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EXERCISE PHYSIOLOGY Flashcards

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1
Q

Define homeostasis

A

The condition of equilibrium in the bodys internal environment

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2
Q

What does AFFerent mean

A

AWay from control centre

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3
Q

What does EFFerent mean

A

Towards control centre

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4
Q

Describe the pathway of homeostasis

A

Regulated variable
Sensor
Control centre
Effector

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5
Q

What happens to regulated variables when you get ill

A

They can get reset

eg temp gets reset and you get a fever

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6
Q

What is negative feedback

A

Acts to reduce an effect

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7
Q

Give an example of negative feedback when your cold

A

Feel cold
Shiver to trigger heat production
Return to normal level

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8
Q

What is positive feedback

A

Acts to increase an effect

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9
Q

Give an example of positive feedback in ovulation

A

Ovulation between days 12-14
Oestrogen provides positive feedback to the hypothalamus and pituitary gland
causing rise in oestrogen production in ovaries
Leads to ovulation

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10
Q

What are feedforward loops

A

Are physiological responses in anticipation of a change in a variable

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11
Q

Give an example of a feedforward loop

A

Heart rate increases prior to a running race

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12
Q

What is a reflex

A

Requires knowledge from an integrating centre and a circuitry that connects the receptor and the effector

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13
Q

What are local homeostatic controls

A

Are highly significant because they allow individual parts of the body to self regulate their responses

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14
Q

How do cells communicate

A

Direct contact
Neighbouring cells through gap functions
Cell surface proteins trigger a response
Short distance release of chemicals (paracrine signalling)
Long distance release of chemicals (endocrine signalling)

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15
Q

How much does the brain weigh

A

1.5kg

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16
Q

What can primates do with neurones

A

Pack them

The neurones don’t increase in size when the brain does allowing you to pack neurones

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17
Q

What happens to the brain as your body size increases

A

The brain also increases

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18
Q

how many neurones in the brain

A

86 billion

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19
Q

how much % of cardiac output is directed to the brain

A

15-20%

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20
Q

How much of total energy does brain consume

A

20%

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21
Q

What makes up the nervous system

A

Central nervous system (CNS)

Peripheral nervous system (PNS)

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22
Q

What makes up the CNS

A

Brain

Spinal cord

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23
Q

What makes up the PNS

A

Nerves

Ganglion

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24
Q

What happens if you damage the CNS

A

It doesn’t regrow as encased in a bone structure

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25
Q

What happens if you damage the PNS

A

It can regrow as its plastic

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26
Q

What is somatic

A

CONTROLS VOLUNATRY MOVEMENT
Eg- Peripheral nerves exit spinal cord and contacts muscles
Stimulation of nerves cause contraction of muscle and moves body therefore voluntary

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27
Q

What is autonomic

A

CONTROLS INVOLUNTARY MOVEMENT

Controls lungs, heart, smooth muscle, endocrine & exocrine glands

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28
Q

What are the 2 sections to the autonomic nervous system

A

Sympathetic

Parasympathetic

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29
Q

What are 2 options in sympathetic

A

fight or flight

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30
Q

what are 2 options in parasympathetic

A

Rest and digest

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31
Q

What is the technical term for the forebrain

A

Prosencephalon

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32
Q

what is the technical term for the mid brain

A

Mesencephalon

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33
Q

what is the technical term for the hindbrain

A

Rhombencephalon

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34
Q

What are input senses

A

Visual
Auditory
Olfactory (smell)
Gustatory (taste)
Tactile (touch)
Vestibular (sense of head movement in space)
Proprioreceptive (sensations from muscles and joints of body)

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35
Q

What is vestibular sense

A

Sense of head movement in space

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36
Q

3 steps to making a decision

A

Sensory input
Integration
Motor output

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37
Q

What are the 2 major cell types in the brain

A

Neurones

Glial cells

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38
Q

Describe neurones

A

Electrically exciteable
Communicate with other cells via synapses
Make up majority of nervous tissue

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39
Q

Describe glial cells

A

Non neuronal cells that maintain homeostasis
Form myelin
Provide support and protection for neurones

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40
Q

NEURONES

how is info passed down a neurone?

A

Signal arrives at dendrite
Change electrical charge of cell up & down
If charge reaches threshold action potential occurs and travels down axon
When action potential reaches axon terminal it causes calcium to enter terminaL
Causes synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters to bind to the cell membrane and release contents into synaptic cleft
Neurotrasnmitter binds to specific receptors on dendrites of next neurone

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41
Q

NEURONES

If neurotransmitteris inhibitory what happens

A

Lowers charge in receiving neurone

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42
Q

NEURONES

If neurotransmitteris excitatory what happens

A

Increases charge in receiving neurone

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43
Q

NEURONES

what does myelin do

A

Speed up transmission by up to 10x

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44
Q

What are the 5 types of glial cell found in the CNS

A 
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Schwann cells
Microglia
Ependymal cells
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45
Q

GLIAL CELLS

what are astrocytes

A

Regulate chemicals around neurones - glucose, iron

Regulate blood flow around brain (vasomodulation)

Nervous system repair (following injury to astrocytes)

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46
Q

GLIAL CELLS

what are Oligiodendrocytes

A

Form myelin sheath on axons in CNS

Each oligiodendrocyte can myelinate up to 50 axons

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47
Q

GLIAL CELLS

what are Schwann cells

A

Form myelin in PNS, assist with regrowth of axons

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48
Q

GLIAL CELLS

what are microglia

A

Creates brains immune system

Hunt CNS for damaged cells/ infectious agents

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49
Q

GLIAL CELLS

what are ependymal cells

A

Make up membrane called ependyma found in central canal of spinal cord
Producing cerebrospinal fluid
Build barriers between compartments

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50
Q

What are the 2 sections of the forebrain/ prosencephalon

A

Diencephalon

Telencephalon

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51
Q

What makes up the telencephalon

A

Cerebrum

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52
Q

what makes up the diencephalon

A

Thalamus
Hypothalamus
Epithalamus

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53
Q

What 3 things make up the brainstem

A

Medulla
Pons
Cerebellum

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54
Q

Where is the medulla located

A

Lower half of brainstem,

On top of spinal cord

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55
Q

What does the medulla control

A

Cardiac functions
Respiration
Reflexes

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56
Q

What is the function of the pons

A

Contains nuclei that relay signals from forebrain to cerebellum
Nuclei deal with sleep, respiration, swallowing, bladder control, hearing, taste, eye movement, facial expressions & posture

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57
Q

What is the functon of the cerebellum

A

Maintenance of balance and posture
Coordination of movement
Motor learning

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58
Q

What happens if the cerebellum is damaged

A

Movements still occur just less coordinated

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59
Q

What does the midbrain control

A

Tectum controls rapid orientation of head and neck

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60
Q

What does the diencephalon control

A

Thalamus acts as a switchboard

Takes info from periphery and passes it to the cortex

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61
Q

What is the basal ganglia

A

Series of interconnected nuclei

Needed for movement regulation, skill learning, addiction, selection of behaviours & movement

