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Biology (NCERT) - Class XII > XII Chap 8 Health and Disease > Flashcards

XII Chap 8 Health and Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Health is affected by ______ (3 things)

A
  1. Genetic disorders
  2. Infections
  3. Lifestyle
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2
Q

What is the definition of disease?

A

functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body adversely affected, appearance of various signs and symptoms

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3
Q

Among non-infectious diseases _____ is the major cause of death

A

Cancer

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4
Q

Most parasites are pathogens. True or False?

A

True

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5
Q

Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the _____

A

host

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6
Q

Pathogen that enters the gut must be able to survive in what conditions?

A

low pH

digestive enzymes

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7
Q

What causes typhoid and how do they enter?

A 
Salmonella typhi (pathogenic bacterium); 
enter small intestine through food and water and migrate to other organs through the blood
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8
Q

What are the symptoms of typhoid fever?

A

high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite

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9
Q

In severe cases of typhoid we may see _________

A

intestinal perforation and death

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10
Q

What test can confirm typhoid?

A

Widal test

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11
Q

_______ nicknamed Typhoid Mary was an infamous typhoid carrier

A

Mary Mallon, a cook

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12
Q

What pathogen causes pneumonia?

A

Bacteria;
Streptococcus pneumoniae
OR
Haemophilus influenzae

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13
Q

What parts of the body does pathogen of pneumonia infect?

A

Alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs;

alveoli filled with fluid => respiration problems

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14
Q

Symptoms of pneumonia?

A

fever, chills, cough and headache

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15
Q

In severe cases of pneumonia, these symptoms may appear?

A

Lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish

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16
Q

How does a person get infected with pneumonia?

A

Inhaling droplets / aerosols released by an infected person OR sharing utensils with infected person

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17
Q

What are some of the known bacterial diseases in humans?

A 
Typhoid
Pneumonia
Dysentry
Plague
Diphtheria
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18
Q

_________ represents a group of viruses that cause the common cold

A

Rhino viruses

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19
Q

Rhino viruses infect _______ but not _________

A

nose and respiratory passage;

not lungs

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20
Q

Symptoms of common cold?

A

Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness

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21
Q

Common cold lasts ______ days

A

3-7 days

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22
Q

How does common cold spread?

A 
Droplets;
Contaminated objects (e.g. pens, doorknobs, etc)
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23
Q

What causes malaria?

A

Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan

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24
Q

What are the 3 different species of the pathogen that causes malaria?

A

Plasmodium vivax,
Plasmodium malaria,
Plasmodium falciparum

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25
Q

Which specific pathogen causes malignant (fatal) malaria?

A

Plasmodium falciparum

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26
Q

What does the malaria pathogen do once it enters the body?

A

Enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form)
=> multiplies asexually in liver cells => cell bursts => release in blood
=> then attack the red blood cells => cell bursts
=> release of toxic substance, haemozoin
=> chill and fever, every 3-4 days

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27
Q

Malaria is contracted through the bite of _________

A

infected female Anopheles mosquito

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28
Q

What happens when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person infected with malaria?

A

Gametocytes (sexual stages) develop in human RBCs,
=> gametocytes enter mosquito through bite
=> fertilization and development in mosquito’s gut
=> sporozoites (mature infective stages) escape from gut to salivary glands, waiting for next bite

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29
Q

Malarial parasite requires how many and which hosts to complete its life cycle?

A

2 hosts:
human
mosquitoes

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30
Q

The female Anopheles mosquito is the __________ for malaria

A

vector / transmitting agent

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31
Q

__________ pathogen causes amoebic dysentery

A

Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan parasite)

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32
Q

Another name for amoebic dysentry

A

Amoebiasis

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33
Q

Where does the parasite for amoebiasis attack?

A

Large intestine of the human

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34
Q

What are symptoms of amoebiasis?

