds to o2 at very low po2

476
Q

what are the 3 ways co2 is transported in blood

A
  • dissolved in plasma (10%)
  • bound to Hb (20%)
  • Bicarbonate (70%)
477
Q

increased ventilation does what to co2

A

results in co2 exhalation

478
Q

decreased ventilation does what to co2

A

results in build ups of co2

479
Q

describe ventilation in the 4 phases of steady state exercise

A

phase 1
intense and abrupt increase in ventilation

phase 2
slow and gradual increase in ventilation

phase 3
steady state ventilation

phase 4
huge decay in ventilation when exercise stops

480
Q

what happens to ventilation at OBLA

A

ventilation rate increases again to correct pH via respiratory compensation

481
Q

where is the respiratory control centre located

A

In the medulla oblongata

482
Q

what are the 2 inputs into the respiratory control centre

A

-Humoral chemoreceptors
central and peripheral chemoreceptors

-Neural input
Muscle spindles, muscle mechanoreceptors, Golgi tendon organs, joint pressure receptors

483
Q

does endurance training effect ventilation

A

YES

after endurance training ventilation is 20-30% lower at the same work rate

484
Q

where does the info come from that stimulates ventilation

A

higher brain centres

central command

485
Q

what does spinal cord injury do to BP

talk about sympathetic and parasympathetic

A

Spinal cord injury = sympathetic nervous system innervation is prevented
so if BP drops, HR must increase to rectify it however because SNS is inhibited can only use PNS and therefore HR can only get to 100
Unable to increase HR sufficiently

486
Q

Rate of evaporative heat transfer is proportional to

A
  1. Surface area exposed to the environment
  2. Temp
  3. Relative humidity of ambient air
  4. Wind
487
Q

what is overload

A

Training effect occurs when a physiological system is exercised at a level beyond which it is normally

(exercise induced adaptation/ hormesis)

488
Q

what is specificity

A

Training effect is specific to

  1. Muscle fibres recruited during exercise
  2. Energy system involved (aerobic vs anaerobic)
  3. Velocity of contraction
  4. Type of contraction (eccentric, concentric, isometric)
489
Q

what is reversibility

A

Gains are lost when training stops

490
Q

what does heritability refer to

A

genetics

491
Q

does genetics play a big role in vo2 max

A

genetics determines approx 50% of vo2 max in sedentary adults

also affects training response

492
Q

can vo2 max improve with training

A

YES

average improvement is 15-20%

493
Q

what is eccentric hypertrophy

A

heart chamber size and wall thickness increased

494
Q

how does endurance training increase stroke volume

A

decreased afterload

increased contractility

495
Q

what does endurance training do to stroke volume

A

increase stroke volume

496
Q

what happens to vagal tone after training

A

vagal tone increased

497
Q

what are the training induced increases in arteriovenous o2 difference

A

increased muscle blood flow

increased extraction and utilisation o2 from the blood (increased mitochondrial number/ volume)

increased capillary supply/ density and oxygen delivery in trained muscle

498
Q

during Submaximal exercise describe the blood flow at trained muscles

A

blood flow in trained muscles is lower because the arteriovenous difference is greater (greater oxygen extraction)

499
Q

during maximal exercise describe the blood flow at trained muscles

A

blood flow in trained muscles is higher and the arteriovenous difference is greater (greater oxygen extraction)

500
Q

what is the effect of endurance training on performance and homeostasis

A
  • Ability to perform prolonged, submaximal exercise is dependent on the ability to maintain homeostasis
  • allows an easier transition from rest to steady state
501
Q

What does Endurance exercise training do to muscle fibres

A
  1. Shift in muscle fibre type (fast to slow) and increased number of capillaries
  2. Increased mitochondrial volume
  3. Training induced changes in fuel utilization
  4. Increased antioxidant capacity
  5. Improved acid-base regulation
502
Q

what happens to heart rate recovery (HRR) post endurance training

A

HRR is faster

503
Q

what type of signalling pathways interact to promote exercise induced adaptations

