Wrong answers Flashcards

1
Q

Familial hypercholestermia (type II A)

A

the most common inherited dyslipidemia lipid disorder; defect in LDL receptors and ApoB-100; there is elevated LDL; pt will present w/ premature atherosclerosis (men <55; women <65), tendon xanthomas and xanthelasmas (skin xanthomas - deposits of lipid-rich foam cells in the dermis; presents w yellow rubbery nodules and plaques)

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2
Q

False negative H. pylori test

A

can occur in urea breath testing and stool antigen studies in pts using **PPI’s bismuth or antibiotics; they suppress bacterial growth but do not eradicate H. pylori unless used in combination in quadruple therapy

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3
Q

diastolic thrill palpable over the cardiac apex and a low-pitched, rumbling, mid-diastolic murmur best heard over the apex when the pt is lying in the left lateral decibitus position

A

mitral stenosis findings

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4
Q

adolescent with bloody stools, PE reveals conjunctival pallor and blood-streaked stool within the rectal vault

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome; AD tumor suppressor gene mut; pigmented macules in lips/palms/soles; **multiple GI hamartomatous polyps - increased cancer risk (GI, breast and GU)

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5
Q

Liposarcoma

A

soft tissue malignancies that contain a numerous lipoblasts (well-demarcated lipid shifts with the cells characteristically causing nuclear indentations and **scalloping of the nuclear membrane; most common in middle aged adults as slow-growing masses

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6
Q

Pemphigus Vulgaris (PV)

A

painful bullae and erosions, oral involvement and extension of lesions w/ direct pressure (Asboe-Hansen sign); antibodies against desmogleins (help form desmosomal junctions - epidermal IgG and C3 deposits will be found between keratinocytes); ** net-like or chicken-wire pattern

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7
Q

Alcohol-related cerebellar degeneration

A

results from long-term heavy alcohol use; loss of purkinje cells that are prominent in the cerebellar vermis; pt experience ataxia the progresses over weeks to months before eventually stabilizing; wide-based gait and truncal instability; a course, rhythmic, postural tremor of the fingers and hands, dysarthria and diplopia

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8
Q

A systolic murmur that increases in intensity with maneuvers that decrease LV blood volume is highly suggestive of what pathology?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

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9
Q

proteins and their functions in prokaryotic DNA replication

A
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10
Q

Lynch syndrome

A

ovarian mass, ascites and elevated CA-125 has the typical presentation of ovarian cancer FH in 1st degree relatives strongly suggest Lynch syndrome (AD) that increased risk of colorectal, endometrial and ovarian cancers; Lynch is caused by germline mut involving mismatch repair (MMR) in MSH2, MLH1, MSH6 and PMS2

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11
Q

MOA of tacrolimus (immunosuppressant)

A

a calcineurin inhibitor that prevents the gene transcription of IL-2 in T-cells; can cause a rise un BUN and creatinine levels that is thought to be due to afferent and efferent arteriolar constrictions - **Renal arteriolar vasoconstriction; long-term can lead to obliterative vasculopathy

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12
Q

Alkaptonuria

A

AR distordre caused by defectes in homogentisic acid deoxygenate (HGD) leading to impaired tyrosine metabolism; clinical homogentisic aciduria (blackening of the urine); ochronosis (blue-black pigments deposits in eyes, ears and nose); and pigment deposits in spine and large joints; diagnose w/ increased homogentisic acid levels in the urine

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13
Q

Clinical homogentisic aciduria (blackening of the urine); ochronosis (blue-black pigments deposits in eyes, ears and nose); and pigment deposits in spine and large joints

A

Alkaptonuria - AR distordre caused by defectes in homogentisic acid deoxygenate (HGD) leading to impaired tyrosine metabolism; diagnose w/ increased homogentisic acid levels in the urine

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14
Q

Fragility fracture

A

fracture resulting from a low-level trauma (fall from standing height); strongly suggest osteoporosis; the most common cause in a young active women is **hypogonadatrophic hypogonadism which manifests as suppressed GnRH; leading to amenorrhea and bone loss