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62
Q

What are the 2 pathways through the basal ganglia

A

Direct

Indirect

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63
Q

Where does the direct path through basal ganglia go

A

runs directly through basal ganglia, excitory effect on cortex, net effect is pro movement

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64
Q

Where does the indirect path through basal ganglia go

A

takes a longer loop through basal ganglia, has inhibitory effect on cortex, net effect is antimovement

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65
Q

What happens if basal ganglia is damaged

A

Body produces too much or too little movement

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66
Q

What is the function of the cerebral cortex

A

Plays key role in movement, attention, perception, memory, language, conciousness

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67
Q

What are the folds in the cerebral cortex called

A

Gyri

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68
Q

what are the grooves in the cerebral cortex called

A

Sulci

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69
Q

What is FMRI

A

Functional magnetic resonance imaging
Measures blood flow
Shows active areas of the brain that require glucose which is transported in the blood
Oxygenated & de-oxygenated blood have different levels of megneticity

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70
Q

What is DBS

A

Deep brain stimulation
Therapy that delivers high frequency electrical pulses directly deep onto the brain

For Parkinson’s it targets nuclei in basal ganglia

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71
Q

What is the middle of the spinal cord made up of

A

Neurones

& other cells (grey matter)

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72
Q

What is the outside of the spinal cord made up of

A

Fibres (White matter)

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73
Q

What are the 3 horns

A

Dorsal (back)
Ventral (front)
Lateral (side)

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74
Q

function of the dorsal horn

A

Contains sensory neruones

Receive sensory info and send it to brain

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75
Q

Function of ventral horn

A

Contains neurones that send messages directly to muscles

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76
Q

Function of intermediate zone

A

Contain interneurons, these integrate info from sensory neurones and contact motor neurones (inhibition)

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77
Q

Which horn is sensory info collected in

A

Dorsal horn

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78
Q

Which horn are motor neurones located in

A

Ventral horn

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79
Q

What is spinal white matter

A

Fibre tracts that carry info to and from the brain

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80
Q

What do corticospinal fibres influence

A

The movement of every part of the body but ESPECIALLY individual finger use

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81
Q

What 2 tracts make up the lateral descending system

A

Corticospinal tract

Rubrospinal tract

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82
Q

What 2 tracts make up the medial descending system

A

Vestibulospinal tract

Retriculospinal tract

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83
Q

What is the medial descending system involved in the control of

A

Control of balance & posture

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84
Q

The medial lemniscus/ dorsal column pathway carries sensory info from joint to skin about what

A

Fine touch
Vibration
2 point discrimination
Proprioreception

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85
Q

What does the spinothalamic tract do

A

Conveys crude touch (sense of being touched but without knowledge of where)
Pain
Temperature

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86
Q

What does the vestibulospinal tract do

A

Sensory system that provides sense of balance and spatial orientation for purpose of coordinating movement with balance
Send most of output to spinal cord and muscles that move eyes

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87
Q

What does the reticulospinal tract do

A

Reticular formation is a set of interconnected nuclei located throughout brainstem
Maintain tone, balance & posture

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88
Q

What does the rubrospinal tract contain

A

Contains red nucleus’

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89
Q

What are dermatones

A

An area of skin supplied by nerves from a SINGLE spinal root

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90
Q

What does a single action potential cause

A

A single twitch

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91
Q

What do multiple action potentials in quick succession cause

A

Maximal contraction called tetanic

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92
Q

What is a tetanic contraction

A

maximal contraction

Muscles cannot relax between action potentials

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93
Q

What is the primary motor cortex

A

The neurones have simple relationship to movement
Fire before movement onset
Code for basic parameters for movement, force, direction, extent, speed

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94
Q

What is the non primary motor cortex

A

Neurones in the non-primary motor cortex have a more complex relationship to movement
They code for more complex aspects of movement

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95
Q

What are the 2 cortexs found in the non primary motor cortex

A

Pre motor cortex

Supplementary motor cortex

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96
Q

What does the pre motor cortex do

A

planning movement, spatial guidance, sensory guidance

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97
Q

What does the supplementary motor cortex do

A

connected to basal ganglia – coordinating temporal sequences of actions, bimanual coordination

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98
Q

What does the primary sensory cortex do

A

Code for touch, vibration, heat, pain, pressure, proprioreception

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99
Q

What is proprioreception split into

A

A. Joint position sense- ability to recognise joint position in space
B. Kinaesthesia – ability to appreciate and recognise joint movement or motion
C. Sensation of resistance – ability to appreciate and recognise force generated within a joint

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100
Q

What is the posterior parietal cortex for

A

Reaching movements

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101
Q

SLIDING FILAMENT MODEL

What are binding sites

A

positions on actin filaments where myosin heads can attach

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102
Q

What are cross bridges

A

temporarily formed mechanical bridges between actin binding sites and myosin heads

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103
Q

SLIDING FILAMENT MODEL

What is a power stroke

A

a ‘nod’ of the myosin head that applies force to the actin filament via the cross bridge, causes the slide

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104
Q

What are the 3 types of muscle

A

Skeletal
Cardiac
Smooth

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105
Q

Which muscle types are striated

A

Skeletal

Cardiac

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106
Q

What is the cardiac muscle controlled by

A

sub-conscious autonomic nervous system

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107
Q

What is the smooth muscle controlled by

A

sub-conscious autonomic nervous system

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108
Q

Is skeletal muscle uni or multi nuclei

A

Multinuclei

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109
Q

What is a muscle surrounded by

A

fascia

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110
Q

Are A bands light or dark

A

DArk

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111
Q

Are I bands light or dark

A

LIght

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112
Q

Are A bands actin or myosin

A

Thick myosin filaments

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113
Q

Are I bands actin or myosin

A

Thin actin filaments

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114
Q

What are troponin and tropomyosin useful for

A

Important in regulation of muscle contraction

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115
Q

Define contraction

A

Activating of force generating sites within muscle fibres (cross bridges)

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116
Q

What is a motor unit

A

Group of muscle fibres that is innervated by a single motor neurone

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117
Q

Describe what happens to the action potential at a neuromuscular junction

A

Motor neurons action potential arrives at axon terminal

Depolarises plasma membrane

Ca2+ channels open

Ca2+ ions diffuse into axon terminal

Ca2+ binds to proteins

Synaptic vesicles release acetylcholine (Ach)

Ach diffuses from axon terminal to motor end plate, binding to nicotinic receptors

Binding of Ach opens ion channel

Na and K can pass through these channels (electrochemical gradient – Na moves in K moves out)

Local depolarisation of motor end plate

Muscle fibre action potential initiated

Propagation

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118
Q

What happens with cross bridges in a relaxed muscle

A

Low Ca2+
Cross bridge cannot bind with actin because tropomyosin is covering the binding site (troponin holds tropomyosin over binding site)

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119
Q

What happens with cross bridges in an active muscle

A

High Ca2+
Ca2+ binds to troponin
Tropomyosin moves away from cross-bridge binding site
Actin binds to cross bridge