A

primary and secondary signalling pathways

504
Q

what does detraining cause

A

rapid decrease in vo2 max

decreased SVmax

Decreased mitochondria/ oxidative capacity of muscle

505
Q

describe the mitochondria adaption to training

A

muscle mitochondria adapt rapidly to training

double within 5 weeks

506
Q

describe the mitochondria adaption to de-training

A

lost rapidly!!

loss of 50% of the training gain within 1 week
majority of adaptation lost in 2 weeks

507
Q

how long does it take to regain mitochondrial adaptations

A

requires 3-4 weeks of retraining to regain mitochondrial adaptations

508
Q

what body adaptations does anaerobic sprint training have

A
  • increase peak anaerobic power by 3-28%
  • improves muscle buffering capacity (increasing intracellular buffers and H+ ion transporters)
  • hypertrophy of type2 muscle fibres
  • elevates enzymes involved in both the ATP-PC system and glycolysis
509
Q

what is muscular strength

A

maximal force that a muscle group can generate

1rep max

510
Q

what is muscular endurance

A

ability to make repeated contractions against a Submaximal load

511
Q

what is high resistance/ low resistance strength training and what do they result in

A

-High resistance training (6-10reps till fatigue)
Results in strength increases

-Low resistance training (35-40reps till fatigue)
Results in increases in muscular endurance

512
Q

is resistance training beneficial for older people

A

YES - will reduce sarcopenia as resistance training promotes hypertrophy

but the gains won’t be as big as they would for a young person doing resistance training

513
Q

how does resistance training increase muscle strength

A

changes in the nervous system and muscle fibre size/function

514
Q

Resistance training

what changes in nervous system are there

A
  • Increased neural drive
  • Increased number of motor units recruited
  • Increased firing rate of motor units
  • Increased motor unit synchronisation
  • Improved neural transmission across neuromuscular junction
515
Q

Resistance training

what changes in muscle fibre are there

A

-Increased muscle fibre specific tension in type 1 fibres (due to calcium sensitivity, meaning greater cross burgess formation)

516
Q

what is hyperplasia

A

increased number of muscle fibres

517
Q

what does resistance training do to both protein synthesis and breakdown

A

increases both protein synthesis and protein breakdown

518
Q

what are the key reasons that resistance training increases protein synthesis

A
  • mRNA increases
  • Ribosome number increases
  • activation of protein kinase mechanistic target of rapamycin (mTOR) accelerates protein synthesis
519
Q

what 2 molecules stimulate mTOR

A

phosphatidic acid (PA)

Ras homolog enriched in brain (Rheb)

520
Q

what does the protein kinase mTOR do

A

accelerates protein synthesis following resistance training

521
Q

does resistance training have any effect on insulin-like growth factor1 (IGF-1) and growth hormone?

A

YES

resistance training results in small increases in both growth hormone and IGF-1

522
Q

what does resistance training do to satellite cells

A

activates satellite cells to divide and fuse with adjacent muscle fibres to increase myonuclei

increased myonuclei helps protein synthesis

523
Q

how much of differences in muscle mass between individuals are due to genetics

A

80% of the differences in muscle mass variation between individuals is due to genetics

524
Q

what does strength and endurance training together do to gains

A

both training methods together impair strength gains

for best gains- just do strength training

525
Q

what is associated with central fatigue

A

central nervous system

526
Q

what is associated with peripheral fatigue

A

neural factors
mechanical factors
energetics of contraction

527
Q

what is central fatigue characterised by

A

reduced motor units activated

reduced motor unit firing frequency

528
Q

why does radical production cause fatigue during prolonged exercise

A
  • exercise promotes radical production
  • radicals are capable of damaging muscle proteins
  • damage of contractile proteins (actin and myosin) = less cross bridge formation
529
Q

what is hyponatremia

A

when the sodium conc in your blood are abnormally low

530
Q

Does gender influence a training programme

A

YES

exercise prescriptions should be individualised depending on gender

531
Q

does fitness level alter training improvements

A

YES

improvements are always higher in those with a lower initial fitness

532
Q

what is more defined by genetics anaerobic capacity or aerobic capacity

A

anaerobic

more dependant on fast type2x fibres that are determined during early years development