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15
Q

Homocystinuria

A

an AR disorder results cystathionine-beta synthase (CBS) mut; leads to a buildup of both methionine and homocysteine; pt presents with marfanoid features - tall, thin stature, arachnodactyly (elongated fingers and toes)

** distinguish from Marfan syndrome - intellectual disability, hyper coagulability and ectopic lentis (dislocated lens) - displaced upward in homocystuniura and upward in Marfan

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16
Q

CMV retinitis treatment

A

HIV pt is likely to have cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis - CD4 <50/mm3; best treated w/ ganciclovir - inhibits DNA chain elongation by incorporating into viral DNA and viral DNA polymerase

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17
Q

Genetic shift

A

nonpathogenic and pathogenic strains are grown in culture and the nonpathogenic strain presents with enhanced infectivity - cause by **reassortment

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18
Q

McArdle disease

A

glycogen storage disease type V - AR caused by deficiency in muscle glycogen phosphorylase (myophosylase) - enzyme that **cleaves 1,4 - alpha-glycoside bonds; presents w/ muscle weakness shortly after initiating exercise in adolescence or early adulthood

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19
Q
A
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20
Q

Atrial fibrillation JVP waveform - ineffective atrial contraction and absence of end-diastolic atrial kick that forces blood into the ventricles

A
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21
Q

Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) clinical presentation

A

cyanosis at birth with a harsh systolic ejection murmur; situations that increase right ventricular outflow obstruction (crying, agitation) or decrease SVR (exercise) can trigger **hypercyanotic episodes “tet” spells which present in rapid/deep breathing and cyanosis - during these spells children **squat to relieve cyanosis - increases SVR resistance improving oxygenation

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22
Q

A tumor of this structure

A

pineal gland tumors (pinealomas) - damage the dorsal midbrain causing Parinaud syndrome; presents with **upward gaze palsy, absent pupillary light reflex and impaired convergence

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23
Q

During healing if the GI, new intestinal epithelial cells differentiate from *stem cells that reside where?

A

in the deepest portions of the Crypts of Lieberkuhn

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24
Q

Important inherited hyperlipoproteinemias

A
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25
Q

Familial chylomicronemia syndrome (type I)

A

defect in lipoprotein lipase and ApoC-2; there will be elevated chylomicrons

Major manifestations: acute pancreatitis, lipemia retinals and eruptive xanthomas

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26
Q

Familial hypercholesterolemia (type IIA)

A

defect in LDL receptor and ApoB-100; there will be elevated LDL

Major manifestations: premature atherosclerosis, tendon xanthomas and xanthelasmas

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27
Q

Familial dysbetalipoproteinemia (type III)

A

defect in ApoE; will have elevated chylomicron and VLDL remnants

Major manifestations: premature atherosclerosis, tuboeruptive and palmar xanthomas

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28
Q

Familial hypertriglyceridemia (type IV)

A

polygenic defect; elevated VLDL; associated with coronary disease, pancreatitis and diabetes

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29
Q

False negative H. pylori urea breath test

A

can occur in pts using PPIs, bismuth, or antibiotics; these agents suppress growth but do not eradicate H. pylori unless given in combination as part of quadruple therapy

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30
Q

Horner Syndrome

A

triad of miosis (constricted pupil), ptosis (droopy eyelid), and anhidrosis (loss of hemifacial sweating)

Interruption in the pathway: T1/T2 level at spinal cord to *stellate ganglion in paravertebral sympathetic chain to superior cervical ganglion to carotid plexus, transverse to ciliary and oculomotor nerves

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31
Q

receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curves

A

can be produced by plotting sensitivity (true positive rate) against 1-specicity (false positive rate)

Accuracy is reflected by the areas under the ROC curve (AUC) line A is the most accurate for diagnoses purposes

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32
Q

Medication used to treat a small bowel obstruction that is contraindicated in Parkinson disease

A

Metoclopramide - dopamine receptor antagonist can lead to an exacerbation of existing parkinsonian symptoms and sometimes de novo in pts w/o parkinson

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33
Q

MOA of antiviral medications: acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir and ganciclovir?