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120
Q

What are the 2 proteins responsible for linking membrane action potential with calcium release in the cell

A

Dihydropyridine (DHP) receptor - found on membrane

Ryanodine receptor - found in sarcoplasmic reticulum

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121
Q

When the muscle shortens what happens to actin

A

Actin slides over myosin

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122
Q

What are the 4 stages of a cross bridge cycle

A
  1. Energised myosin cross bridges on thick filaments bind to actin
  2. Cross bridge binding triggers release of ATP hydrolysis products from myosin, producing angular movement
  3. ATP bound to myosin, breaking link between actin and myosin causing cross bridge to dissociate
  4. ATP bound to myosin, is split energising myosin cross bridge
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123
Q

What are the 2 factors affecting muscle force

A

Tension

Load

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124
Q

Define tension

A

The force that muscle exerts on object when it is contracting is called the tension of the muscle

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125
Q

Define load

A

The force that is exerted on a muscle by an object

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126
Q

In regards to tension and load what must happen for a muscle to shorten

A

Tension must EXCEED load

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127
Q

In regards to tension and load what must happen for a muscle to lengthen

A

Load must EXCEED tension

remember - Lengthen Load

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128
Q

Define summation

A

The increase of muscle tension from successive action potenials

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129
Q

Define tetanus

A

When successive stimulations result in a sustained contraction

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130
Q

What are the 2 types of tetanus

A

Fused

Unfused

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131
Q

What is unfused tetanus

A

muscle fibre has time to PARTIALLY relax before next stimulation. The development of tension oscilliates

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132
Q

What is fused tetanus

A

muscle fibre has NO TIME to relax between stimulations

The development of tension is continuous and smooth

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133
Q

What does CP stand for

A

Creatine phosphate

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134
Q

What does CP do

A

Provides energy very fast
Forms ATP from ADP
Only lasts 1-2s

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135
Q

Define glycolysis

A

Energy from glucose in absence of oxygen (anaerobic metabolism)
10 step process

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136
Q

Describe oxidative phosphorylation

A

 Energy from glucose or fat in presence of oxygen (aerobic metabolism)

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137
Q

What is oxygen debt

A

To replenish glucose and creatine stores and remove lactic acid we require energy. To do this we use more oxygen to produce the energy needed after exercise has finished

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138
Q

What are the 5 mechanisms involved in muscle fatigue

A 
Conduction failure
Lactic acid build up
Inhibition of cross bridge cycling
Fuel substrates
Central command fatigue
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139
Q

What is conduction failure

A

caused by potassium accumulation in the T tubules Fast recovery

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140
Q

What is lactic acid build up

A

acidic environment in muscle effects physiological functioning of proteins and the mechanisms involved in calcium release and re-uptake

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141
Q

What is inhibition of cross bridge cycling

A

accumulation of ADP and Pi in muscle fibres slows down in the cross-bridge cycling by preventing the release of cross bridges from actin molecules.

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142
Q

What are fuel substrates

A

muscle glycogen, blood glucose, dehydration

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143
Q

What is central command fatigue

A

failure to propagate signals from the brain to the motor neurons

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144
Q

what are the 3 types of muscle fibres

A

Type 1 slow oxidative
Type 2a fast oxidative
Type 2x fast glycolytic

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145
Q

Describe type 1 muscle fibres

A 
SMALLEST 
Slow contractile speed
High resistance to fatigue
Small diameter
low ATPase activity
Highly oxidative
Dark in colour due to lots of myoglobin & oxygen
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146
Q

Describe type 2a muscle fibres

A 
small diameter
high ATPase activity
highly oxidative 
moderately glycolic 
white in colour
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147
Q

describe type 2x muscle fibres

A 
BIGGEST
Fast contractile speed
Little resistance to fatigue  
large diameter
high ATPase activity
Highly glycolic 
White in colour
Most fibres in motor unit
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148
Q

define autocrine

A

can be signalled by the same cell

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149
Q

define paracrine

A

signalled by nearby cells

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150
Q

what does paracrine signalling use

A

cytokines

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151
Q

define endocrine

A

signal via distant multi cellular

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152
Q

what does endocrine signalling use

A

hormones

secreted into blood from endocrine gland

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153
Q

What is the difference between endocrine and exocrine glands

A

EXOcrine secrete their products INTO DUCT

ENDOcrine are DUCTLESS and release HORMONES into blood

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154
Q

Define a hormone

A

chemical messengers carried by the blood to target cells

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155
Q

what are the 4 functions of hormones

A 
1. help regulate...
metabolism
contraction of smooth & cardiac muscle
some immune system activities
glandular secretions
2. control growth and development 
3. regulate operation of reproductive system
3. help establish circadian rhythm
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156
Q

how fast does the endocrine system work

A

relatively slowly but has long lasting effects

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157
Q

Give an example of some amines

A

thyroid hormones
dopamine
catecholamines

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158
Q

Give an example of peptides and proteins

A

insulin

any hormone

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159
Q

Give an example of steroids

A

alderosterone
cortisol
androgens (testosterone)

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160
Q

Can steroids dissolve in plasma

A

often lipid based so can’t dissolve

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161
Q

What does the responsiveness of a target cell to a hormone depend on…

A
  1. the hormones conc in blood
  2. abundance of target cells hormone receptor
  3. influences exerted by other hormones
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162
Q

What are the 3 types of effects hormonal interactions can have

A

permissive
synergistic
antagonistic

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163
Q

Name some things the anterior pituitary gland secretes

A 
Growth hormone (GH)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Prolactin
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH)
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
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164
Q

What 2 hormones does the thyroid gland secrete

A

T3 (thyroxine)

T4 (triiodothyronine)

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165
Q

what is T3 hormone required for

A

production of growth hormone from anterior pituitary gland

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166
Q

Physiological functions of cortisol during NON stressful situations

A

Affects responsiveness of smooth muscle cells to epinephrine & norepinephrine helping maintain normal blood pressure

required to maintain certain enzyme concs involved in metabolic homeostasis preventing blood glucose dropping too low

has anti-inflammatory and anti immune functions

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167
Q

Physiological functions of cortisol during STRESSFUL situations

A

Maintenance of plasma glucose conc

Enhanced vascular reactivity improving CV performance

Inhibition of inflammation and specific immune responses

Inhibition of nonessential functions - reproduction

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168
Q

What happens when the stress response is triggered

A

sympathetic nervous system is activated triggering release of epinephrine
At same time endocrine system releases cortisol from adrenal glands

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169
Q

What is growth hormone (GH) stimulated by

A

Growth hormone releasing hormone (GHRH)

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170
Q

What is growth hormone (GH) inhibited by

A

Somatostatin (SST)

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171
Q

What are the 3 sex hormones

A

Oestrogen
Progestogen
Testosterone

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172
Q

What is the function of the cardiovascular system

A

Transport oxygen, nutrients, metabolites to tissues
Removal of waste products
involved in body temp regulation
distribution and secretion of hormones

