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Finals > Year 1 > Flashcards

Year 1 Flashcards

1
Q

mild COPD

A

> 80 predicted

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2
Q

moderate COPD

A

30-49 predicted

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3
Q

severe COPD

A

<30 predicted

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4
Q

CURB65 criteria

A 
confusion 
urea >7 
RR >30 
BP 90/60 
65 yo
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5
Q

CAP: curb score 0-2

A

amoxicillin/doxycyclin

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6
Q

CAP: curb score 3-5

A

co-amox + clarithromycin/doxy, step down to doxy

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7
Q

HAP; non severe treatment

A

amoxicillin and metronidazole

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8
Q

HAP: serve

A

IV amox, met and gent, step down to coamoxiclav

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9
Q

tapping apex, mid diastolic rumble

A

mitral stenosis

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10
Q

describe aortic regurgitation

A

displaced apex, louder at LL edge on expiration and leaning forward

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11
Q

heaving apex, ejection systolic, radiates to axilla

A

mitral regurgitation

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12
Q

describe aortic stenosis

A

heavy apex, ejection systolic, radiates to carotids

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13
Q

pan systolic murmur, v waves

A

tricuspid regurgitation

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14
Q

inferior MI leads

A

2, 3, aVF

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15
Q

anteroseptal MI leads

A

V1-V4

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16
Q

anterolateral MI leads

A

1, aVL, V4-v6

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17
Q

lateral MI leads

A

1, aVL, V5-V6

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18
Q

heave, pulmonary mid-diastolic murmur

A

atrial septal defect

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19
Q

left to right shunt, loud pan systolic

A

ventricular septal defect

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20
Q

left to right shunt, machine like murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus

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21
Q

decreased LL pulses

A

coarction of aorta

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22
Q

right to left shunt, boot shaped heart

A

tetralogy of fallot

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23
Q

baby born cyanosed, egg shaped ventricles

A

transposition of great vessels

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24
Q

most common food poisoning

A

campylobacter

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25
Q

bugs that cause outbreaks

A

e.coli, salmonella

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26
Q

viral diarrhoea in children

A

rotavirus

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27
Q

short incubation period

A

s.aureus, b.cereus

28
Q

medium incubation period

A

salmonella, c.perfringerens

29
Q

long incubation period

A

campylobacter, e.coli

30
Q

bloody diarrhoea

A

shigella, campylobacter, e.coli

31
Q

treatment of IBD

A 
5-ASA
steroids 
immunocompression 
Anti-TNF 
surgery
32
Q

chrons disease

A

mouth to anus, skip lesions, fissures, TH1 mediated

33
Q

UC disease

A

no skip lesions, crypt accesses, TH1 and TH2 mediated

34
Q

albumin assesses what

A

synthetic function

35
Q

what LFT assesses liver damage directly

A

AST/ALT

36
Q

what hepatitis infection is DNA based

A

B

37
Q

STEMI criteria

A 
1mm elevation in 2 limb leads 
OR 
2mm in 2 continuous chest leads 
OR 
new onset LBBB
38
Q

treat an NSTEMI

A

aspirin 300
nitrates/morphine
clopidogrel 300 (continue for 12 months)
Fondaparinux

39
Q

treat a STEMI

A 
Fibrinolysis within 120 mins 
PCI within 12 hours of symptoms 
O2 if sats below 94 
GTN 
IV Morphine 
metoclopramide 
aspirin 300mg
40
Q

If patient receives fibrinolysis, do they need PCI?

A

if after 90 mins and ECG shows less than 50% ST resolution

41
Q

describe a patient who has pericarditis

A

pleuritic chest pain, relieved by sitting forward, non productive cough

42
Q

ECG changes in pericarditis

A

saddle shaped ST elevation

43
Q

Angina treatment ladder

A

aspirin, statin, GTN PRN
1. b blocker + Ca channel blocker
if b blocker is contraindicated use Ca blocker as mono therapy.
2. still symptomatic add verapamil or diltiazem
3. add long acting nitrate (Ivabradine or nicorandil)

44
Q

define recurrent AF

A

2 or more episodes
paroxysmal = self terminating, less than 7 days
persistent = more than 7 days

45
Q

describe rate control in AF, when is rate control 1st treatment option

A

b-blocker, diltiazem, combination therapy, digoxin

rate first if over 65 or IHD history

46
Q

drugs used for rhythm control in AF, when is rhythm control first line

A

amiodarone
flecanide (if no HD)
rhythm control first in under 65 years, 1st presentation of AF

47
Q

describe Heart block type 1

A

pr interval longer than 0.2secs

48
Q

describe Heart block type 2 (both types

A

Mobitz 1 - progressive elongation until a QRS drop

Mobitz 2 - PR interval unaffected, QRS does not always follow p wave

49
Q

describe 3rd degree heart block

A

no association between p waves + QRS complex

50
Q

define hypertension

A

140/90

51
Q

stage 1 HTN

A

140/90 or ABPM 135/85

52
Q

treatment of stage 1 HTN

A

advise lifestyle alteration

treat if end organ damage

53
Q

Stage 2 HTN

Stage 3 HTN

A

stage 2: 160/100 or ABPM 150/95

stage 3: systolic 180 or diastolic 110

54
Q

HTN treatment ladder

A
  1. under 55 = acei, over 55/black = C
  2. A+C
  3. A+C+D

resistant HTN: add alpha/b-blocker
if K<4.5 = spironolactone
K>4.5 = increase diuretic dose

55
Q

what is malignant HTN?

describe management

A

medical emergency BP >200/130

M: atenolol oral, labetalol/nitropruside IV

56
Q

most common cause of death post MI

A

ventricular fibrillation

57
Q

what complication of MI is indicated by persistent ST elevation and LVF

A

left ventricular aneurysm

58
Q

treatment of acute HF

A

Loop diuretic, morphine, nitrates, oxygen, posture

59
Q

investigation of chronic HF

A

BNP measurement
less than 100 = HF unlikely
more than 100 = ECHO

60
Q

Heart failure treatment

A
  1. ACEi + B-blocker
  2. spironolactone, ARB, OR hydralazine + nitrate
  3. digoxin or cardiac resynchronisation
61
Q

management of tachycardia and adverse features

A

DC cardio version

62
Q

management of broad complex tachycardia

A

regular - amiodarone

irregular - seek help

63
Q

management of narrow complex tachycardia

A

regular - 1. vagal manoeuvres, 2. adenosine; 6, 12,12

irregular - AF (B-blocker, diltiazem)

64
Q

management of bradycardia and adverse features

A

atropine 500mcg

65
Q

what is Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome?

A

congenital accessory pathway between atria and ventricles leading to AV reentry tachycardia

66
Q

what are the most common infective organisms in endocarditis

A

staph aureus is most common

s. epidermis in prosthetic valves

67
Q

treatment of endocarditis

A

subacute native valve: amox + gent IV
severe native valve: flucloxacillin
prosthetic valve: vancomycin IV, rifampicin PO, gentamicin IV

Finals (11 decks)

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