XII Chap 8 Health and Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Health is affected by ______ (3 things)

A
  1. Genetic disorders
  2. Infections
  3. Lifestyle
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2
Q

What is the definition of disease?

A

functioning of one or more organs or systems of the body adversely affected, appearance of various signs and symptoms

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3
Q

Among non-infectious diseases _____ is the major cause of death

A

Cancer

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4
Q

Most parasites are pathogens. True or False?

A

True

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5
Q

Pathogens have to adapt to life within the environment of the _____

A

host

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6
Q

Pathogen that enters the gut must be able to survive in what conditions?

A

low pH

digestive enzymes

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7
Q

What causes typhoid and how do they enter?

A
Salmonella typhi (pathogenic bacterium); 
enter small intestine through food and water and migrate to other organs through the blood
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8
Q

What are the symptoms of typhoid fever?

A

high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite

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9
Q

In severe cases of typhoid we may see _________

A

intestinal perforation and death

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10
Q

What test can confirm typhoid?

A

Widal test

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11
Q

_______ nicknamed Typhoid Mary was an infamous typhoid carrier

A

Mary Mallon, a cook

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12
Q

What pathogen causes pneumonia?

A

Bacteria;
Streptococcus pneumoniae
OR
Haemophilus influenzae

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13
Q

What parts of the body does pathogen of pneumonia infect?

A

Alveoli (air filled sacs) of the lungs;

alveoli filled with fluid => respiration problems

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14
Q

Symptoms of pneumonia?

A

fever, chills, cough and headache

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15
Q

In severe cases of pneumonia, these symptoms may appear?

A

Lips and finger nails turn gray to bluish

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16
Q

How does a person get infected with pneumonia?

A

Inhaling droplets / aerosols released by an infected person OR sharing utensils with infected person

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17
Q

What are some of the known bacterial diseases in humans?

A
Typhoid
Pneumonia
Dysentry
Plague
Diphtheria
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18
Q

_________ represents a group of viruses that cause the common cold

A

Rhino viruses

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19
Q

Rhino viruses infect _______ but not _________

A

nose and respiratory passage;

not lungs

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20
Q

Symptoms of common cold?

A

Nasal congestion and discharge, sore throat, hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness

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21
Q

Common cold lasts ______ days

A

3-7 days

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22
Q

How does common cold spread?

A
Droplets;
Contaminated objects (e.g. pens, doorknobs, etc)
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23
Q

What causes malaria?

A

Plasmodium, a tiny protozoan

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24
Q

What are the 3 different species of the pathogen that causes malaria?