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173
Q

What is systemic circulation

A

Connected to heart in parallel
Choice of which part of body receives more or less of available blood

BOTTOM HALF OF DIAGRAM

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174
Q

What is pulmonary circulation

A

Connected to heart in series
Entire blood volume has to pass through it every time it circulates the body

TOP HALF OF DIAGRAM

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175
Q

What is the total blood volume roughly

A

approx 5 litres

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176
Q

What is driving pressure

A

Flow is created by the pressure difference between 2 points

FLOW REQUIRES A PRESSURE DIFFERENCE

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177
Q

what is darcys law equation

A

flow = pressure difference / resistance

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178
Q

What is poiseuilles law and equation

A

determines resistance to flow

flow = pressure difference x r to power of 4

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179
Q

What happens to resistance to flow if you double vessel radius

A

Resistance reduces by a lot

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180
Q

What happens to resistance to flow if you halve vessel radius

A

Increases resistance by a lot

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181
Q

To get fastest flow do u want a wide vessel or a narrow vessel

A

narrower the vessel = faster the flow

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182
Q

what is the equation linking velocity, flow rate & cross sectional area

A

velocity = flow rate/ cross sectional area

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183
Q

What is the pericardium

A

protects the heart by providing lubrication during its constant movement
Also anchors heart against diaphragm & spine

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184
Q

Describe flow of blood

A 
Arrives from superior & inferior vena cava
Right atrium
Tricuspid valve
Right ventricle
Pulmonary valve 
Pulmonary arteries
To lungs to be oxygenated
Back through pulmonary veins 
Left atrium
Mitral/ bicuspid valve
Left ventricle
Aortic valve
Aorta to body
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185
Q

What do pulmonary arteries do

A

take blood AWAY from heart to lungs to be oxygenated

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186
Q

What do pulmonary veins do

A

Bring oxygenated blood BACK TO heart

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187
Q

Can tetanic contractions occur in skeletal muscles

A

YES

188
Q

Can tetanic contractions occur in cardiac muscles

A

NO

If heart was always contracting there would be no relaxation period and the heart could not fill

189
Q

Rate of firing in the SA node depends on…

A

Initial value of membrane potential

The slope of the drift towards threshold

190
Q

Explain cardiac conduction

A

SA node fires action potentials
Stimulus spreads through muscle fibres & stimulates both atria simultaneously
Stimulation in atria spreads from fibre to fibre through gap junctions
Reaches AV node, signal delayed to enable atria to empty before ventricular contraction begins
Bundle of HiS
Signal travels down the interventricular septum via 2 bundle branches
Ventricles begin to contract as stimulus spreads upwards depolarising muscle fibres via purkinje fibres

191
Q

What does a P wave on an ECG represent

A

atrial contraction

192
Q

What does a Q wave on an ECG represent

A

ventricular contraction

193
Q

What does a R wave on an ECG represent

A

Ventricular contraction

194
Q

What does a S wave on an ECG represent

A

Ventricular contraction

195
Q

What does QRS on ECG form

A

QRS complex

Ventricular contraction

196
Q

What does a T wave on an ECG represent

A

relaxation of ventricles

197
Q

When does the tricuspid valve open

A

when right atrial pressure BIGGER than right ventricle pressure

198
Q

When does the tricuspid valve close

A

when right atrial pressure LOWER than right ventricular pressure

199
Q

When does the bicuspid valve open

A

when left atrial pressure BIGGER than left ventricle pressure

200
Q

when does the bicuspid valve close

A

when left atrial pressure LOWER than left ventricular pressure

201
Q

When does the pulmonary valve open

A

when right ventricular pressure BIGGER than pulmonary artery pressure

202
Q

When does the pulmonary valve close

A

when right ventricular pressure LOWER than pulmonary artery pressure

203
Q

When does the aortic valve open

A

when left ventricular pressure BIGGER than aortic pressure

204
Q

When does the aortic valve close

A

when left ventricular pressure LOWER than aortic pressure

205
Q

what is systole

A

ventricular contraction

206
Q

what is diastole

A

ventricular relaxation

207
Q

Whta is cardiac output

A

Volume of blood pumped out by heart EVERY MIN

208
Q

what are units for CO

A

ml per min

209
Q

What is the equation for CO

A

CO = HR x SV

210
Q

What symbol is CO sometimes given

A

Q

211
Q

Describe parasympatehtic nerve activity

A

Takes place via vagus nerve

Releases the neurotransmitter acetylcholine which slows HR

212
Q

Describe sympathetic nerve activity

A

sympathetic fibres (cardiac nerves) increase HR by releasing norepinephrine

213
Q

What is stroke volume regulated by

A
  1. The force by which the muscle cells contract

2. The arterial pressure against which they have to eject the blood

214
Q

define blood pressure

A

the driving force for flow in the cardiovascular system (pressure gradient between arteries and veins) and it must be maintained at all times

215
Q

Where is blood pressure highest and lowest

A

Blood pressure highest close to heart and it declines as blood moves further away from it

216
Q

What is mean arterial pressure (MAP)

A

is calculated from the values of systolic and diastolic blood pressure, NOT AN AVERAGE OF THE 2

217
Q

What is the equation for MAP

A

diastolic + ((systolic - diastolic) / 3)

218
Q

What is normal blood pressure

A

120/80

219
Q

what factors effect blood pressure

A

Age - arteries become stiffer with age
Gender - women have lower blood pressure than men
Pressure higher in foot and lower in head due to hydrostatic pressure

220
Q

What happens to BP in dynamic exercise (walking running etc)

A

remains relatively stable

221
Q

What happens to BP in static exercise (lifting weights)

A

rises dramatically

222
Q

What is the MAP blood pressure equation

A

MAP = CO x TPR (total peripheral resistance)

223
Q

If TPR decreases what happens to MAP

A

Map decreases too

224
Q

What is the sequence of events initating a muscle contraction

A

An action potential propagates along the length of the fibre depolarizing the t-tubule membrane, causing a release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This binds to troponin making the actin binding sites available for the attachment of an energised myosin head to form a cross bridge and subsequently generate tension in the muscle.

225
Q

Damage to the basal ganglia can lead to what

A

unwanted spontaneous movements

226
Q

All the motor neurones that innervate a single muscle are called a?

A

motor pool

227
Q

A normal range for blood glucose concentration is?

A

70-110 mg/Dl

228
Q

Motor neurones that control the lower limbs are found in which part of the spinal cord?