A

inhibits DNA chain elongation by incorporating into viral DNA and inhibiting viral DNA polymerase

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34
Q

Parkinson disease pathology?

A

degeneration of dopaminergic neurons in substantial nigra leading to progressive deficiency of dopamine w/I the basal ganglia

characteristic finding of intraneuronal accumulation of **alpha-synuclein and ubiquitin

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35
Q

Antibiotics acting on 50S subunit

A

chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolids and some macrolides such as: Azithromycin and Clindamycin which bind the 23S rRNA of the 50S ribosomal subunit

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36
Q

Cystic hygroma

A

a lymphatic malformation caused by dysgenesis of the lymphatic system: 1 hour baby w/ anterior fontanelle open, soft and flat; neck is supple, there is a large, doughy mass covered by skin above the left clavicle and lateral to SCM; the mass transilluminates w a light source

most commonly associated w trisomies (particular trisomy 21) and Turner syndrome (45, XO)

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37
Q

lactose intolerance pathology

A

lactase expression is generally high in infancy and early childhood when milk is the primary source of nutrition however *gene expression naturally declines with age resulting in primary lactose intolerant

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38
Q

Kluver-Bucy syndrome

A

neuropsychiatric syndrome that results from b/l damage ti the temporal lobes (amygdala - represented as C) presents w/ socially inappropriate sexual activity and an oral fixation that motivates people to put things in their mouths (hyperphagia), placidity and amnesia

commonly associated w HSV-1 encephalitis due to the virus affinity for temporal lobes and limbic system

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39
Q

Tardive dyskinesia (TD)

A

medication-induced movement disorder that results from *prolonged exposure/long-term use of dopamine-blocking agents; this will cause receptor up regulation

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40
Q

Dopamine beta-hydroxylate deficiency

A

impair synthesis of NE and epi; there will be impaired sympathetic adrenergic activity; presents w/ postural (orthostatic) hypotension, exercise intolerance, nasal congestion and ejaculatory difficulties

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41
Q

Polio vaccines

A

oral polio vaccine contains attenuated live virus that can revert to a virulent form and cause vaccine-associated paralytic poliomyelitis. Inactivated polio vaccine contains killed virus and canNOT revert to a virulent form

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42
Q

Superior vena cava (SVC) syndrome

A

SVC obstruction which is caused by tumor (90%); impaired upper body venous drainage results in increased venous pressure and symptoms that include face and neck edema, neck vein engorgement and dyspnea.

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43
Q

Rabies

A

eosinophilic neuronal cytoplasmic inclusions (Negri bodies); causes painful pharyngeal muscle spasms and hydrophobia; most cases arise from an animal bite (I the US bats are the most common vector, outside of the US, unvaccinated dogs)

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44
Q

Orlistat

A

an intestinal lipase inhibitor that reduces dietary fat; it is often recommended as 1st line tx due to favorable safety profile, but has significant GI side effects; anti-obesity drug - produces modest weight loss

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45
Q

Membranous nephropathy

A

nephrotic syndrome; imune-complex deposition in the subepitehlial portion of glomerular capillary walls; often idiopathic but associated w/ solid tumors; will see diffuse thickening of the glomerular BM; sub epithelial immune-complex deposits form “spikes” visible w/ silver stain and electron microscopy

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46
Q

Entamoeba histolytica

A

protozoan transmitted via oral-fecal contact (contaminated water/sexual activity), may present w. abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody or mucoid stool. Stool microscopy shows cysts and trophozoites which characteristically possess phagocytoses erythrocytes

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47
Q

Urethritis with epididymitis

A

urethral discharge and enlarged, painful testicles caused by STIs:

C trachomatis (nongonococcal urethritis) - neutrophils w/ no organisms on gram stain - tx w/ bacterial protein synthesis inhibitors (azithromycin and doxycycline)

N gonorrhoeae - gram (-) stain w/ diplococci - tx w/ both a cephalosporin and azithromycin