533
Q

what 3 things contribute to aerobic performance

A

a high vo2 max

superior exercise economy/ efficiency

a high lactate threshold and critical power

534
Q

what are low responders

A

possess a relatively low untrained vo2 max

exhibit limited exercise training response, vo2 max improves by 5% or less

535
Q

what are high responders

A

possess a high untrained vo2 max

individuals with ideal genetic makeup required for a champion

vo2max can increase by 50% with training

536
Q

why should you warm up

A
  • increase HR
  • Increases CO
  • increase blood flow
  • Increases muscle temp & enzyme activity
  • delivers oxygen to muscle
  • minimise risk of injury
  • increase performance
537
Q

why do we do a cool down

A

return blood ‘pooled’ in muscles to central circulation

538
Q

what are 3 training methods to improve aerobic power

A
  • Interval training
  • long, slow distance
  • High intensity continuous exercise
539
Q

what does training aerobic power improve

A

vo2 max
lactate threshold
running economy

540
Q

what are the 4 laboratory tests used to quantify endurance exercise potential

A
  1. lactate threshold
  2. ventilatory threshold
  3. critical power
  4. exercise economy
541
Q

What is HIIT

A
  • repeated high intensity exercise bouts separated by brief recovery periods
  • expressed as a ratio of work:rest
  • intensity part normally between 85-100% of HRmax
  • rest interval = light activity eg walking
542
Q

what are the training outcomes of HIIT

A
  • improved vo2 max
  • improved running economy
  • improved lactate threshold
  • increases mitochondrial volume
543
Q

what is long slow distance training

A
  • low intensity exercise 50-65% vo2max, OR 60-70% of HRmax

- training duration greater than event of competition duration

544
Q

what are long slow distance training improvements dependant on

A

based on volume of training

545
Q

what is high intensity continuous exercise

A
  • at or above lactate threshold
  • 80-100% of vo2max
  • monitor intensity using HR

-a good method of increasing vo2 max and lactate threshold

546
Q

when are injuries most likely to occur

A

as a result of over training

  • short term, high intensity exercise
  • prolonged, low intensity exercise
547
Q

what is the 10% rule

A

to increase exercise intensity or duration <10% per week

548
Q

what are other injury risk factors apart from training

A
  • strength and flexibility imbalance
  • footwear problems
  • poor running surface
  • disease (arthritis)
549
Q

what systems can you train to improve anaerobic power

A

ATP-PC system

glycolytic system

550
Q

for anaerobic power how do you train the ATP-PC system

A

-short (5-10s) high intensity work intervals eg 30m sprints

with 30-60s rest intervals

little lactic acid is produced so recovery is rapid

551
Q

for anaerobic power how do you train the glycolytic system

A

short 20-60s high intensity work intervals

may deplete muscle glycogen levels

should alternate hard and light training days

552
Q

what are the 3 types of strength training exercises

A

isometric or static

dynamic or isotonic

isokinetic

553
Q

what is isometric or static strength

A

application of force without joint movement

554
Q

what is dynamic or isotonic strength

A

includes variable resistance exercises

555
Q

what is isokinetic strength

A

exertion of a force at constant speed

556
Q

define strength

A

the ability to exert force in order to overcome resistance

557
Q

define power

A

ability to exert force with respect to time (eg rate at which force can be applied)