A

lumbar englargement

229
Q

Length wise what is the difference between diastole and systole

A

diastole lasts twice as long as systole

230
Q

In arteries what are adventitia

A

Provides structural strength and tethers the vessels in place
In large vessels the adventitia contains small blood vessels - the vasa vasorum (the vessels of the vessels)

231
Q

In arteries what is elastin for

A

Gives vessels mechanical strength and their elastic properties (expend and recoil)

232
Q

In arteries what does the endothelium do

A

filtering interface between blood and body

Secretes various vasoactive products

233
Q

In arteries what does smooth muscle do

A

supplies vessels with contractile power and regulates the diameter of the lumen

234
Q

In arteries what are the pre capillary sphincters

A

controls blood flow to specific capillary beds selectively

235
Q

What do arterioles do

A

responsible with altering levels of resistance to blood flow in order to distribute the valuable amount of blood to where it is needed without disturbing the control of mean arterial pressure

236
Q

What is active hyperaemia

A

the increase in blood flow via local vessels dilating to increase blood flow to the tissue working hard according to the metabolic needs

237
Q

What is flow autoregulation

A

concerned with the maintenance of blood flow rather than changing it. When the driving pressure drops the vessels dilate, and when it increases the vessels constrict

238
Q

What does a tonic state mean when referring to muscles

A

partially contracted

239
Q

what state is arterial smooth muscle constantly in

A

tonic state

240
Q

what controls contraction of smooth muscles

A

autonomic nervous system

241
Q

where is smooth muscle found

A

in organs

242
Q

contraction time of smooth muscle

A

contract slowly but can sustain contractions for long periods of time without fatigue

243
Q

do smooth muscles have striations

A

no

244
Q

do smooth muscle have sarcomere

A

no

245
Q

does smooth muscle have a neuromuscular junction

A

no

246
Q

is there troponin in smooth muscle

A

no

therefore actin binding sites always available

247
Q

which filaments does calcium act on

thick or thin

A

thick

248
Q

What is moved in vesicle transport

A

larger molecules like proteins

249
Q

what is moved in bulk flow

A

water and solutes

250
Q

define filtration

A

fluid movement from the capillaries to the interstitial fluid
takes place when hydrostatic pressure exceeds colloid osmotic pressure

251
Q

define absorption

A

fluid movement from the interstitial fluid to the capillaries
takes place when colloid osmotic pressure exceeds hydrostatic pressure

252
Q

does hydrostatic pressure favour filtration or absorption

A

favours filtration

253
Q

does osmotic pressure favour filtration or absorption

A

favours absorption

254
Q

what happens when filtration exceeds absorption

A

the net accumulation of fluid in tissues is

dealt with by the lymphatic system.

255
Q

what are the 3 ways to change compliance of a vein

A

neural - Sympathetic stimulation releases norepinephrine to the smooth muscle of veins in the gastrointestinal (stomach & intestines), renal (kidneys), hepatic (liver), and cutaneous (skin) circulations causing vasoconstriction.
This reduces their capacitance and displaces blood towards the heart.

hormonal - The diameter of veins is affected by the presence of blood circulating epinephrine

endothelial - Paracrine vasoconstrictors and vasodilators (nitric oxide, endothelin -1) also operate in veins

256
Q

during inspiration what happens to flow to the heart

A

flow to heart increases

257
Q

during expiration what happens to flow to the heart

A

flow to heart impeded

258
Q

what do lymph vessels do

A

collect filtered fluid from the interstitial space and return it to the circulating blood volume

259
Q

what is ODEMA

A

Failure of lymphatic system leads to Oedema
Accumulation of excess fluid in the interstitial spaces (subcutaneous, abdomen, lungs)
Filtration exceeds lymphatic drainage

260
Q

what is an endotherm

A

they generate their own internal body heat and do not rely on the energy of sunlight to warm the body

261
Q

what is a homeotherm

A

Maintain their body temperature within very narrow limits despite wide fluctuations in ambient temperature

262
Q

when is body temp highest

DAY OR NIGHT

A

during day

263
Q

when is body temp lowest

DAY OR NIGHT

A

during night

264
Q

what causes body temp to fluctuate

A

eating
exercise
circadian rhythm

265
Q

give some examples of heat conservation/ production

A

Shivering thermogenesis
Voluntary muscular activity
Non shivering thermogenesis

266
Q

Give some examples of heat loss

A

Sweating

Blood reaching the skin

267
Q

what is shivering thermogenesis

A

creating heat

268
Q

what is non shivering thermogenesis

A

from tissue called brown adipose tissue

269
Q

what is the therm-neutral zone

A

not having to activate heat loss NOR heat conservation/ production mechanisms

270
Q

describe the physiological control of heat loss

A
  1. Body temp increases
  2. Thermosensors (in skin & brain and hypothalamus) detect change
  3. Sends signal to brain then to hypothalamus
  4. Send efferent signal to adrenal medulla which activates release of epinephrine/ adrenaline
  5. Help blood vessels dilate
  6. Sweat glands secrete fluid and heat is lost
271
Q

why does vasodilation happen

A

Vasodilation happens due to a reduction of sympathetic stimulation
It also happens due to the release of acetylcholine from specialised sympathetic neurons

272
Q

what are the 2 types of sweat gland

A

eccrine (all over body)

Apocrine (head or hair)

273
Q

why does vasoconstriction happen

A

happens as a result of norepinephrine acting on adrenergic receptors

274
Q

how does shivering work/ what’s so special

A

Shivering is a specialised form of muscular contraction in which muscles perform no external work and virtually all energy of contraction is converted into heat

Shivering is a result of stimulation by somatic motor neurons

275
Q

what is cardiac arrhythmias

A

rhythm of heart becomes out of sync

276
Q

define heatstroke

A

failure of thermoregulation with a body temp of >40.6

277
Q

what are the signs of heatstroke

A
  1. Dizziness
  2. Disorientation
  3. Dry skin
  4. Increased HR
  5. Collapsing
278
Q

what is hyPOthermia

A

too cold

279
Q

What is hyPERthermia

A

too hot

280
Q

what happens to body temp at exercise

A

it is maintained but higher than at rest

281
Q

what is acclimatisation

A

Acclimating to heat means that an individual can regulate body temperature more efficiently
Crucial for exercise in hot places

282
Q

how does acclimatisation work

A

Involves the repeated exposure to heat either by habitation in a hot climate or use of environmental chambers
Acclimatisation begins after 5-10 days of prolonged exercise in heat, happens via adjustments in blood flow and sweating

283
Q

what effects does an acclimatised individual have

A 
Sweat more and sooner
Increased blood flow to skin
More dilute sweat
Increased blood volume and SV
Lower core body temp 
Lower HR
Less fatigue
284
Q

define basal metabolic rate

A

the amount of energy expended while at complete rest

285
Q

what is the thermic effect of food

A

the energy required to digest and absorb food

286
Q

define oxygen consumption/ VO2

A

the volume of oxygen used by your body to convert energy from the food into work

287
Q

what is VO2 measured in

A

L/min

288
Q

what is the most dense nutrient

A

fat

289
Q

what is the least dense nutrient

A

carbs

290
Q

what is the energy expenditure equation

A

energy expenditure = base metabolic rate (BMR) + physical activity level

291
Q

define base metabolic rate (BMR)

A

rate at which person uses energy to maintain the basic functions at rest; breathing, keeping warm, keep heart beating

