MSK & Sports Flashcards

1
Q

Valgus of the knee

A

“knock kneed” and lower leg is abducted; can arise from MCL tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Varus of the knee

A

“bow legged” and lower leg is adducted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ACL injury

A

anterior cruciate ligament; most commonly injured knee ligament; often a NONCONTACT athletic injury (running/jumping); classical senses a “pop” in knee

test for anterior drawer sign; resists anterior draw of the tibia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PCL injury

A

posterior cruciate ligament; often from trauma (force directed posteriorly at knee); classic cause “dashboard injury” where the knee goes into the dashboard in a MVC; test w the posterior drawer sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

MCL injury

A

medial collateral ligament; damaged by valgus stress; can be due to contact or non-contact; presents as an abnormal passive abduction; force from lateral side - push knee medial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Unhappy triad

A

injury common in contact sports; lateral force applied to a planted foot

ACL, MCL and medial meniscal tear

*more commonly the lateral meniscus in modern studies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

LCL injury

A

lateral collateral ligament; very rare because you would have to get in-between the legs and apply medial force; presents as abnormal passive adduction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

McMurray test

A

test for the meniscus tear; pt is supine with flexed (bent) knee and examiner coating the foot

internal rotation test for lateral meniscus (foot toward midline)

external rotation test for medial meniscus (foot away from midline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Prepatellar Bursitis

A

inflammation of the pre patellar bursa; often caused by repeated kneeling “housemaid’s knee”; pain w activity; there will be swelling anterior to patella and warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Baker’s cyst

A

Popliteal cyst (behind the knee); popliteal fluid collection in gastrocnemius-semimembranous bursa commonly communicating w synovial space and related to chronic joint disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Osgood-Schlatter Disease

A

tibial tuberosity avulsion; occurs in children; pain and swelling at tibial tubercle from overuse

*secondary ossification center of tibia; child that presents w pain and swelling just below the kneecaps; it is self limited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Patellar fracture

A

results from trauma to knee; swollen and painful knee that *cannot extend against gravity
dx w x-ray

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

3 bones that makeup the shoulder joint

A

scapula, clavicle and humerus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Rotator cuff

A

4 muscles: SItS (small “t” is for teres minor)

Supraspinatus (suprascapular n.) - most commonly injuried (impingement of tendon); “swimmers” and “throwers” assessed by “empty/full can” test

Infraspinatus (suprasca pular n) - pitching injury

teres minor (axillary n) - adducts and laterally rotates arm

Subscapularis (upper and lower subscapular n) - adducts and medially rotates arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Empty/Full can test

A

Supraspinatus (suprascapular n.) - most commonly injuried (impingement of tendon); “swimmers” and “throwers” assessed by “empty/full can” test

Supraspinatus m initiates abduction for the first 15 degree but the main mover is the deltoid m (axillary n) that moves the shoulder up to 90degress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Shoulder dislocation

A

trauma; anterior dislocation of the humeral head; commonly from getting tackled while throwing a football

axillary n injury (loss of sensation of the deltoid and weak abduction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Humerus fracture

A

common in elderly falls; often occurs in the PROXIMAL humerus; blood supply from the axillary artery and disruption may lead to avascular necrosis of head; axillary n injury leads to loss of arm abduction (deltoid m)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Lateral epicondylitis

A

tennis elbow; tenderness of lateral epicondyle and proximal wrist *extensors; elbow pain w resisted wrist extension

repetitive extension due to “backhand shots”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Medial epicondylitis

A

golfer’s elbow; tenderness of medial epicondyle; pain w resisted wrist *flexion

repetitive flexion due to “forehand shots”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Nursemaid’s Elbow

A

radial head subluxation; partial dislocation caused by “axial traction” on a pronated forearm (arm is pulled when extended at elbow)

*annular ligament slips over head of radius (trapped in radiohumeral joint)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Supracondylar Fracture

A

most common pediatric elbow fracture (fall on outstretched arm); brachial artery may be injured and median nerve (travel together); often both are injured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Axillary nerve lesion

A

deltoid m (abduction 15-90 degrees); sensation to area over the deltoid; proximal humerus fracture (elderly falls) or dislocated shoulder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Radial nerve lesion

A

extensors to arm, wrist and fingers; triceps m (weakness w high up injury); “wrist drop” and sensory loss on back of hand; “Saturday night palsy” and crutches

*runs in spiral/radial groove - vulnerable to compression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Musculocutaneous nerve