558
Q

what is progressive overload

A

periodically increasing resistance to continue to overload the muscle

559
Q

how often a week should you train for strength

A

2-4 days per week to incorporate rest days

560
Q

how many sets should you do for maximal strength training gains

A

2-9 sets result in greater strength gains and hypertrophy

561
Q

what should be specific about you strength training

A

you should use muscles that you will use in competition

562
Q

do untrained males have greater absolute strength than untrained females

A

YES

upper body 50% stronger
lower body 30% stronger

563
Q

describe long term hypertrophy between men and women

A

men exhibit greater hypertrophy long term as a result of strength training

564
Q

what are the nutritional suggestions when training

A

low muscle glycogen
-promotes mitochondria formation & protein synthesis

high protein
-increases protein synthesis post training

antioxidant supplements
-may prevent damage and fatigue from free radical production

565
Q

what are DOMS

A
  • appears 24-48hrs after strenuous exercise

- occurs due to microscopic tears in muscle fibres or connective tissue

566
Q

what causes more damage eccentric exercise or concentric exercise

A

ECCENTRIC = more damage

567
Q

what is the common treatment for DOMS

A

rest
ice
compression
elevate

maybe anti-inflammatory drugs

568
Q

what are the 3 types of stretching

A

static stretching

dynamic stretching

proprioreceptive neuromuscular facilitation (PNF)

569
Q

what is static stretching

A

continuously holding a stretch position

hold for 10-60s, repeat 3-5 times

less muscle spindle activity

570
Q

what is dynamic stretching

A

ballistic stretching movements

moving

571
Q

what is PNF stretching

A

a static stretch followed by isometric contraction of muscle being stretched - requires a training partner

stimulates Golgi tendon organ

572
Q

what is tapering

A

the short term reduction in training load prior to competition

allows muscles to resynthesise glycogen and heal from training induced damage

benefits strength and endurance events

573
Q

what are the 3 cycles in training periodisation

A

macrocycle

mesocycle

microcycle

574
Q

what is the macrocycle

A

the entire season/ year

575
Q

what is the mesocycle

A

2-6 weeks

targets specific training goals

576
Q

what is the microcycle

A

7 days
a focus block of training
eg prep for match day or comp

577
Q

what training is suggested in the off season

A
  • weight training
  • running
  • skill practice
  • other sport participation
578
Q

what training is suggested in preseason

A
  • weight training
  • running
  • skill practice
  • learning strategies
579
Q

what training is suggested during the season

A

a maintenance programme

580
Q

what happens to thermoregulation in women during the menstrual cycle

A

thermoregulation = impaired during menstrual cycle

581
Q

what are some concerns with female athletes

A
  • exercise during menstrual cycle
  • eating disorders
  • bone mineral density
  • exercise during pregnancy
582
Q

what is athletic amenorrhea

A

stopping of your period

due to modified release of hormones from hypothalamus

583
Q

how common is athletic amenorrhea

A

12-69% of female athletes

584
Q

what causes athletic amenorrhea

A
  • overtraining
  • increased psychological stress (more catecholamines)
  • low energy availability , and increased energy expenditure
585
Q

what is dysmenorrhea

A

painful menstruation due to prostaglandins

may limit training due to discomfort

586
Q

what is anorexia nervosa

A

extreme steps to reduce body weight

587
Q

what are some techniques used for anorexia

A

starvation
excessive exercise
laxative use

588
Q

how to help someone with anorexia

A

nutritional guidance

psychological counselling

589
Q

what is bulimia

A

pattern of big eating followed by vomiting

590
Q

what are the effects of bulimia

A

damage to teeth and oesophagus due to vomiting of stomach acids

591
Q

how do you treat bulimia

A

professional support

592
Q

what is osteoporosis

A

loss of bone mineral content

593
Q

what are the main causes of osteoporosis

A

estrogen deficiency due to amenorrhea

inadequate calcium intake due to easting disorders

594
Q

what is the female athlete triad

A

low energy availability, menstrual dysfunction, low bone mineral density

now known as RED-S (relative energy efficiency in sport)