292
Q

what are the factors that decrease metabolism

A
  1. Sleep (decreased during sleep)
  2. Age (decreased with increasing age)
  3. Gender (women typically lower rate than men at any given size)
  4. Fasting (BMR decreases, which conserves energy stores)
293
Q

what are the factors that increase metabolism

A
  1. Growth
  2. Pregnancy
  3. Infection
  4. Body temp
  5. Recent ingestion of food
  6. Muscular activity
  7. Emotional stress
  8. Environmental temperature
294
Q

how many kcal do men need to maintain weight

A

2500

295
Q

how many kcal do women need to maintain weight

A

2000

296
Q

what do baroreceptors detect

A

detect blood pressure

297
Q

what happens to action potentials as MAP increases

A

firing rate of action potentials increase

298
Q

what happens to action potentials as MAP decreases

A

firing rate of action potentials decrease

299
Q

where is the medullary cardiovascular centre located

A

in the medulla oblongata

300
Q

how does blood pressure increase through baroreceptors

A

A fall in BP causes carotid and aortic baroreceptors to detect a hypotensive stimulus
Leading to decreases in afferent baroreceptor nerve firing
This reduction in neural input to the brainstem causes a decrease in parasympathetic nerve activity to heart
Increases in sympathetic outflow to heart and vasculature

301
Q

how quick are cardiovascular responses

A

within seconds

302
Q

how quick are kidney responses

A

within hours

303
Q

describe redistribution of CO during exercise

A

Blood flow decreases in kidneys, digestive tract & all other parts of body not directly involved in exercise
Blood flow through the brain remains fairly constant due to autoregulation
The fixed volume of the cranial cavity cannot accommodate large increases in blood flow

304
Q

does vasoDILATION increase/ decrease peripheral resistance

A

Dilation Decrease peripheral resistance

305
Q

does vasoCONSTRICTION increase/ decrease peripheral resistance

A

Constriction increases peripheral resistance

306
Q

the net effect of vasoconstriction and vasodilation does what to peripheral resistance

A

reduction in TOTAL peripheral resistance

307
Q

what happens to CO in trained/ untrained performers

A

CO is larger in trained performers

308
Q

what happens to max HR in trained/ untrained performers

A

Max HR can not be increased by training therefore same

309
Q

what happens to general HR in trained/ untrained performers

A

Trained have a lower HR for a given workload

310
Q

what happens to SV in trained/ untrained performers

A

Higher in trained people

311
Q

what does VO2 max test show

A

assessment of aerobic endurance or power

312
Q

what do sub maximal exercise test show

A

used to asses physiological responses to a standardised workload

313
Q

what is steady state exercise

A

the level of exercise at which the physiological responses remain relatively stable for an extended period of time

314
Q

factors affecting steady state exercise

A
  1. Delivery of adequate oxygen to exercising muscles
  2. Ability of cells to utilise oxygen in the aerobic process of energy metabolism
  3. The ability to eliminate heat
315
Q

how long does it take to reach steady state exercise

A

3-5 mins

316
Q

what are the 4 states to steady state exercise

A
  1. Initial rapid rise occurs within 1st min
  2. A more gradual rise occurs between 1-3mins
  3. A plateau is reached between 3-5mins and maintained
  4. Finally, extended exercise (1-4 hours) there may be a small continuous increase due to factors such as increase in core body temp
    This is called drift
317
Q

what are the mechanisms for the control of ventilation

A
  1. The initial rapid rise in ventilation is explained by central command (that is, the motor cortex signals the respiratory control centre to increase ventilation). Mechanoreceptors in the muscles and limbs detect limb movement and physical deformation, and further supplement central command.
  2. The subsequent gradual rise in ventilation may be explained by a fine-tuning of respiratory neurons in response to central command and feedback control from arterial chemoreceptors positioned in the carotid and aortic bodies.
318
Q

mechanisms of control for CO

A

Initial rapid rise explained by central command & starlings law

Input from mechanoreceptors in muscles contribute to central command by feedback control
Chemoreceptors in muscle responsible for gradual rise to steady state exercise

319
Q

what is the starling effect

A

when venous return of blood to heart increases, the my-filaments (actin & myosin) in cardiac muscle are stretched to a more optimal overlap
As a result the strength of contraction = greater & increased

320
Q

what relationship do HR and vO2 have

A

a strong linear relationship

321
Q

functions of respiratory system

A
  1. Gas exchange between environment and blood
  2. Control of acidity of body
  3. Filtering of inhaled air
  4. Vocalisation
322
Q

how many lobes in right lung

A

3 lobes

323
Q

how many lobes in left lung

A

2 lobes

324
Q

what is the pleural sac

A

 Double walled enclosure of lungs filled with pleural fluid
 Reduces friction from movement on surface of lungs
 Fixes lungs firmly on thoracic wall without any physical attachments

325
Q

what is the function of rib cage and spine when talking about lungs

A

offer rigid protection to sensitive organs - heart and lungs

326
Q

what are the functions of the airways

A
  1. Warming up inspired air
  2. Humidification of dry inspired air
  3. Filtrated of inhaled foreign materials
327
Q

what are the 2 types of airways

A

conducting zone

exchange zone

328
Q

what is the conducting zone in the airways

A

no gas exchange takes place

329
Q

what is the exchange zone in the airways

A

where diffusion/ gas exchange takes place

330
Q

what are the turbinates (conchae) in the nasal cavity

A

bony dividers that increase surface area of nasal cavity

331
Q

what is airflow directly proportional to

A

 Airflow is directly proportional to pressure difference between 2 points

332
Q

what is airflow inversely proportional to

A

 Airflow is inversely proportional to the resistance created by the airways

333
Q

what is the main factor affecting resistance in the respiratory system

A

airway radius

334
Q

what things affect viscosity

A

humidity

concentration of air (high altitude)

335
Q

What is boils law

A

P1 x V1 = P2 x V2

P is presure
V is volume

336
Q

what type of process is normal expiration

A

passive process

no muscle contaction required

337
Q

how could you describe intrapleural pressure

A

negative and subatmospheric

338
Q

what type of process is forced expiration/ heavy breathing

A

active

requires contraction of muscles

339
Q

what does surfactant do

A

Surfactant; promotes diffusion, increase lung compliance & prevents the collapse of smaller alveoli.

340
Q

what does reduced surface tension of lungs mean

A

Alveolar spaces are less prone to collapsing

The lung is more compliant and is inflated easier

341
Q

can residual volume be measured with a spirometer trace?

A

no

342
Q

can functional residual capacity be measured with a spirometer trace?