A

Plasmodium vivax,
Plasmodium malaria,
Plasmodium falciparum

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25
Which specific pathogen causes malignant (fatal) malaria?
Plasmodium falciparum
26
What does the malaria pathogen do once it enters the body?
Enters the human body as sporozoites (infectious form) => multiplies asexually in liver cells => cell bursts => release in blood => then attack the red blood cells => cell bursts => release of toxic substance, haemozoin => chill and fever, every 3-4 days
27
Malaria is contracted through the bite of _________
infected female Anopheles mosquito
28
What happens when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a person infected with malaria?
Gametocytes (sexual stages) develop in human RBCs, => gametocytes enter mosquito through bite => fertilization and development in mosquito's gut => sporozoites (mature infective stages) escape from gut to salivary glands, waiting for next bite
29
Malarial parasite requires how many and which hosts to complete its life cycle?
2 hosts: human mosquitoes
30
The female Anopheles mosquito is the __________ for malaria
vector / transmitting agent
31
__________ pathogen causes amoebic dysentery
Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan parasite)
32
Another name for amoebic dysentry
Amoebiasis
33
Where does the parasite for amoebiasis attack?
Large intestine of the human
34
What are symptoms of amoebiasis?
Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, stools with excess mucous and blood clots
35
Houseflies are _________ carriers of amoebiasis and transmit the parasite from _______ to _________
mechanical; | faeces of infected persons to food/food products/water
36
_________ and _______ are helminths known to be pathogenic to man
Ascaris (round worm) | Wuchereria (filarial worm)
37
Ascaris is an __________ parasite that causes ___________
intestinal parasite; | ascariasis
38
Symptoms of ascariasis?
Internal bleeding, muscular pain, fever, anemia and blockage of the intestinal passage
39
________ of the ascaris parasite are excreted along with _____ of the infected person which contaminates soil, water, plants, etc.
Eggs; faeces
40
Ascariasis is acquired through ____________
contaminated water, fruits, vegetables, etc.
41
Species of Wuchereria that cause filariasis? | And the common names?
Wuchereria bancrofti and Wuchereria malayi; | filarial worms
42
What is filariasis and what is its other name?
Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organs in which the filarial worms live for many years; aka elephantiasis
43
Where do the filarial worms that cause filariasis usually live in the human host?
Lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs
44
Genital organs are unaffected in elephantiasis. T or F?
False, also often affected
45
Gross deformities are a symptom of which common human disease?
Elephantiasis
46
Which 2 diseases are transmitted through the bite of the female mosquito vector?
Malaria and filariasis
47
What pathogen is responsible for ringworms?
Fungi; | Genera: Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton
48
Symptoms of ringworms?
Dry, scaly lesions on skin, nails and scalp; | intense itching
49
______ and _____ help fungi that cause ringworms to grow, hence they're often found in ____ and ____ parts of human body
Heat and moisture; | skin folds like groin or between the toes
50
Ringworms are usually acquired from _______ or _______
soil; | or using towel, clothes, comb, etc. of infected person
51
List the common diseases due to contaminated food and water?
Typhoid, Amoebiasis, Ascariasis
52
List the common air-borne diseases?
Pneumonia and common cold
53
What are the precautions to be taken for diseases like malaria and filariasis?
Control/eliminate vectors & breeding areas: - avoid stagnation of water near residential areas - regular cleaning of household coolers - use of mosquito nets - fishes that feed on larvae in ponds e.g. Gambusia - spraying insecticides on ditches, drainage areas, swamps - wire mesh on doors and windows
54
List common diseases transmitted by insect vectors?
Malaria, filariasis, dengue, chikungunya
55
Define immunity
Ability of the host to fight disease-causing organisms
56
Innate immunity?
non-specific type of defence, present at time of birth; consists of 4 types of barriers
57
What are the 4 types of barriers in innate immunity?
1. Physical (skin, mucus coating of epithelium in respiratory, gastrointestinal and urogenital tracts) 2. Physiological (stomach acid, saliva, tears) 3. Cellular (leukocytes and lymphocytes in blood, microphages in tissue) 4. Cytokine: proteins secreted by virus-infected cells which protect non-infected cells