595
Q

describe exercise during pregnancy

A

is good as long as…

  • body temp is monitored to prevent hyperthermia
  • maintain adequate hydration
  • reduce training intensity as due date approaches
596
Q

describe knee injury occurrence between men and women

A

women 3.5x more likely to do their ACL than men

597
Q

why are women more likely to injure their ACL than men

A
  • fluctuation in hormones during menstrual cycle compromises ACL strength and proprioreceptor feedback
  • sex differences in knee anatomy (looser joint in women)
598
Q

is musculoskeletal skeletal training good in children

A

yes may optimise growth in children

599
Q

does musculoskeletal training in children have any risks

A

damage concerns to articular cartilage, growth plates and muscle tendons

600
Q

can people with type 1 diabetes train vigorously

A

yes if they are free from diabetic or medical complications

601
Q

what safety measurements do type 1 diabetics need to carry out with exercise

A

NEED TO AVOID HYPOGLYCAEMIA

602
Q

How do diabetics avoid hypoglycaemia

A

combination of exercise, diet and insulin -through pumps to keep optimal blood glucose control

have available carbohydrate snack or drink available during exercise

603
Q

where should the insulin injection site be in type1 diabetics

A

away from working muscle to prevent increased rate of uptake and hypoglycaemia

604
Q

can asthmatic people exercise

A

Yes apart from scuba diving

  • aerobic training can decrease airway inflammation and improve asthmatic symptoms
  • have to control exercise induced bronchospasm
  • requires inhaler to be present during exercise
605
Q

what is epilepsy

A

loss of consciousness, muscle tremor and sensory disturbances

characterised by seizures
-stress can be a major cause of seizures

606
Q

what increases the risk of seizures during exercise

A
  • physical fatigue
  • hyperventilation
  • hypoxia
  • hyperthermia
  • hypoglycaemia
  • electrolyte imbalance
  • emotional stress
607
Q

what happens to endurance performance after age 60

A

endurance perfomance declines

608
Q

what are the training guidelines for masters athletes

A

medical clearance needs to be obtained

be aware of overtraining

training programme individualised

rest days in between challenging workouts

609
Q

what is neurogenic bladder in para athletes

A

predisposed to UTIs

UTIs can cause pain, fever, increased muscle spasticity and autonomic dysreflexia

610
Q

what is neurogenic bowel in para athletes

A

difficulty with bowel evacuation may have a negative impact on athletes prep for comp

regular and time consuming bowel programme

611
Q

what is autonomic dysreflexia

A

serious medical problem that can happen if you’ve injured your spinal cord in your upper back

It makes your blood pressure dangerously high and, coupled with very low heartbeats, can lead to a stroke, seizure, or cardiac arrest.

612
Q

what are the symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia

A

pounding headache, blurred vision, facial flushing, nasal congestion or stuffiness

613
Q

what is cerebal palsy catagory in paralympics

A
  • disorders of speech, hearing and vision can affect communication
  • increased muscle tone, decreased joint range of motion, higher likelihood of overuse injuries
614
Q

what is the amputee catagory in Paralympics

A

the damaged limb and prosthetic device combine so the limb is still able to be used

overuse injuries = common due to contralateral limb compensating

615
Q

when is it beneficial to use altitude training

A
  • Long events that depend on oxygen delivery are worsened as there’s less oxygen available
616
Q

what is it about altitude training that provides benefits for SPRINTERS

A
  • The lower air density at altitude offers less resistance to high-speed movement, and sprint performances are either not affected or are improved
617
Q

What is boyles law

A

gas volume is inversely proportional to its pressure

618
Q

what happens to atmospheric pressure at altitude

A

atmospheric pressure decreases at higher altitudes

619
Q

what is normoxia

A

normal PO2 (sea level)

620
Q

what is hypoxia

A

low PO2 (altitude)

621
Q

what is hyperoxia

A

high PO2

622
Q

What is polycythemia

A

an abnormally increased concentration of haemoglobin in the blood, either through reduction of plasma volume or increase in RBC