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48
Q
A

16%
“68/95/99” rule is an important attribute of normal distribution; 68% of values will lie within 1 SD, 95% of values within 2SD and 99.7 of values of 3SD

90 BG is the mean so 85-95 is 68%, values below and above are 16%

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49
Q

Primary ovarian insufficiency

A

the premature depletion of ovarian follicles, presents with amenorrhea and elevated FSH in women age <40. the pathophysiology is accelerated follicular atresia, an apoptotic process

clinical features: increased FSH and decreased estrogen

50
Q

Purpose of drug coating in a stent placement

A

drug-eluting stands contain cytostatic drugs (mTOR inhibitors) that reduce smooth muscle cell proliferation; this helps prevent neointimal hyperplasia and stent restenosis

51
Q

ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency

A

most common urea cycle disorder; urea cycle disorders typically present with very high ammonia levels, poor feeding, vomiting, lethargy and seizures; ornithine transcarbamylase deficiency is the most common defect; accumulation of carbonyl phosphate which is converted to orotic acid by the pyrimidine biosynthetic pathways and low citrulline levels

52
Q

Somatic symptom disorder

A

excessive thoughts or behaviors associated with one or more somatic symptoms, resulting in functional impairment.

53
Q

Postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

following menopause, the loss of ovarian function and decline in estrogen levels lead to increased bone resorption, accelerated bone loss, and an increased risk of osteoporosis; vertebral compression fractures are a common complication of postmenopausal osteoporosis due to loss of trabecular bone and can occur with low-intensity trauma

54
Q

Normal pressure hydrocephalus (NPH)

A

classic triad of urinary incontinence, gait disturbance, and dementia

55
Q

Korsakoff syndrome

A

characterized by retrograde and anterograde amnesia with preserved remote memory, confabulation and lack of insight; commonly Pelops in pts w/ alcohol use disorder following an episode of Wernicke’s encephalopathy

56
Q

Best next steps for pt on loop diuretics

A

pts on high doses of loop diuretics are predisposed to hypokalemia and contraction alkalosis; early signs of hypokalemia (muscle weakness, cramps, myalgias, and fatigue); prompt tx is needed to prevent respiratory depression and ventricular arrhythmias

next step: check blood electrolyte level

57
Q

MOA of HIV antiretroviral medications

A
58
Q

NADPH oxidase

A

catalyzes the first step of the respiratory burst pathway, producing ROS that facilitate intracellular killing of phagocytized organisms; deficiency results in chronic granulomatous disease which presents w/ increased risk of infection w/ catalase (+) organisms

59
Q

Acute aortic dissection

A

sudden-onset severe chest pain and a widened mediastinum and enlarged aortic knob on chest x-ray; uncontrolled HTN is the strongest risk factor in >60 yrs and CT dieases (Marfan syndrome) is usually the primary risk in younger pts

60
Q

Cardiovascular response to exercise

A

increased CO and vasodilation in exercising muscles; EDV and HR are increased and ESV and SVR are decreased

61
Q

Cardiovascular response to exercise

A

increased CO and vasodilation in exercising muscles; EDV and HR are increased and ESV and SVR are decreased

62
Q

brain development

A
63
Q
A

Reed-Sternberg “owl’s eyes” cell, a large cell with abundant cytoplasm, multiple nuclei or a multilobated nucleus and prominent eosinophilic nucleoli is classic histologic finding in Hodgkin lymphoma

64
Q

antifungal drug targets

A

Cryptococcus neoformans is typically tx w/ Amphotericin B which is a polyene macrolide anti fungal that binds ergosterols (unique to fungi) creating pores in the cell membrane; nephrotoxicity is major adverse effect

65
Q

Pathological findings in Nephritic Syndrome

A
66
Q

Klinefelter syndrome (47, XXY)

A

results from meiotic conjunction and is characterized by small, firm, nonfunctional testes; infertility; gynecomastia and increased long bone growth; serum testosterone is low and LH and estradiol are increased

67
Q

cervical transformation zone

A
68
Q

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis

A

mold hay secondary to inhalation of dust and mold spores (hundreds of other causes often grouped by occupational exposure); commonly presents w dyspnea, cough, fatigue, and weight loss; imaging shows interstitial inflammation and fibrosis of the lung