58
______ barriers prevent entry of microbes whereas ______ barriers prevent growth of microbes
Physical; | Physiological
59
What are the types of cellular barriers?
``` Leukocytes: - Polymorpho-nuclear leukocytes (PMNL-neutrophils) - Monocytes Natural killer (lymphocytes) Macrophages ```
60
How do macrophages act as barriers to disease?
Phagocytose and destroy the microbes
61
What are Interferons?
the proteins secreted by virus-infected cells
62
Acquired immunity?
Pathogen specific, | memory-based
63
Primary response?
Low-intensity response produced by body when it encounters pathogen for the first time
64
Anamnestic response?
Secondary response on subsequent encounter with same pathogen, highly-intensified response based on memory
65
Primary and secondary immune responses are carried out with help of?
2 special types of lymphocytes: | B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes
66
What do B-lymphocytes do?
Produce antibodies (army of proteins) in blood
67
What do T-cells do?
``` Help B-cells produce antibodies; Mediate CMI (cell-mediated immunity) ```
68
Each antibody has 4 ________
``` peptide chains, 2 small (light chains) 2 long (heavy chains) ```
69
What are the different types of antibodies produced?
IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE You got "GAME" - you got antibodies!
70
Because antibodies are found in the ____ the response is called __________
blood; humoral immune response (humoral = relating to body fluids)
71
What are the 2 types of acquired immune responses?
humoral immune response (antibodies) | cell-mediated immune response
72
When human organs fail to function _____ is often the only remedy
transplantation
73
_____ and ____ are essential before transplantation/grafting
Tissue matching; | Blood-group matching
74
Person who has undergone transplantation or grafting has to take ________ all their life
immuno-suppressants
75
_______________ is responsible for graft rejection
Cell-mediated immune response
76
Active vs. passive immunity
Active - host exposed to antigens and antibodies produced in the body, slow response e.g. immunisation or natural infection Passive - ready-made antibodies introduced directly into human e.g. colostrum for newborn infants(yellowish fluid in initial days lactation), placenta to foetus
77
Colostrum has abundance of this type of antibodies?
IgA
78
Immunisation is based on the ________ property of the immune system
memory
79
In vaccination ______ pathogen are introduced into the body
antigenic proteins of pathogens OR weakened/inactivated pathogens
80
Vaccines generate memory in the form of what cells?
B-cells and T-cells
81
______ and ______ requires that preformed antibodies are injected directly to combat deadly microbes. What type of immunisation is this?
Tetanus and snakebites; passive
82
What is antitoxin?
A preparation containing antibodies to a toxin
83
__________ has allowed the production of antigenic polypeptides of pathogen in bacteria or yeast
Recombinant DNA technology
84
Recombinant DNA technology has allowed the production of __________ of pathogen in ____________ and _____________
antigenic polypeptides; | bacteria or yeast
85
Vaccines produced using _________ allow large scale production & greater availability
recombinant DNA technology
86
________ is an example of a vaccine produced using Recombinant DNA technology in yeast
Hepatitis-B
87
Define allergy
Exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens in environment; release of histamine and serotonin from mast cells
88
Antibodies produced during allergies are of this type?
IgE
89
Common examples of allergens?
Dust mites, pollen, animal dander
90
What are the symptoms commonly associated with allergies?
Sneezing, watery eyes, running nose and breathing difficulty
91
What are some drugs used to reduce allergic reactions?
Anti-histamine; adrenalin; steroids
92
Memory-based acquired immunity evolved in ______ due to the ability to ________
higher vertebrates; | differentiate foreign organisms and self-cells
93
What is auto-immune disease?
Sometimes body attacks self-cells => damage to body; | genetic or other unknown reasons
94
Example of auto-immune disease?
Rheumatoid arthritis
95
Human immune system consists of:
lymphoid organs, tissues, cells, soluble molecules (e.g. antibodies)
96
What role do lymphoid organs play?
Origin, maturation and proliferation of lymphocytes | e.g. bone marrow and thymus (primary lymphoid organs)