A

Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots

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35
Q

Houseflies are _________ carriers of amoebiasis and transmit the parasite from _______ to _________

A

mechanical;

faeces of infected persons to food/food products/water

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36
Q

_________ and _______ are helminths known to be pathogenic to man

A

Ascaris (round worm)

Wuchereria (filarial worm)

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37
Q

Ascaris is an __________ parasite that causes ___________

A

intestinal parasite;

ascariasis

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38
Q

Symptoms of ascariasis?

A

Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the intestinal passage

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39
Q

________ of the ascaris parasite are excreted along with _____ of the infected person which contaminates soil, water, plants, etc.

A

Eggs; faeces

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40
Q

Ascariasis is acquired through ____________

A

contaminated water, fruits, vegetables, etc.

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41
Q

Species of Wuchereria that cause filariasis?

And the common names?

A

Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi;

filarial worms

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42
Q

What is filariasis and what is its other name?

A

Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which the filarial worms live for many years;
aka elephantiasis

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43
Q

Where do the filarial worms that cause filariasis usually live in the human host?

A

Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs

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44
Q

Genital organs are unaffected in elephantiasis. T or F?

A

False, also often affected

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45
Q

Gross deformities are a symptom of which common human disease?

A

Elephantiasis

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46
Q

Which 2 diseases are transmitted through the bite of the female mosquito vector?

A

Malaria and filariasis

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47
Q

What pathogen is responsible for ringworms?

A

Fungi;

Genera: Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton

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48
Q

Symptoms of ringworms?

A

Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp;

intense itching

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49
Q

______ and _____ help fungi that cause ringworms to grow, hence they’re often found in ____ and ____ parts of human body

A

Heat and moisture;

skin folds like groin or between the toes

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50
Q

Ringworms are usually acquired from _______ or _______

A

soil;

or using towel, clothes, comb, etc. of infected person

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51
Q

List the common diseases due to contaminated food and water?

A

Typhoid, Amoebiasis, Ascariasis

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52
Q

List the common air-borne diseases?

A

Pneumonia and common cold

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53
Q

What are the precautions to be taken for diseases like malaria and filariasis?

A

Control/eliminate vectors & breeding areas:

  • avoid stagnation of water near residential areas
  • regular cleaning of household coolers
  • use of mosquito nets
  • fishes that feed on larvae in ponds e.g. Gambusia
  • spraying insecticides on ditches, drainage areas, swamps
  • wire mesh on doors and windows
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54
Q

List common diseases transmitted by insect vectors?

A

Malaria, filariasis, dengue, chikungunya

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55
Q

Define immunity

A

Ability of the host to fight disease-causing organisms

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56
Q

Innate immunity?

A

non-specific type of defence,
present at time of birth;
consists of 4 types of barriers

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57
Q

What are the 4 types of barriers in innate immunity?

A
  1. Physical (skin, mucus coating of epithelium in respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts)
  2. Physiological (stomach acid, saliva, tears)
  3. Cellular (leukocytes and lymphocytes in blood, microphages in tissue)
  4. Cytokine: proteins secreted by virus-infected cells which protect non-infected cells
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58
Q

______ barriers prevent entry of microbes whereas ______ barriers prevent growth of microbes

A

Physical;

Physiological

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59
Q

What are the types of cellular barriers?

A 
Leukocytes:
- Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils)
- Monocytes
Natural killer (lymphocytes)
Macrophages
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60
Q

How do macrophages act as barriers to disease?

A

Phagocytose and destroy the microbes

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61
Q

What are Interferons?

A

the proteins secreted by virus-infected cells

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62
Q

Acquired immunity?

A

Pathogen specific,

memory-based

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63
Q

Primary response?

A

Low-intensity response produced by body when it encounters pathogen for the first time

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64
Q

Anamnestic response?

A

Secondary response on subsequent encounter with same pathogen, highly-intensified response based on memory

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65
Q

Primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with help of?

A

2 special types of lymphocytes:

B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes

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66
Q

What do B-lymphocytes do?

A

Produce antibodies (army of proteins) in blood

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67
Q

What do T-cells do?

A 
Help B-cells produce antibodies;
Mediate CMI (cell-mediated immunity)
68
Q

Each antibody has 4 ________

A 
peptide chains, 
2 small (light chains)
2 long (heavy chains)
69
Q

What are the different types of antibodies produced?