69
Q

S2 heart sound in association with heart dysfunction

A

poorly controlled HTN pt presents w progressive dyspnea and cxr shows pulmonary edema; long standing HTN leads to LV hypertrophy due to chronic increase in after load leading to a diastolic dysfunction

70
Q

Prevention of STI related infections

A

discuss proper condom use

71
Q

Prevention of STI related infections

A

discuss proper condom use

72
Q
A

Renal cell carcinoma; adenocarcinoma of the tubular epithelial cells; a primarily malignancy that occurs in older male smokers; presents as gross hematuria, flank pain, weight loss or fever; labs may show polycythemia or hypercalcemia as result of paraneoplastic syndrome of EPO and PTHrp; well-circumscribed, centered on the renal cortex and if large may distort kidney contour; brain is frequent site of metastasis (hematogenous)

73
Q

Trichophyton rubrum

A

dermatophyte that causes superficial fungal infections; common sires of involvement include scalp, trunk, nails, groin and feet microscopic scrapings with KOH show branching septet hyphae; commonly treated w topical azole antifungals that inhibit the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol in the cell wall by 14-alpha demethylase

74
Q

Candida vulvovaginitis

A

involves the overgrowth of normal vaginal Candida flora; symptoms of pruritus, erythema and white discharge; tx w intravaginal agents such as clotrimazole, miconazole, or nystatin or oral fluconazole

75
Q

A male newborn has multiple dysmorphic features suggestive of Down syndrome. Chromosomal analysis is ordered. Which of the following choices is most appropriate regarding what the parents should be told?

A

“The newborn has some features of Down syndrome, and chromosomal analysis has been requested”

Physicians should address objective findings by explaining their differential diagnosis and next diagnostic steps in simple language.

76
Q

organs affected in a pt w decreased activity of steroid 5-alpha reductase 2?

A

steroid 5-alpha reductase 2 is an enzyme that catalyzes the metabolism of testosterone to DHT; individuals w this deficiency exhibit decreased concentrations of DHT and impaired development of the male urogenital tract; affected pts may appears phenotypically female or have ambiguous external genitalia - undescended testes and *prostate hypoplasia

77
Q

Obstructive uropathy

A

can occur in ureter, bladder or urethra; causes distended bladder b/l hydronephrosis and AKI; leads to defects in urinary acidification resulting in metabolic acidosis

78
Q

Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions (AHTR)

A

most often occur due to ABO incompatibility which occurs when pt receives inappropriately types blood and crossed transfusion products; pts will present w fever, flank pain, chills, hypotension and dark urine within an hour of the start of the transfusions; d/c the transfusion

79
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

AD condition that is caused by trinucleotide repeat expansion; successive generations typically have an increased number of repeats, resulting in earlier and more severe disease (anticipation); in children cognitive/behavioral issues may be the initial findings before development of muscle weakness and myotonia; can also see nonmuscular involvement such as frontal hair loss, *cataracts and insulin resistance

80
Q

55 yr old w severe vaginal pain and itching during intercourse; here is the vaginal smear.

A

Candida albicans

81
Q

x moves to which location during exercise?

A

to H

82
Q

relationship among these three agents

A

Drug X is more potent than drugs Y or Z

83
Q

red bumps on the skin looks like “goosebumps”

A

Keratosis pilaris

84
Q

Park At Venture Avenue

A

cardiac action potential is the slowest in the AV node and fastest in the Purkinje system; note that speed of atrial muscle is higher than the ventricular muscle

85
Q

Paget disease of bone

A

Paget disease of bone is characterized by excessive and disordered bone formation; commonly involves the skull (ex: HA), spine (ex: radiculopathy, spinal stenosis) or long bones (bone pain); long-term complications of Paget disease include fracture, hearing loss and malignant transformation leading to osteosarcoma

86
Q

Globus sensation

A

is the feeling of a “lump in the throat” w/o accompanying physical, endoscopic, or radiologic findings of esophageal obstruction