623
Q

What does higher o2 in blood mean for extraction

A

higher extraction as less reliance on central delivery

624
Q

what are the long term adjustments to altitude hypoxia

A
  • hyperventilation
  • HR increased
  • SV increased
  • decreased plasma volume
  • increased capilarisation
  • increased oxidative enzyme activity
  • loss of body weight and lean body mass
625
Q

what are some downsides to altitude training

A

blood viscosity
loss of training intensity
reduced muscle mass

626
Q

what is the perfect solution for altitude training

A

live high altitude

train low altitude

in tents (hypoxicators)

627
Q

what are important factors to consider when talking about performance/ training (not about the athlete)

A

heat
humidity
altitude
nutrition

628
Q

how does regular physical activity relate to health outcomes

A
  • lower rates of mortality
  • Lower risk of CVD
  • improved weight management
  • lower risk of cancer
  • decreased fall risk
  • improved brain health
  • improved bone health
629
Q

what are the physical activity guidelines for adults

A

-move more, sit less each day

150-300mins of moderate intensity exercise weekly

75-150mins of vigorous exercise weekly

at least 2 times a week

630
Q

what do you need to think about when considering medicine with exercise

A
  • does the drug work
  • how much change in effect comes from a change in dose
  • is it efficient
  • does the affect very between individuals
  • is there a side affect
631
Q

what does FITT stand for

and what are the 2 add ons

A

frequency
intensity
time
type

can add volume and progression

632
Q

in reference to the dose response for exercise

what is an acute response

A

occur with 1 or several bouts of exercise but do not improve further

633
Q

in reference to the dose response for exercise

what is a rapid response

A

benefits occur early and plateau

634
Q

in reference to the dose response for exercise

what is linear

A

gains are made continuously over time

635
Q

in reference to the dose response for exercise

what is delayed

A

gains only occur after weeks of training

636
Q

what is MVPA

A

moderate to vigorous physical activity

637
Q

what type of responders is HIIT good for

A

low responders

638
Q

what is LPA

A

light physical activity

called background physical activity because it describes activities of daily living

can be qualified by step count

639
Q

what is considered a sedentary step count

A

less than 5,000

640
Q

what is considered an active step count

A

7,500-9,000

641
Q

what is MPA

A

moderate physical activitiy

642
Q

what are the guidelines for cardiorespiratory fitness

A

dynamic larger muscle activities (walking, jogging, swimming cycling, rowing, dancing

3-5 sessions per week

20-60min sessions

intensity = 40-89% HRmax

643
Q

what are some risk factors of chronic disease

A
  • age
  • gender
  • race
  • social economic factors
  • smoking
  • alcohol
  • poor diet
  • physical inactivity
644
Q

what is the name of the model used to establish cause of chronic disease

A

epidemiological model

645
Q

what is atherosclerosis

A
  • thickening of the inner lining of arteries

- leads to heart attack or stroke or death

646
Q

what are some risk factors of CHD

A
  • age
  • family history
  • cigarette smoking
  • sedentary lifestyle
  • obesity
  • hypertension
  • dyslipidemia
647
Q

what is dyslipidemia

A

Dyslipidemia is the imbalance of lipids such as cholesterol, low-density lipoprotein cholesterol, (LDL-C), triglycerides, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL).

results from diet, tobacco exposure, or genetic and can lead to cardiovascular disease with severe complications.

648
Q

what is hypertension

A

raised blood pressure

130/80 or above

649
Q

how to treat hypertension

A

physical activity

650
Q

how to measure obesity

A

through BMI

651
Q

what BMI is considered obsese

A

30+

652
Q

what are statin drugs

A

lower LDL-C and CRP

can reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease and death

653
Q

what is CRP

A

C reactive protein

protein made by liver

Sent into bloodstream in response to inflammation.

654
Q

what is a mediterranean diet

A

fruits, vegetables, legumes, whole grains, olive oil

cause reductions in CRP and IL-6

655
Q

what does LDL-C stand for

A

Low density lipoprotein cholesterol

656
Q

what does IL-6 stand for and what does it do

A

Interleukin 6

interleukin that acts as both a pro-inflammatory cytokine and an anti-inflammatory myokine.