A

no

343
Q

define tidal volume

A

The amount of air that is moved in and out of the lungs with EVERY BREATH during normal breathing

344
Q

define reserve volume

A

The amount of ADDITIONAL air that can be moved in and out of the lungs during heavier breathing

345
Q

define vital capacity

A

The TOTAL amount of air that can be moved in and out of the lungs during MAXIMAL respiratory effort

346
Q

define functional residual capacity

A

The amount of air that is LEFT in the LUNGS at the END of a normal EXPIRATION

347
Q

define residual volume

A

The amount of air that is LEFT in the LUNGS at the end of MAXIMAL EXPIRATION

348
Q

what is anatomical dead space

A

refers to the part of the airways where gas exchange does not take place and is a fixed volume

349
Q

what is alveolar dead space

A

refers to areas of lungs where gas exchange can take place but that are not properly perfused with blood

350
Q

define minute ventilation

A

is the amount of air that is moved by the lungs in ONE MINUTE

351
Q

What is the minute ventilation equation

A

minute ventilation = tidal volume x breathing frequency

352
Q

what does hyperpnoea do to minute ventilation

A

minute ventilation increases in proportion to metabolic rate

353
Q

what does hyperventilation do to minute ventilation

A

minute ventilation increases more than metabolic rate does

354
Q

what is daltons law

A

= the pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the pressures of the individual gases

355
Q

how much % of nitrogen is in the air

A

78.1%

356
Q

how much % of oxygen is in the air

A

20.9%

357
Q

how much % of carbon dioxide is in the air

A

0.033%

358
Q

how to find the partial pressure of a gas

A

times the air% of the gas (eg 20.9% for oxygen) by atmospheric pressure (760mmHg)

760mmHg x 20.9% = 159 mmHg

359
Q

what is atmospheric pressure

A

760 mmHg

360
Q

what does ficks law mean

A

From Ficks law it is obvious that greater solubility for a particular gas means a greater rate of diffusion for that gas.
(CO2 is a lot more soluble than O2, and it diffuses across the membrane easier)

361
Q

What is more soluble CO2 or O2

A

CO2 is more soluble than O2

362
Q

what does movement if molecules depend on

A

temperature
pressure difference
solubility

363
Q

what is how many polypeptide chains in Hb

A

4 polypeptide chains

364
Q

how many haem groups in Hb

A

4 haem groups

365
Q

what is in the middle of each haem group

A

an Iron molecule that binds to oxygen

366
Q

does oxygen that is bound to Hb contribute to partial pressure

A

no does not contribute

367
Q

What is the shape of the dissociation curve

A

sigmoidal shape

368
Q

what does a shift to the left mean for the oxygen dissociation curve

A

increased affinity for oxygen

369
Q

what does a shift to the right mean for the oxygen dissociation curve

A

decreased affinity for oxygen (BOHR SHIFT)

370
Q

what affects oxygens binding to haemoglobin

A

acidity
DPG concentration
CO2
Temperature

371
Q

how much co2 is carried as bicarbonate ions (HCO3-)

A

70%

372
Q

what is it called when carbon dioxide is bound to haemoglobin

A

carbaminohaemoglobin

373
Q

how much of co2 is carried bound to haemoglobin

A

23%

374
Q

when does haemoglobin carry co2

A

when the binding sites aren’t occupied with oxygen they occupy them with co2

375
Q

what is the role of H+ ions in the blood

A

act as a buffer by binding to empty binding sites

376
Q

can ventilation be voluntary

A

yes

377
Q

how can ventilation be made voluntary

A

hyperventilation
holding your breath
speaking
swallowing

378
Q

what does the Hiring-Breuer reflex do

A

protects the lungs by initiating a signal that inhibits inspiration (the switch-off point).

379
Q

describe slowly adapting pulmonary stretch receptors

A

These receptors are located within airway smooth muscle
and they are active only when tidal volume approaches
the physical limitations of the lung tissue for expansion.

380
Q

describe rapidly adapting pulmonary stretch receptors

A

These receptors are dense in the trachea and large airways.
They respond to stimuli such as cigarette smoke, inhaled
particles and cold air, by initiating reflexes such as coughing and sneezing and by causing bronchoconstriction.

381
Q

what creates the ventilatory drive

A 
carotid chemoreceptors (carotid bodies)
aortic chemoreceptors (aortic arch)
382
Q

control of ventilation in steady state exercise

phase 1

A

Ventilation increases abruptly and as early as in the first breath after exercise has commenced. It is thought to be controlled by neural mechanisms.

383
Q

control of ventilation in steady state exercise

phase 2&3

A

Ventilation increases gradually until steady state exercise is achieved. Chemical stimuli are more likely to contribute to this part of the response

384
Q

what drives phase 1 of control of ventilation

A

neural mechanisms

Muscle afferents
Central command
Learnt response

385
Q

what drives phase 2 of control of ventilation

A

chemical mechanisms

Temperature
PCO2 and pH oscillations
Plamsa K+, catecholamines
Hypoglycaemia, metabolic rate

386
Q

what is the Haldane transformation correction factor

A

1.5

387
Q

how to calculate volume of inspired oxygen

A

volume of inspired air x percentage of inspired O2

388
Q

how to calculate volume of expired oxygen

A

volume of expired air x percentage of expired O2

389
Q

how to calculate oxygen consumption

A

volume of inspired oxygen - volume of expired oxygen

390
Q

what does RQ stand for

A

respiratory quotient

391
Q

define RQ

A

The ratio between the rate by which O2 is consumed and CO2 is produced depends on the fuel that is used to provide the energy needed for metabolic functions

392
Q

with RQ when does the rate of CO2 production vary

A

it is different when carbs, fats & proteins are used as fuels

393
Q

what is the RQ equation

A

CO2 production/ O2 consumption

394
Q

what are the functions of the renal system

A
  1. Regulation of water, ions balance
  2. Removal of metabolic waste products from blood and excretion
  3. Removal of foreign chemicals from blood
  4. Gluconeogenesis
  5. Production of hormones/ enzymes (EPO, Renin)
395
Q

what generates the high pressure in the glomerulus

A

afferent and efferent arterial blood flow causes high pressure

396
Q

what’s the benefit of glomerulus having lots of pores

A

lots of pores so you can squeeze fluid & other small molecules out of blood

397
Q

what cells allow filtration

A

podocytes

which are found on capillary wall

398
Q

where is the bowmans space

A

between glomerulus and bowmans capsules

399
Q

what stays in glomerulus and what gets filtered

A

Amino acids, RBC and large proteins stay as they’re too large

Na+ & glucose get filtered

400
Q

describe the route through kidneys

A 
glomerulus
bowmans capsule
PCT (proximal convoluted tubule)
Loop of henle
DCT (distal convoluted tubule)
Collecting duct
401
Q

what happens in PCT

A

selective reabsorption

402
Q

Is selective reabsorption active or passive

A

active process (uses ATP)

403
Q

what happens during selective reabsorption

A

Na+, glucose & H2O being reabsorbed back into body

404
Q

what are the 2 sides in the loop of henle

A

descending

ascending

405
Q

what happens in the descending loop of henle

A

water moves out nephron back into body

406
Q

what happens in the ascending loop of henle

A

Na+ & Cl- pumped out

407
Q

what happens to nephron in loop of henle

A

crosses from cortex to medulla

408
Q

is medulla hyPERtonic or hyPOtonic

A

hyPERtonic

409
Q

what happens in DCT

A

more reabsorption

410
Q

what hormone acts in collecting duct

A

ADH

411
Q

what does each nephron consist of

A

renal corpuscle which contains the glomerulus (tuft of capillaries) and a renal tubule (bowmans capsule)