A

lateral cord of brachial plexus (C5, C6 and C7); innervates the biceps and provides sensation to lateral forearm; lesions here are rare

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Upper trunk lesion

A

Erb’s palsy or Upper plexus injury (C5-C6); caused by excessive angle at neck/shoulder; classic cause is *birth trauma - shoulder dystocia

arm is straight at side; internally rotates (hand facing out) “waiter’s tip”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Lower trunk lesion

A

Klumpke palsy or Lower plexus injury (C8-T1); caused by excessive abduction of arm; classic cause is catching a tree branch while falling

affects the ulnar and median nerves; results in “clawed hand”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Thoracic Outlet Syndrome

A

compression of nerves/vessels leaving thorax; occurs above 1st rib and behind clavicle “thoracic outlet”

Causes: cervical rib - an extra rib from the 7th cervical vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Long Thoracic Nerve lesion

A

innervates serrates anterior muscle and presents w winging of scapula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Scaphoid bone injury

A

most commonly fractured carpal bone; palpable in anatomic snuff box; classically from FOOSH injury (falling on out-stretched hand); complications: avascular necrosis and nonunion (failure to heal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Lunate bone injury

A

caused by trauma or fall; attached to radius; presents w a wrist is painful or swollen; can lead to carpal tunnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

carpal tunnel syndrome

A

transverse carpal ligament (flexor retinaculum) carpal bones are inferior along with the *median nerve

motor loss to thumb side and sensory loss on thumb side (thenar eminence and lateral 3 1/2 fingers)

hallmark: pain or paresthesia over median n distribution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

carpal tunnel and acromegaly

A

GH excess in adults; enlarged jaw and coarse facial features; enlarged hands and feet (rings that no longer fit); 1/3 have carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Dialysis-related amyloidosis

A

amyloid deposits from B2 microglobulin (MHC I); complications of renal failure; dialysis does not effectively remove the B2 micro globulin and it deposits in bones, joints and tendons; can cause carpal tunnel syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Guyon’s canal

A

ulnar canal; ABOVE the transverse carpal ligament (median n is below) passage of the ulnar nerve via the hook of the hamate (hamate bone injury); loss of abduction/adduction (interossei), motor/sensory loss of little finger (hypothenar muscles)

overuse of the wrist; commonly reported in bicyclists (direct pressure from handlebars)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Greenstick Fracture

A

pediatric fracture; bent bone from a fracture; fracture *does not extend through width of the bone; there is a bending force (from side) applied to bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Torus fracture

A

pediatric fracture; “buckle fracture” caused by axial force trauma; occurs in distal metaphysis (most porous bone)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lumbricals

A

originate from tendons of the *flexor digitorum profundus; flex MCP and extend IP (form L shape of hand); lesion takes form of claw fingers - partial based on which nerve is injuried

medial two lumbricals: ulnar n
lateral two lumbirical: median n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Flexor carpi radialis innervation

A

innervated by median nerve (a major flexor of the wrist) the flexor carpi ulnaris (ulnar n)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Median nerve lesions

A

“pope’s blessing” also called Hand of Benediction; ask pt to make a fist and thumb and lateral fingers cannot

at rest “ape hand”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Recurrent branch of the median nerve

A

motor innervation to thenar muscles (NO sensory); covers carpal tunnel and can be injured in *superficial laceration; immobilizes the thumb but sensation is NORMAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

iliohypogastric nerve

A

T12-L1; motor innervation to internal oblique and transversus abdominis and sensory to suprepubic region (below umbilicus and above pubic bone)

commonly injured in abdominal/pelvic surgery; radiates to suprapubic area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Genitofemoral nerve

A

L1-L2 provides motor innervation to cremasteric muscle (covers testis and spermatic cord)

genital branch - skin anterior scotum (males) and skin over mons pubis and labia majora (female)

femoral branch - skin upper anterior thigh

presents: absent cremasteric reflex (stroke inner thigh and scotum rises on I/p side); decreased sensation of anterior thigh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve

A

pure sensory from L2-L3; courses inguinal ligament into thigh; compressed by tight clothing, obesity, and pregnancy

*meralgia paresthetica

44
Q

Obturator nerve

A

“to close” closes (adducts) thigh - thigh adductors; sensory of medial thigh; injured in pelvic surgery (trocar - surgical instrument)

45
Q

saphenous vein stripping

A

used in CABG; may injury saphenous nerve in the process and cause numbness lower leg