A

IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE

You got “GAME” - you got antibodies!

70
Q

Because antibodies are found in the ____ the response is called __________

A

blood;
humoral immune response
(humoral = relating to body fluids)

71
Q

What are the 2 types of acquired immune responses?

A

humoral immune response (antibodies)

cell-mediated immune response

72
Q

When human organs fail to function _____ is often the only remedy

A

transplantation

73
Q

_____ and ____ are essential before transplantation/grafting

A

Tissue matching;

Blood-group matching

74
Q

Person who has undergone transplantation or grafting has to take ________ all their life

A

immuno-suppressants

75
Q

_______________ is responsible for graft rejection

A

Cell-mediated immune response

76
Q

Active vs. passive immunity

A

Active - host exposed to antigens and antibodies produced in the body, slow response e.g. immunisation or natural infection

Passive - ready-made antibodies introduced directly into human e.g. colostrum for newborn infants(yellowish fluid in initial days lactation), placenta to foetus

77
Q

Colostrum has abundance of this type of antibodies?

78
Q

Immunisation is based on the ________ property of the immune system

79
Q

In vaccination ______ pathogen are introduced into the body

A

antigenic proteins of pathogens OR weakened/inactivated pathogens

80
Q

Vaccines generate memory in the form of what cells?

A

B-cells and T-cells

81
Q

______ and ______ requires that preformed antibodies are injected directly to combat deadly microbes.

What type of immunisation is this?

A

Tetanus and snakebites;

passive

82
Q

What is antitoxin?

A

A preparation containing antibodies to a toxin

83
Q

__________ has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen in bacteria or yeast

A

Recombinant DNA technology

84
Q

Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of __________ of pathogen in ____________ and _____________

A

antigenic polypeptides;

bacteria or yeast

85
Q

Vaccines produced using _________ allow large scale production & greater availability

A

recombinant DNA technology

86
Q

________ is an example of a vaccine produced using Recombinant DNA technology in yeast

A

Hepatitis-B

87
Q

Define allergy

A

Exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens in environment;
release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells

88
Q

Antibodies produced during allergies are of this type?

89
Q

Common examples of allergens?

A

Dust mites, pollen, animal dander

90
Q

What are the symptoms commonly associated with allergies?

A

Sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and breathing difficulty

91
Q

What are some drugs used to reduce allergic reactions?

A

Anti-histamine;
adrenalin;
steroids

92
Q

Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in ______ due to the ability to ________

A

higher vertebrates;

differentiate foreign organisms and self-cells

93
Q

What is auto-immune disease?

A

Sometimes body attacks self-cells => damage to body;

genetic or other unknown reasons

94
Q

Example of auto-immune disease?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

95
Q

Human immune system consists of:

A

lymphoid organs,
tissues,
cells,
soluble molecules (e.g. antibodies)

96
Q

What role do lymphoid organs play?

A

Origin, maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes

e.g. bone marrow and thymus (primary lymphoid organs)

97
Q

Immature lymphocytes transform into _________ lymphocytes

A

antigen-sensitive

98
Q

What role do secondary lymphoid organs play?

A

After maturation lymphocytes migrate here; sites for interaction with antigen and proliferation to become effector cells
e.g. spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer’s patches of small intestine, appendix

99
Q

__________ is the main lymphoid organ where _______ are produced

A

Bone marrow;

all blood cells including lymphocytes

100
Q

Thymus is a ______ organ located near ____ and beneath the _____

A

lobed; heart; breastbone

101
Q

_____ is large at the time of birth and keeps reducing in size with age until puberty

102
Q

Bone marrow and thymus provide _____-environments for the maturation of _______

A

micro; T-lymphocytes

103
Q

What is the spleen?

A

Secondary lymphoid organ shaped like a large bean.

Acts as blood filter, trapping blood-borne micro-orgs

104
Q

Spleen contains ______, _______ and is a large reservoir of _________

A

contains lymphocytes and phagocytes;

large reservoir of erythrocytes;

105
Q

What are lymph nodes?