97
Immature lymphocytes transform into _________ lymphocytes
antigen-sensitive
98
What role do secondary lymphoid organs play?
After maturation lymphocytes migrate here; sites for interaction with antigen and proliferation to become effector cells e.g. spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils, Peyer's patches of small intestine, appendix
99
__________ is the main lymphoid organ where _______ are produced
Bone marrow; | all blood cells including lymphocytes
100
Thymus is a ______ organ located near ____ and beneath the _____
lobed; heart; breastbone
101
_____ is large at the time of birth and keeps reducing in size with age until puberty
Thymus
102
Bone marrow and thymus provide _____-environments for the maturation of _______
micro; T-lymphocytes
103
What is the spleen?
Secondary lymphoid organ shaped like a large bean. | Acts as blood filter, trapping blood-borne micro-orgs
104
Spleen contains ______, _______ and is a large reservoir of _________
contains lymphocytes and phagocytes; | large reservoir of erythrocytes;
105
What are lymph nodes?
Small solid structures at different points, trap micro-orgs/antigens in lymph and tissue fluid
106
____ trapped in lymph nodes are responsible for the activation of _____ causing the _____ response
Antigens; lymphocytes; immune
107
What is MALT?
Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue within lining of major tracts - respiratory, digestive and urogenital; 50% of lymphoid tissue in human body
108
What does AIDs stand for?
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome
109
Acquired Immuno Deficiency Syndrome is a congenital disease. True or False?
False, it is not - it is acquired during the lifetime
110
______ means a group of symptoms
Syndrome
111
AIDS was first reported in ____
1981
112
AIDS has killed ____ people since its discovery
25 million
113
AIDS is caused by which pathogen?
a retrovirus | Human Immuno deficiency Virus (HIV)
114
What is retrovirus?
Group of viruses that have an envelope (protein coat) enclosing the RNA genome
115
How is HIV transmitted?
1. sexual contact 2. contaminated blood / blood products 3. infected needles 4. mother to child through placenta
116
HIV is only spread through bodily fluids, not mere touch or physical contact. True or False?
True
117
What is the time-lag between getting AIDS and appearance of symptoms?
Few months to many years; | usually 5-10 years
118
How does retrovirus replicate?
Viral RNA infects macrophages, enters plasma membrane, Viral DNA produced by enzyme reverse transcriptase; Viral DNA incorporates into host genome; New Viral RNA produced => New viruses produced (replication) => Released => macrophage becomes HIV factory All this while infected animal cell can survive Simultaneously, HIV enters helper T-lymphocytes => progeny viruses => attach other helper Ts => progressive decrease in number of helper-Ts => bouts of fever, diarrhoea and weight loss => susceptible to other diseases due to decreased helper Ts
119
People with HIV are especially susceptible to which pathogens?
Bacteria - especially mycobacterium Viruses Fungi Parasites (Toxoplasma)
120
_______ is a widely used diagnostic test for AIDS
ELISA | enzyme linked immuno-sorbent assay
121
How is AIDS treated?
anti-retroviral drugs, only partially effective; | can prolong life of patient but cannot prevent death
122
More than a million Indians suffer from ________
cancer
123
What is contact inhibition?
Property of normal cells because of which contact with other cells inhibits their uncontrolled growth
124
Cancer cells have lost which property of normal cells? What is the affect?
Contact inhibition; | continue to divide without stopping => tumors
125
What are tumors? Types of tumors?
Tumors = masses of cancerous cells | Malignant (spreading/proliferating) vs. benign (confined to original location)
126
How do malignant tumors behave?
Composed of neoplastic or tumor cells that grow rapidly; starve normal cells in tissues by competing for vital nutrients; cells travel through blood and start new tumors (metastasis)
127
______ is the most feared property of malignant tumors
Metastasis
128
What are carcinogens?
Physical, chemical or biological agents that cause normal cells to become neoplastic/cancerous; e.g. radiation like X-rays, gamma rays, UV rays tobacco smoke (chemical) oncogenic viruses; cellular oncogenes (c-onc) or proto oncogenes in normal cells when activated
129
What are the different types of radiation?
Ionising - X-rays, gamma | Non-ionising - UV rays
130
Ways to detect cancer?