46
Q

Femoral nerve block

A

NAVL lateral to medial
nerve, artery, vein and lymph

47
Q

Sciatic nerve

A

L4-S3 largeness nerve in the body; branches into the common perineal and tibial

48
Q

Deep fibular nerve

A

dorsiflexion of the foot (toes upward)

49
Q

Common Peroneal nerve lesion

A

wraps around fibula below knee; injured by prolonged lying (bed rest), leg casts or fibular neck fractures; symptoms of foot drop (weak dorsiflexion)

50
Q

Tibial nerve

A

travels under medial malleous; sensory innervation to heel/sole; can be causes by tarsal tunnel narrowing

51
Q

Pudenal nerve

A

S2-S4 nerve to supply the genital area; sensory to penis, clitoris and skin of perineum; often injured from stretching in *vaginal childbirth

can lead to fecal/urinary incontinence

52
Q

Herniated disc

A

most common cause of radiculopathy (compression of nerve root); occurs posteriorly due to weakness in the posterior longitudinal ligament; degeneration of the annulus fibrosis and bulging of the nucleus pulposus leading to unilateral nerve compression

53
Q

Spinal stenosis

A

narrowing of the spinal canal that leads to nerve root compression; facet joint arthritis can cause bone spurs; the *ligament flavor hypertrophies

standing straight narrows the lumbar canal = symptoms worse (pts prefer to be bent forward)

*neurogenic claudication (leg pain w walking)

54
Q

Sciatica

A

lower back pain radiating along sciatic nerve (low back - buttocks - back of thigh); commonly caused by *herniated disk

Straight leg test

55
Q

nerve root L5 radiculopathy

A

most common; herniated disc at L4/L5; pain down Lateral leg (“L” in L5 stands for “lateral” leg); presents w weak foot dorsiflexion (difficulty walking on heels)

56
Q

Iliopsoas muscle

A

major hip flexor (want to remember)

57
Q

Major hip extensors

A

Gluteus maximus and hamstrings

58
Q

Superior gluteal nerve injury

A

L4-S1 innervates gluteus minimus/medius which are the major hip abductors; often injured in intramuscular injections to buttocks (want to inject upper/outer quadrants to avoid injury); classic findings are Trendelenburg sign (pelvis tilts w walking)

59
Q

Avascular necrosis

A

common at the femoral head; groin pain the most common complaint; often caused by trauma to femoral neck fracture; *medial circumflex artery

non-traumatic causes: steroid therapy (mechanism not well understood) look for lupus pts

60
Q

Legg-Calve-Perthese Disease

A

idiopathic avascular necrosis that is the common in children (4-8 yrs); abnormal blood flow to femoral head; presents as hip pain and limping

61
Q

Mitochondrial encephalomyopathy

A

characterized by ragged red fibers on muscle biopsy and a maternal inheritance pattern; *heteroplasmy or proportion of mitochondria w normal and mutant genomes will cause different presentations in affect family members

62
Q

3rd pharyngeal pouch

A

thymus and inferior parathyroid glands arise from here; MG is associated w abnormalities of the thymus

63
Q

Adalimumab

A

a recombinant human IgG that binds TNF-alpha; anti drug autoantibodies can develop against it that can block its integration w TNF-alpha preventing the drug from functioning and leading to more rapid drug clearance

64
Q

TNF-alpha inhibitors and latent TB

A

TNF-alpha inhibitors impair cell-mediated immunity; all pts beginning tx should be evaluated for latent TB

65
Q

IgA vasculitis (Henoch-Schonlein purpura)

A

an IgA-mediated small vessel vasculitis that manifests w palpable purpura on the LE, abdominal pain, arthralgia/arthritis and renal disease; renal involvement is primarily due to IgA deposition in the mesangium

66
Q

Spondylolysis due to pars interarticularis fracture

A

fracture of the posterior vertebral arch often occurs at the pars interarticularis; b/l disruption of the pars interarticularis can lead to anterior displacement of the vertebral body

67
Q

Myostitis ossificans

A

characterized by the formation of lamellar bone in extra skeletal tissues; often triggered by trauma; presents as a painful, firm, mobile mass within muscle; histology shows benign metaplastic bone and proliferating fibroblasts w/o mitotic atypia

68
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome

A

characterized by the triad: fibrous dysplasia of the bone, endocrine abnormalities, and cafe-au-lait spots; condition results from an activating mut in the G protein/cAMP/AC pathway

69
Q

Paget disease of bone

A

bone pain and elevated alkaline phosphatase level in elderly pt can occur w osteoclast metastases and Paget disease of bone; biopsy showing mosaic pattern of lamellar bone is diagnostic for PDB; initial phase is characterized by an increase in osteoclastic activity