A

Small solid structures at different points, trap micro-orgs/antigens in lymph and tissue fluid

106
Q

____ trapped in lymph nodes are responsible for the activation of _____ causing the _____ response

A

Antigens;
lymphocytes;
immune

107
Q

What is MALT?

A

Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue within lining of major tracts - respiratory, digestive and urogenital;
50% of lymphoid tissue in human body

108
Q

What does AIDs stand for?

A

Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome

109
Q

Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome is a congenital disease. True or False?

A

False, it is not - it is acquired during the lifetime

110
Q

______ means a group of symptoms

111
Q

AIDS was first reported in ____

112
Q

AIDS has killed ____ people since its discovery

A

25 million

113
Q

AIDS is caused by which pathogen?

A

a retrovirus

Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV)

114
Q

What is retrovirus?

A

Group of viruses that have an envelope (protein coat) enclosing the RNA genome

115
Q

How is HIV transmitted?

A
  1. sexual contact
  2. contaminated blood / blood products
  3. infected needles
  4. mother to child through placenta
116
Q

HIV is only spread through bodily fluids, not mere touch or physical contact. True or False?

117
Q

What is the time-lag between getting AIDS and appearance of symptoms?

A

Few months to many years;

usually 5-10 years

118
Q

How does retrovirus replicate?

A

Viral RNA infects macrophages, enters plasma membrane,
Viral DNA produced by enzyme reverse transcriptase;
Viral DNA incorporates into host genome;
New Viral RNA produced => New viruses produced (replication) => Released => macrophage becomes HIV factory

All this while infected animal cell can survive

Simultaneously, HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes => progeny viruses => attach other helper Ts => progressive decrease in number of helper-Ts => bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss => susceptible to other diseases due to decreased helper Ts

119
Q

People with HIV are especially susceptible to which pathogens?

A

Bacteria - especially mycobacterium
Viruses
Fungi
Parasites (Toxoplasma)

120
Q

_______ is a widely used diagnostic test for AIDS

A

ELISA

enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay

121
Q

How is AIDS treated?

A

anti-retroviral drugs, only partially effective;

can prolong life of patient but cannot prevent death

122
Q

More than a million Indians suffer from ________

123
Q

What is contact inhibition?

A

Property of normal cells because of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth

124
Q

Cancer cells have lost which property of normal cells? What is the affect?

A

Contact inhibition;

continue to divide without stopping => tumors

125
Q

What are tumors? Types of tumors?

A

Tumors = masses of cancerous cells

Malignant (spreading/proliferating) vs. benign (confined to original location)

126
Q

How do malignant tumors behave?

A

Composed of neoplastic or tumor cells that grow rapidly; starve normal cells in tissues by competing for vital nutrients;
cells travel through blood and start new tumors (metastasis)

127
Q

______ is the most feared property of malignant tumors

A

Metastasis

128
Q

What are carcinogens?

A

Physical, chemical or biological agents that cause normal cells to become neoplastic/cancerous;
e.g. radiation like X-rays, gamma rays, UV rays
tobacco smoke (chemical)
oncogenic viruses;
cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes in normal cells when activated

129
Q

What are the different types of radiation?

A

Ionising - X-rays, gamma

Non-ionising - UV rays

130
Q

Ways to detect cancer?

A
  1. Biopsy - piece of suspected tissue cut into thin sections, stained, examined under microscope
  2. Histopathological studies of tissue, blood
  3. Bone marrow tests - increased cell counts in case of leukemias
  4. Radiography (X-rays), CT and MRI - for internal organ cancer
  5. Antibodies
  6. Molecular biology to study genes
131
Q

What is CT and how does it work?

A

Computed tomography;

Uses X-rays to generate 3D image of internals of object

132
Q

What is MRI and how does it work?

A

Magnetic Resonance Imaging;

strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiation to detect change in living tissue

133
Q

Treatment for cancer?

A
  1. Surgery
  2. Radiation therapy / Radiotherapy
  3. Immunotherapy
  4. Chemotherapeutic drugs
134
Q

What happens in radiotherapy?