87
Q

Oseltamivir

A

Oseltamivir is an inhibitor of the neuraminidases of influenza A and influenza B viruses; prevents the release of newly formed viral particles

88
Q

Protein synthesis

A

many proteins are synthesized as a large precursor polypeptides containing the active protein sequence in addition to signaling sequences and protective sequences; removal of these nonfunctional polypeptide sequence (post translational) is accomplished by specific end-proteases and yields a smaller functional protein

89
Q

bronchial smooth muscle relaxation

A

activation of the M3 receptors in the lung by Ach leads to bronchial smooth muscle constriction; atropine competitively inhibits muscarinic receptors on bronchial smooth muscle, leading to smooth muscle relaxation

90
Q

Elderly and benzodiazepines

A

slower benzodiazepine metabolism and elimination in the elderly increase the liklihood of adverse effects such as confusion, anterograde amnesia, ataxia and falls

91
Q

Anticholinergic toxicity

A

anticholinergic intoxication causes fever, dry skin and mucous membranes, flushing, blurred vision, and altered mental status; Jimson weed is a drug of abuse that can cause anticholinergic toxicity

92
Q

diabetic foot

A

individuals w DM should inspect their feet daily for signs of trauma or infection

93
Q

Molluscum contagiosum

A

characterized by umbilicated flesh-colored papules on the skin and mucous membranes; caused by a poxvirus which appears in pathologic specimens as eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions (molluscum bodies)

94
Q
A

characterized by umbilicated flesh-colored papules on the skin and mucous membranes; caused by a poxvirus which appears in pathologic specimens as eosinophilic cytoplasmic inclusions (molluscum bodies)

95
Q

Posterior knee dislocation

A

the popliteal artery runs just posterior to the knee joint and is rigidly fixed proximally and distally by the adductor magnus and soles muscles, respectively making it highly susceptible to injury during tibiofemoral dislocation; injury is a primary concern in posterior knee dislocation due to the potential for LE ischemia-related complications

96
Q

key defense mechanisms

A
97
Q

Sublimation

A

mature defense mechanism in which a person channels unacceptable thoughts and impulses into socially acceptable behavior

98
Q

paralysis of the serrates anterior muscle

A

injury to the long thoracic nerve along the lateral chest wall my occur due to penetrating trauma or a surgical procedure (ex: axillary lymph node dissection); damage to this nerve causes inability to raise arm above the head and protrusion or winging of the medial border of the scapula when the outstretched arm is pushed forward against resistance

99
Q

Schizophreniform disorder

A

psychotic disorders share signs and symptoms but differ in duration; brief psychotic disorder lasts <1 month; Schizophreniform disorders lasts >1 month and <6 months; a dx of schizophrenia requires a duration of at least 6 months

100
Q

DSM-5 psychotic disorders

A
101
Q

False positive rate (FPR)

A

this is not the same as FP!!
FPR = 1- specificity

102
Q

Acute intermittent porphyria

A

acute intermittent porphyria is caused by deficiency of porphobilinogen deaminase and is characterized by intermittent episodes of abdominal pain w neurological manifestations following exposure to an offending medication; urine from pts during attacks will classically darken when exposed to sunlight; skin photosensitivity is characteristically absent

103
Q

Subacute combine degeneration

A

Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency can cause SCD of the spinal cord due to impaired myelination in the dorsal columns (diminished tactile/vibratory sensation) and lateral corticospinal tracts (hyperreflexia, Babinski)

104
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

MG is an autoimmune disease that affects the postsynaptic Ach receptors on NMJ and presents w fatiguable MSK weakness (comply the eyes); thymus abnormalities are extremely common in pts w MG; pts often improve w thymectomy

105
Q

Knudson’s 2-hit hypothesis

A

Retinoblastoma is a childhood tumor that results from separate mutagenic events that inactivate both copies of the RB1 tumor suppressor gene; gremlin mut is one the RB1 gene cause “hereditary” retinoblastoma, which is associated w the development of other primary tumors (ex: osteosarcoma)