412
Q

in the kidney what are juxtaglomerular cells

A

Mechanoreceptors

They sense blood pressure in the afferent arteriole

413
Q

in the kidney what are macula dense cells

A

chemoreceptors that respond to the changes in the NaCl (salt) content of the fitrate

414
Q

what makes up the juxtaglomerular apparatus

A

juxtaglomerular cells

macula dense cells

415
Q

define GFR

A

GFR is the amount of blood filtered by the glomeruli EACH MINUTE

416
Q

What affects GFR

A

Capillary permeability
Surface area of capillary bed
Hydrostatic pressure that drives fluid out of capillaries
Osmotic forces within capillaries which oppose the exit of fluid

417
Q

what happens if there are proteins in urine and what is it called

A

Proteinuria

indicates a problem with filtration membrane

418
Q

what are tubular secretion mechanisms important for

A
  1. Disposing of drugs and drug metabolites
  2. Eliminating undesired substances or end products that have reabsorbed by passive processes (urea & uric acid)
  3. Removing excess K+
  4. Controlling blood pH
419
Q

in the kidneys what is RC

A

Renal clearance

420
Q

Define renal clearance (RC)

A

the amount of a substance filtered per minute, divided by its plasma concentration

measured in mL/min

421
Q

what is inulin

A

Neither reabsorbed nor secreted, not harmful to body, small enough to get filtered out by glomerulus

422
Q

what is a healthy GFR

A

approx 120ml/min

423
Q

Define the filtration fraction

A

the proportion of plasma that enters the kidneys that is subsequently filtered at the glomerulus and passes into the renal tubules

424
Q

what is the typical filtration fraction?/ % of blood filtered

A

filtration fraction 0.16-0.20

therefore 20% of blood entering kidney is filtered

425
Q

how much of our lean body weight is water in %

A

60%

426
Q

how many thirds of our total body water is located within cells (intracellular fluid)

A

2/3

427
Q

how many thirds of our total body water is located outside cells (extracellular fluid)

A

1/3

428
Q

KIDNEYS

where does sodium reabsorption happen

A

all tubular segments except descending limb of loop of henle & medullary collecting duct

429
Q

KIDNEYS

is sodium reabsorption an active or passive process

A

active process

430
Q

KIDNEYS

where are majority of aquaporins clustered

A

proximal nephron

431
Q

kidneys

What is water reabsorption dependant on

A

sodium reabsorption

432
Q

KIDNEY

active sodium reabsorption key points

A

-Active transport out of cells into interstitial fluid
-Transport achieved by Na+/K+/ ATPase pump
Keeps intracellular conc of Na + low to allow movement of Na+ from lumen
-PCT has co transport/ counter transport of organic molecules (glucose & amino acids)
-Cortical collecting ducts via Na+ channels

433
Q

what is the function of aquaporins

A

 Function of aquaporins in medullary collecting duct cells is to increase water reabsorption

434
Q

what is ADH also known as

A

vasopressin

435
Q

factors determining rate of tubular Na+ reabsorption

A
  1. Aldosterone (Most major)
  2. Atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP)
  3. Local effect of blood pressure on tubules
436
Q

what inhibits Na+ reabsorption

A

High pressure also inhibits Na+ reabsorption (as well as reducing renin release)

437
Q

How does renin increase Na+ reabsorption

A
  • Release of Renin converts the peptide angiotensinogen to angiotensin 1
  • Angiotensin 1 then converted to angiotensin 2 by ACE enzyme
  • Angiotension 2 acts on angiotensin receptors located around body
  • Activation of these receptors in adrenal gland stimulates aldosterone release, increasing Na+ reabsorption
438
Q

How does ANP increase Na+ reabsorption

A
  • ANP is synthesised and sorted in atrial myocytes
  • ANP is released in response to stretching of the atria
  • This occurs when circulating blood volume increases
  • An increase in circulating levels of ANP causes an increase of Na+ excretion
439
Q

what do diuretics do

A

promote the loss of Na+ and H2O

440
Q

How does alcohol act as a diuretic

A

inhibits the release of vasopressin/ adrenaline from pituitary gland

441
Q

What is the function of the glomerulus/ bowmans capsule

A

forms ultra filtrate of plasma

442
Q

what is function of PCT

A

bulk reabsorption of solutes and water

secretion of solutes and organic acids and bases (except K+)

443
Q

what is the overall function of loop of henle

A

establishes medullary osmotic gradient

secretion of urea

444
Q

what is the overall function of descending limb

A

bulk reabsorption of water

445
Q

what is the overall function of ascending limb

A

reabsorption of NaCl

446
Q

what is the function of DCT

A

Fine tuning of reabosprtion/ secretion of small quantity of solute remaining

447
Q

what is the function of cortical and medullary and collecting ducts

A

fine tuning of water reabsorption

Reabsorption of urea

448
Q

what is normal blood pH specifically

A

ranges from 7.35-7.45

449
Q

What range of pH is acidosis

A

7-7.35

450
Q

What range of pH is alkalosis

A

7.45-7.8

451
Q

What does excretion of HCO3- do to H+ ions

A

increases plasma H+ ion

452
Q

What does addition of HCO3- do to H+ ions

A

decreases plasma H+ ion

453
Q

describe metabolic acidosis

A

 Rate and depth of breathing are elevated
 As CO2 is eliminated by respiratory system, PCO2 falls below normal
 Kidneys secrete H+ and retain/ generate bicarbonate to offset the acidosis

454
Q

describe metabolic alkalosis

A

 Pulmonary ventilation is slow and shallow allowing carbon dioxide to accumulate in blood
 Kidneys generate H+ and eliminate bicarbonate from the body by secretion

455
Q

what do the kidneys do during exercise

A

1.Conserve body water

Excrete metabolites such as

  1. H+
  2. Creatine (excess created from muscle breakdown)
  3. Other proteins
456
Q

what is rhabdomyolis

A

condition where skeletal muscle cell damage can cause acute renal failure & sometimes death

457
Q

what sport is linked with rhabdomyolis

A

cross fit in unfit athletes

458
Q

what is autocrine signalling

A

signalled by the same cell

459
Q

what is paracrine signalling and what does it use

A

signalled by a nearby cell

Using cytokines

460
Q

what is endocrine signalling and what does it use

A

signalled by distant multicellular organisms

Uses hormones

461
Q

what does the parasympathetic nervous system release to slow HR

A

Acetlycholine

462
Q

what does the sympathetic nervous system release to increase HR

A

norepinephrine

463
Q

what is starlings law/ frank starling mechanisms

A

as SV increases so does venous return

464
Q

talk about the ability to sustain a contraction for smooth muscle, skeletal muscle & cardiac muscle

A 
skeletal = shortest duration
cardiac = middle duration
smooth = longest, can sustain contraction for long periods of time without fatigue
465
Q

does smooth muscle have troponin

A

no therefore actin binding sites always available

SPORT SCIENCE (9 decks)

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