A

Tumor cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper care of surrounding normal tissues

135
Q

Chemotherapeutic drugs are specific for particular tumors and have side effects. T or F?

136
Q

___ and ____ are side effects of chemotherapy

A

Hair loss,

anemia

137
Q

Most cancers are treated by combination of ___ , ___ and ____

A

Surgery
Chemotherapy
Radiotherapy

138
Q

Tumor cells avoid detection and destruction by immune system; hence patients are given ________ such as _______

A

biological response modifiers like alpha-interferon

139
Q

Commonly abused drugs?

A
  1. Opioids (heroin/smack)
  2. Cannabinoids (from cannabis plants: marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja)
  3. Coca alkaloid (cocain/coke/crack)
  4. Drugs normally used as medicines: barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, morphine
140
Q

Opioids bind to _____ in _____ and _____

A

opioid receptors;
central nervous system;
gastrointestinal tract

141
Q

Opioids are chemically ______ obtained from ______?

A

diacetylmorphine;

acetylation of morphine (extracted from latex of poppy plant - Papaver somniferum)

142
Q

What are the physical properties of smack?

A

White crystalline compound
Odourless
Bitter

143
Q

Smack is generally taken by ___ or ____

A

snorting or injection

144
Q

______ is a depressant that slows down bodily functions

145
Q

Cannabinoids react with _____ in _____

A

cannabinoid receptors in brain

146
Q

Natural cannabinoids are obtained from?

A

Inflorescences of the plant Cannabis Sativa = flower tops, leaves and resin

147
Q

Cannabinoids are usually taken by ___ and ____

A

inhalation and oral ingestion

148
Q

Cannabinoids affect ______ system in the body

A

Cardiovascular

149
Q

Coca alkaloid is aka _____ and obtained from _____ native to _____

A

Cocaine;
coca plant, Erythroxylum coca;
South America

150
Q

________ interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter ______

A

Cocaine;

dopamine

151
Q

Cocaine is usually taken by ______

152
Q

Cocaine affects _______

A

central nervous system,

sense of euphoria and increased energy, hallucinations

153
Q

Plants with hallucinogenic properties

A

Erythroxylum coca
Atropa beladona
Datura

154
Q

__________ are abused by sportspersons

A

Cannabinoids

155
Q

Barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines are drugs normally used as medicine to help patients cope with _____ and _____

A

depression and insomnia

156
Q

_______ is a very effective sedative and painkiller for patients undergoing surgery

157
Q

Nicotine is an ______

What is its effect?

A

alkaloid

stimulates adrenal gland, releases adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood; increases blood pressure and heart rate; increases carbon monoxide content in blood (smoking) and reduces concentration of haembound oxygen => oxygen deficiency

158
Q

Smoking is associated with what issues?

A 
Cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat, 
bronchitis 
emphysema, 
coronary heart disease, 
gastric ulcer
159
Q

________ is associated with increased risk of oral cavity cancer

A

Tobacco chewing

160
Q

What is withdrawal syndrome?

A

Due to dependence; when regular dose of drugs/alcohol is discontinued;
anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating (in some cases symptoms can be life threatening)

161
Q

What is cirrhosis?

A

impaired function of liver due to chronic use of drugs/alcohol

162
Q

Chronic use of drugs/alcohol can damage ____ and ____

A

CNS and liver

163
Q

Sportspersons misuse ________

A

narcotic analgesics,
anabolic steroids,
diuretics

164
Q

Side-effects of anabolic steroids in females

A 
increased aggressiveness
mood swings
depression
masculinisation
abnormal menstrual cycles
excessive facial hair growth on face/body
enlargement of clitoris
deepening of voice
165
Q

Side-effects of anabolic steroids in males?

A 
increased aggressiveness 
mood swings 
depression 
acne 
reduction of size of testicles
decreased sperm production
enlargement of prostate gland
breast enlargement
kidney/liver dysfunction
premature baldness

Biology (NCERT) - Class XII (18 decks)

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