106
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

A

results from failed development of the 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches; a hypo plastic or absent thymus results in recurrent Candida infections (thrush) due to impaired cell-mediated immunity; flow cytometry show low CD3+ fraction but normal CD20+ fraction

107
Q

Phenoxybenzamine

A

Surgical resection of a pheochromocytoma can trigger preoperative HTN crisis due to the release of catecholamines; this can be prevented w alpha-adrenergic blockers (phenoxybenzamine); beta blockers are typically added after alpha blockers because unopposed alpha adrenergic stimulation can cause severe vasoconstriction and HTN crisis

108
Q

neonatal intraventricular hemorrhage

A

premature infants are at high risk of intraventricular hemorrhage due to germinal metric fragility; the germinal matrix is dense, highly cellular, vascularized layer of the brain that starts disappearing at 28 wks gestation and fully involutes by term; hemorrhage and clots may extend into the ventricular system and cause altered mental status

109
Q

Cisplatin

A

the MOST ototoxic chemo agent; thought to damage hair cells in the cochlear membranous labyrinth

110
Q

Amiodarone-induced interstitial pneumonitis

A

presents w progressive dyspnea, nonproductive cough, fever and patchy interstitial infiltration; condition is usually reversible;e w a reduction in dose or discontinuation of the drug

111
Q

keratinizing invasive squamous cell carcinoma

A

cervical lymphadenopathy may be presenting symptoms of the head and neck SCC, which originates from the mucosa of the upper GI tract

112
Q

Allelic heterogeneity

A

different mutations in the same genetic locus causes similar phenotypes; heterogeneity of disease may be explained by the fact that some mutation cause complete loss of protein while others only cause partial loss

113
Q

cysteinyl-containing leukotrienes

A

inspiration of high volumes of cold and dry air can trigger an inflammatory response similar to atopic asthma; mast cells and eosinophils release cysteinyl-containing leukotrienes (leukotriene C4, D4, and E4) that trigger bronchospasm, bronchial mucus secretion and bronchial edema

114
Q

bacterial antibiotic efflux pumps

A

common cause of drug or multi drug resistance; they actively transport antibiotics out of the bacteria into the external environment using ATP, sodium gradients or proton electrochemical gradients for energy

115
Q

Achondroplasia

A

caused by a GOF point mut of the fibroblast growth factor receptor 3 (FGFR3) gene and presents w proximal limb shortening w resultant short stature, mid face hypoplasia and frontal bossing

116
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

caused by a defect in the BTK gene on the X chromosome which results in defective Bruton tyrosine kinase signaling within CD19+ B cells; impaired B-cell maturation leads to low serum immunoglobulins and recurrent infections

117
Q

allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation resulting in a functioning donor hematopoietic stem cell

A

when a pt receives a bone marrow transplant, the donor stem cells engraft in the bone marrow and produce all the hematopoietic cells for the recipient; the recipient’s peripheral blood cells will be genetically different from the rest of the body’s cells; when the sex of the recipient and donor differ, peripheral blood cells will have sex chromosomes that do not match the pts birth sex

118
Q

Insulin synthesis and secretion

A

proteins destined for the rough ER possess hydrophobic N-terminal peptide signal sequences that identify them as such; removal of these signal sequences would cause inappropriate protein accumulation in the cytosol

119
Q

Sertoli cells

A

Androgen-binding protein is synthesized by the Sertoli cells of the seminiferous epithelium and secreted into the seminiferous tubule lumen; ABP maintains the high local concentration of testosterone necessary for normal sperm production and maturation

120
Q

round ligament of the uterus

A

the round ligament of the uterus is a vestige of the gubernaculum; it projects from the uterus, travels through the inguinal canal and attaches to the labia majora

121
Q

arterial blood gas in PE

A

sudden-onset SOB and chest pain in combination w unilateral leg swelling are strongly suggestive of PE; PE causes hypoxemia due to increased dead-space ventilation w worsening V/Q mismatch; hyperventilation leads to hypocapnia w respiratory alkalosis (increased pH, decreased PaCO2) which is the typical presentation of acute PE