70
Q
A

osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumor in children and young adults and typically arises near the metaphases of long bones causing progressive pain and soft tissue swelling X-ray reveals lytic and sclerotic bone lesion and histo shows malignant tumor cells that produce neoplastic osteoid and mineralized bone

71
Q

Giant cell arteritis

A

characterized by granulomatous inflammation of the media and fragmentation of the internal elastic lamina most often affecting the medium and small branches of the carotid artery’s ischemic optic neuropathy w irreversible blindness is a potential complication therefore pts are required immediate glucocorticoid therapy

72
Q

thoracic outlet syndrome question

A

most often caused by compression of the brachial plexus as it passes through the scalene triangle, the space bordered by the anterior and middle scalene muscles and the 1st rib; the presence of a cervical rib is a risk factor

73
Q

Raloxifene: postmenopausal osteoporosis

A

raloxifene has estrogen agonist activity on bone which decreases bone resorption and improves bone density; it has an estrogen antagonist effect on breast tissue, decreasing the risk of breast cancer; also acts as antagonist in uterus and does not increase risk of endometrial cancer

74
Q

Dermatomyositis

A

characterized by proximal muscle weakness resembling polymyositis w additional inflammatory features involving the skin; both dermatomyositis and polymyositis may occur alone or as separate paraneoplastic syndromes associated w an underlying adenocarcinoma (ex; ovary, lung, pancreas)

75
Q

Colchicine

A

used to tx acute gouty arthritis in pts who can’t take NSAIDs; inhibits leukocyte migration and phagocytosis by blocking MTs; side effects of n/v

76
Q

Golgi tendon organ (GTO)

A

the muscle spindle system is a feedback system that monitors and maintains muscle length while the Golgi tendon system is a feedback system that monitors and maintains muscle force; GTOs are sensitive to increases in muscle tension but are relatively insensitive to passive stretch

77
Q

medications for osteoporosis

A

bisphosphonates inhibit osteoclast-mediated bone resorption; decrease osteoclast recruitment and induce osteoclast apoptosis

78
Q

Enthesitis

A

inflammation at the bony insertions of tendons, ligaments and joint capsules; syndromes include achilles tendinitis, plantar fasciitis and dactylitis

79
Q

osteopetrosis

A

defective osteoclast activity leading to increased bone density; infantile form mut in carbonic anhydrase type II (makes acid) - presents w renal tubular acidosis, seizures and intellectual disease

bones prone to break; excess bone in medullary cavity leads to loss of bone marrow = pancytopenia; excess bone in skull leads to compression of cranial nerves

curable w bone marrow transplant

80
Q

Rickets

A

low calcium or Vitamin D intake leading to poor mineralization of osteoid; in children the growth
plate thickens

Labs: low Ca2+, low VitD, high PTH, low Phosphate and high bone alk phos (increased osteoblast activity)

tx w Vitamin D and Ca2+ supplementation

81
Q

Vitamin D

A

Liver 25-OH VitD (calciDIol); Kidney: 1,25-OH VitD (calciTRIol; active form)

serum 25-OH VitD best indicator for VitD status

82
Q

Paget’s disease

A

Osteitis deformans; focal disorder in the elderly (70 yrs) typically affecting just a single bone; excessive bone remodeling due to abnormal osteoblasts

1st stage: osteolytic phase - osteoclasts breakdown bone and you get this bizarre shape

2nd stage: mixed phase - osteolytic/osteoblastic

3rd stage: osteosclerotic phase - bone formation dominates and *hypervascularity of bone occurs

Complications: high output HF due to AV fistula in new bone

83
Q
A

hallmark of Paget’s disease; mosaic pattern of lamellar bone; cement lines

84
Q

Chalkstick fracture

A

classically seen in Paget’s disease

85
Q

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

A

classic bone dz of hyperparathyroidism; clinical features of bone pain and fractures

Labs: increased PTH, increased Ca2+ and decreased phosphate

X-rays finding: subperiosteal bone resorption and brown tumors

86
Q

bone pain/fractures cheat sheet

A

Dual-energy X-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of -2.5 or lower is diagnostic for osteoporosis; recommended screening for women over 65 yrs

87
Q

Menopause

A

estrogen deficiency; estrogen suppresses osteoclast activity, but when def leads to increased RANK-L and decreased osteoprotegrin by osteoblast leading to increased osteoclastic activity = osteoporosis