657
Q

how to reduce inflammation

A

exercise
statin drugs
mediterranean diet

658
Q

what is metabolic syndrome

A

medical term for a combination of diabetes, high blood pressure (hypertension) and obesity

659
Q

when does someone get diagnosed with metabolic syndrome

A

when they have 3 or more of the risk factors

660
Q

what are the risk factors for metabolic syndrome

A
  • abdominal obesity
  • waist circumference (>102 men, >88 women)
  • hyperglycaemia
  • low LDL cholesterol
  • high BP
  • inability to control blood sugar levels
661
Q

what are the 2 major causes of metabolic syndrome

A
  • low grade chronic inflammation

- increased oxidative stress

662
Q

what is asthma caused by

A
  • contraction of smooth muscle of airways
  • swelling of mucosal cells
  • hypersecretion of mucus
663
Q

what are some common triggers for asthma

A 
animal fur
pollen
cigarette smoke
execrise
viral infections 
dust
664
Q

why does exercise cause asthma

A

respiratory tract cools and drys

increases osmolarity on surface of the cell which triggers the release of chemical mediators and airway narrowing

665
Q

what does COPD stand for

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

666
Q

what is COPD

A

The name given to a group of lung diseases

  • chronic bronchitis
  • emphysema
  • bronchial asthma

can irreversibly create changes in the lung

667
Q

how to treat COPD

A

breathing exercises

exercise training

668
Q

how to test for COPD

A

FEV (forced expiratory volume in 1 second)

Graded exercise test

669
Q

what are some warning signs/ symptoms of type 1 diabetes

A 
frequent urination
frequent thirst
extreme hunger
rapid weight loss, weakness, fatigue 
irritability, nausea and vomiting
670
Q

what is a primary treatment of type 2 diabetes

A

exercise

helps reduce obesity
control blood glucose
reduces insulin resistance

671
Q

what training is recommended for people with diabetes

A

aerobic and resistance

672
Q

what is cancer caused by

A

uncontrolled division of abnormal cells

cancer cells invade normal tissues and alter physiological function

673
Q

does physical activity reduce the risk of cancer

A

physical activity reduces the risk of certain types of cancer

674
Q

what are some cancer treatments

A 
chemotherapy 
radiation
surgery
hormone therapies
immunotherapies
675
Q

what can occur as a result of cancer treatment

A

muscle loss

bone mineral density loss

676
Q

explain chemotherapy and exercise

A

physical activity recognised to benefit chemotherapy patients

677
Q

what can physical activity do to terminal ill cancer patients

A

exercise can improve the quality and duration of life in terminally ill cancer patients

678
Q

what needs to be considered for exercise prescription in cancer patients

A

tumour site
cancer stage
treatment type
other medical conditions

679
Q

what is some suggested guidance for exercise in cancer patients

A
  • 2 days a week
  • aerobic (walking)
  • every other day if possible
  • 30 min sessions
680
Q

what is CAD

A

Coronary artery disease

681
Q

what should patients with heart failure be offered

A

be offered exercise based rehab

it increases quality of life and exercise tolerance and decreases hospitalisation

682
Q

what are some common medicines for cardiac patients

A

Beta blockers
-decreased HR & BP

anti-arrhythmia medications
-controls dangerous heart rhythms

nitroglycerin
-relaxes smooth muscle in veins to reduce venous return

683
Q

what does graded exercise testing normally monitor

A

ECG (HR and rhythm)
BP
ratings perceived exhaustion

684
Q

when prescribing exercise what is one thing to consider

A

invisible issues

eg autonomic dysfunctions in neurological conditions

685
Q

when would you stop HIIT training

A

elevated resting BP or hR

feeling unwell

angina (chest pain), dyspnea, dizziness

686
Q

what happens to distribution of blood to brain during 30min moderate to vigorous intensity

A

no change

SPORT SCIENCE (9 decks)

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