1. Biopsy - piece of suspected tissue cut into thin sections, stained, examined under microscope 2. Histopathological studies of tissue, blood 3. Bone marrow tests - increased cell counts in case of leukemias 4. Radiography (X-rays), CT and MRI - for internal organ cancer 5. Antibodies 6. Molecular biology to study genes
131
What is CT and how does it work?
Computed tomography; | Uses X-rays to generate 3D image of internals of object
132
What is MRI and how does it work?
Magnetic Resonance Imaging; | strong magnetic fields and non-ionising radiation to detect change in living tissue
133
Treatment for cancer?
1. Surgery 2. Radiation therapy / Radiotherapy 3. Immunotherapy 4. Chemotherapeutic drugs
134
What happens in radiotherapy?
Tumor cells are irradiated lethally, taking proper care of surrounding normal tissues
135
Chemotherapeutic drugs are specific for particular tumors and have side effects. T or F?
True
136
___ and ____ are side effects of chemotherapy
Hair loss, | anemia
137
Most cancers are treated by combination of ___ , ___ and ____
Surgery Chemotherapy Radiotherapy
138
Tumor cells avoid detection and destruction by immune system; hence patients are given ________ such as _______
biological response modifiers like alpha-interferon
139
Commonly abused drugs?
1. Opioids (heroin/smack) 2. Cannabinoids (from cannabis plants: marijuana, hashish, charas and ganja) 3. Coca alkaloid (cocain/coke/crack) 4. Drugs normally used as medicines: barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines, morphine
140
Opioids bind to _____ in _____ and _____
opioid receptors; central nervous system; gastrointestinal tract
141
Opioids are chemically ______ obtained from ______?
diacetylmorphine; | acetylation of morphine (extracted from latex of poppy plant - Papaver somniferum)
142
What are the physical properties of smack?
White crystalline compound Odourless Bitter
143
Smack is generally taken by ___ or ____
snorting or injection
144
______ is a depressant that slows down bodily functions
Heroin
145
Cannabinoids react with _____ in _____
cannabinoid receptors in brain
146
Natural cannabinoids are obtained from?
Inflorescences of the plant Cannabis Sativa = flower tops, leaves and resin
147
Cannabinoids are usually taken by ___ and ____
inhalation and oral ingestion
148
Cannabinoids affect ______ system in the body
Cardiovascular
149
Coca alkaloid is aka _____ and obtained from _____ native to _____
Cocaine; coca plant, Erythroxylum coca; South America
150
________ interferes with the transport of the neuro-transmitter ______
Cocaine; | dopamine
151
Cocaine is usually taken by ______
snorting
152
Cocaine affects _______
central nervous system, | sense of euphoria and increased energy, hallucinations
153
Plants with hallucinogenic properties
Erythroxylum coca Atropa beladona Datura
154
__________ are abused by sportspersons
Cannabinoids
155
Barbiturates, amphetamines, benzodiazepines are drugs normally used as medicine to help patients cope with _____ and _____
depression and insomnia
156
_______ is a very effective sedative and painkiller for patients undergoing surgery
Morphine
157
Nicotine is an ______ What is its effect?
alkaloid stimulates adrenal gland, releases adrenaline and nor-adrenaline into blood; increases blood pressure and heart rate; increases carbon monoxide content in blood (smoking) and reduces concentration of haembound oxygen => oxygen deficiency
158
Smoking is associated with what issues?
``` Cancers of lung, urinary bladder and throat, bronchitis emphysema, coronary heart disease, gastric ulcer ```
159
________ is associated with increased risk of oral cavity cancer
Tobacco chewing
160
What is withdrawal syndrome?
Due to dependence; when regular dose of drugs/alcohol is discontinued; anxiety, shakiness, nausea and sweating (in some cases symptoms can be life threatening)
161
What is cirrhosis?
impaired function of liver due to chronic use of drugs/alcohol
162
Chronic use of drugs/alcohol can damage ____ and ____
CNS and liver
163
Sportspersons misuse ________
narcotic analgesics, anabolic steroids, diuretics
164
Side-effects of anabolic steroids in females
``` increased aggressiveness mood swings depression masculinisation abnormal menstrual cycles excessive facial hair growth on face/body enlargement of clitoris deepening of voice ```
165
Side-effects of anabolic steroids in males?
``` increased aggressiveness mood swings depression acne reduction of size of testicles decreased sperm production enlargement of prostate gland breast enlargement kidney/liver dysfunction premature baldness ```