LABS will be NORMAL - Ca2+, PTH and alk phos

88
Q

Glucocorticoid therapy on osteoporosis

A

increase bone resorption and reduces bone formation by suppressing OPG; pts are at increased risk osteoporosis

89
Q

Anticonvulsants on osteoporosis

A

Phenobarbital, Phenytoin and Carbamzepine; all used to tx seizures/epilepsy; increased risk of osteoporosis w long term use; increase activity of P450 enzymes

90
Q

Thyroid replacement on osteoporosis

A

hyperthyroidism leads to osteoporosis/fractures and pts w hypothyroidism being tx w levothyroxine (T4) at a too high of a dose can leads to osteoporosis and doe would need to be adjusted; if TSH is low (suppressed) need to lower the dosage

91
Q

1st line therapy for osteoporosis

A

the “dronate” - Bisphosphonates
Alendronate, Pamidronate, Ibandronate and Zoledronate

all analogs of pyrophosphate (used to make nucleotides in purine synthesis ex: PRPP)

MOA: binds Ca2+ which accumulates in bone and is taken up by osteoclasts (inhibits it)

92
Q

Jaw osteonecrosis

A

avascular necrosis of the jaw; typically an adverse effect of bisphosphonates used in tx of osteoporosis; may lead to exposed bone or local infection

93
Q

Teriparatide

A

recombinant PTH; continuous admin of PTH leads to increased osteoblast formation (mechanism is unknown); can lead to brief rise in serum Ca2+ and theoretical risk of osteosarcoma (not proven)

94
Q

Raloxifene

A

a SERM that has agonist estrogen effects on bone and anti-estrogen effects on breast/uterus; may cause hot flashes and is associated DVT/PE

95
Q

Calcitonin

A

hormone produced by parafollicular cells (c-cells) binds osteoclasts inhibits bone resorption; salmon calcitonin is used in tx

96
Q

Denosumab

A

monoclonal RANK-L antibody; blocks osteoblast activation of osteoclasts

97
Q

Bone metastasis

A

osteoclastic lesions: multiple myeloma - classice osteolytic disease

osteoblastic lesions: prostate cancer - classic osteoblastic lesion

98
Q

Osteoid osteoma

A

benign tumor of bone that typically occurs in the “appendicular skeleton” presents as bone pain at night; responsive to aspirin

osteoblastomas are larger and does NOT respond to NSAIDs

99
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

malignant bone tumor of osteoblasts; histo- irregular osteoid formation

painful and enlarging mass on bone; typically occurs in metaphysics of long bone

X-ray: Codman triangle (tumor breaks through cortex) and Sunburst/Sunray sign (tiny bone fibers in periosteum)

Risk factor: *prior radiation and increased risk w Rb

Tx: surgery is not enough! ALWAYS add chemo

100
Q

Ewing sarcoma

A

malignant bone tumor of *neuroectoderm cells; occurs in diaphysis (shaft) of long bones; bone cultures and tumor aspiration = sterile (unlike osteomyelitis)

genetic translocation of chr 11 and 22

X-ray: onion skin
Histo: sheets of small round cells (primitive neuroectoderm cells)

101
Q

Giant cell tumor

A

osteoclastoma; multi-nucleated giant osteoclasts; bone resorption tumor; usually benign but locally aggressive; occurs in epiphysis

102
Q

jersey finger

A

the flexor digitorum profundus tendon inserts onto the base of the distal phalanx and flexes the DIP joint; it is susceptible to rupture when an actively flexed DIP joint is forcefully hyperextended

103
Q

parvovirus (B19) arthritis

A

Parvovirus B19 causes erythema infectious (fifth disease) in children and arthritis in adults; parvovirus arthritis can mimic rheumatoid arthritis but is usually self-resolving

104
Q

lumbosacral radiculopathy

A

sciatica is a nonspecific term for back pain that radiates down the leg due to compression of the lumbosacral nerve roots; the S1 nerve root is commonly involved resulting in pain/sensory loss down the posterior thigh and calf to the lateral aspect of the foot; pts may also have weakness in thigh extension, knee flexion and foot plantar flexion w an absent Achilles reflex

105
Q

radial neuropathy

A

injury of the radial nerve at the supinator muscle may occur due to repetitive pronation/supination of the forearm, direct trauma, or subluxation of the radius; pts typically have weakness during finger and thumb extension w/o wrist drop or sensory deficits

106
Q

midshaft humeral fracture

A

the deep brachial (profunda brachii) artery and radial nerve run together along the posterior aspect of the humerus; midshaft fractures of the humerus risk injury to these structures