COMLEX Flashcards

1
Q

tetralogy of fallot example (ToF)

A

presentation: cyanotic episodes (tet spells) or symptoms of HF (failure to thrive)
diagnosis: “boot-shaped heart” on CXR

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2
Q

Patient Self-Determination Act

A
  1. Inform pt of their right to be involved in medical decisions
  2. inform pts of their right to create and execute an advance directive
  3. Ask pts whether they have an advance directive
  4. Document the pts advance directives in their medical records
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3
Q

Viscerosomatics for thyroid

A

T1-4; these are also reflective of heart, upper esophagus, upper lung and head and neck pathologies

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4
Q

SSRIs

A

Fluoxetine
Fluvoxamine
Paroxetine
Sertraline
Citalopram
Escitalopram

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5
Q

multiple sclerosis

A

relapsing and remitting course of signs/symptoms including sensory disturbances in limbs/face, unilateral vision loss, acute motor weakness, diplopia and monocular visual loss w blurring; classic diagnostic feature is MRI w presence of *periventricular plaques (Dawson fingers)

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6
Q

Medicare and medicaid

A
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7
Q

MOAi contraindications

A

monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MOAi) such as phenelzine irreversibly blocks monoamines (serotonin, NE and dopamine) from degradation; when interacts w tyramine (contains high levels of wine and cheese) increased the end-organ damage (papilledema)

Wine and cheese MUST be avoided w this medication

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8
Q

Schistosomiasis

A

Schistosoma hematobium lives in freshwater snails; ppl become infected mostly by swimming in lakes in developing nations; eosinophilia, hematuria, and lower abdominal pain (bladder); Praziquantel is the drug of choice, affects the permeability of the membrane

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9
Q

ACL tear

A

anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) commonly occurs in athletes who sustain twisting to hyper-extension of the knee; hear a “pop”; originates at the *posterior aspect of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts at the anterior-medial aspect of the tibial plateau

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10
Q

pancreatic cancer

A

presents w epigastric pain radiating to the back, left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy and weight loss; both carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) and CA19-9 antigens are most likely elevated; a CT scan will show a pancreatic mass

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11
Q

Viscerosomatics of diverticulitis

A

T12-L2

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12
Q

dependent personality disorder tx

A

1st line tx is psychotherapy; medications may be added for pts w severe dysregulation

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13
Q

Onchocerciasis

A

infections caused by Onchocerca volvulus; a parasite transmitted by the black fly which is found in African, Yemen and parts of South America; presents a pruritus, skin atrophy and subcutaneous nodules as well as eye pain, inflammation and progressive vision loss (river blindness); tx of choice is ivermectin an anti-parasitic agent that induces neuromuscular paralysis in the parasite by inhibiting GABA receptors

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14
Q

plan-do-study-act (PDSA) cycle

A

a quality improvement model used concurrently to analyze the success or failure of interventions

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15
Q

root-cause analysis

A

when a medical error occurs, the 1st step in this investigation is to interview all the people involved in the error

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16
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBC)

A

PBC is an autoimmune disorder characterized by T-cell mediated destruction of small interlobular bile ducts which leads to cholestasis and eventually hepatic cirrhosis and liver failure; anti-mitochondrial antibodies are elevated (serologic hallmark); also associated w CREST syndrome

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17
Q

Autoimmune diseases affecting the liver

A
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18
Q

Phase 1 clinical trial

A

examine dosing and safety in a small group of healthy subjects

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19
Q

PPV

A

PPV depends on the prevalence of the disease within the population; a pt w a (+) screening test is more likely to actually have the disease if the pt belongs to a population w a high disease prevalence

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20
Q

exhalation rib dysfunction

A

named for where it likes to go: exhalation rib dysfunction of ribs 3-5 on the R; BITE = tx the top rib by asking the pt to isometrically contract his pectoralis minor muscle during inhalation

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21
Q

DiGeorge syndrome

A

abnormal 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouch development plays a key role in DiGeorge syndrome

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22
Q

papillary thyroid carcinoma

A

most common thyroid malignancy which typically presents as a thyroid nodule, microscopic evaluation will show hollow, large nuclei w a clear center known as “ground-glass” nuclei as well as psammoma bodies (laminar, calcific, rounded, basophilic lesions)

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23
Q

piriformis syndrome tenderpoint

A

located at the midpoint between the inferior lateral angle (ILA) of the sacrum and the greater trochanter

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24
Q

phase 3 clinical trial

A

used to determine a drug’s non inferiority, equivalence, or superiority to the existing standard-of-care treatment

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25
Q

neonatal hypoglycemia

A

occurs as a result of persistent fetal hyperinsulinemia

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26
Q

LSD ingestion

A

hallucinogen that results in the alteration of sensory perception, mood, and thought patterns; pts will experience heightened perception of sensation, a distorted sense of time, euphoria and *synesthesia - blending of the senses (hearing colors or seeing sound); receptor affected (5-HT2A)

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27
Q

Viscerosomatics of the pancreas

A

T6-10; commonly found in diabetic pts

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28
Q

Niemann-Pick disease type A

A

“No Man Picks his nose w his Sphingers” (sphingomyelinase); deficiency of acid sphingomyelinase

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29
Q

Niemann-Pick vs Tay-Sachs

A
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30
Q

chylothorax

A

milky fluid withdrawn during a thoracentesis is indicative for chylothorax or the presence of increased triglycerides within the pleural space; caused by leakage of lymphatic fluid from the thoracic duct; most commonly due to lymphoma or trauma caused by thoracic surgery

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31
Q

schizotypal personality disorder tx

A

1st line tx is psychotherapy; this can improve trust, interpersonal functioning and adherence to tx

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32
Q

primary disease prevention

A

includes measures that reduce disease incidence; vaccinations, wearing sunscreen and using condoms

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33
Q

corneal reflex

A
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34
Q

Quadriceps (Q) angle

A

increased Q angle - genu valgum

decreased Q angle - genu varum

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35
Q

Nephrolithiasis

A

calcium oxalate stones are the most common composition of kidney stones caused by hypercalcemia such as hyperparathyroidism or increased oxalate excretion; appear envelope-shaped as shown in the image

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36
Q

Mobitz type I AV block

A

Wenckebach; a type of second-degree AV block that is characterized by a PR interval that becomes longer before every QRS until a beat is dropped”

“longer, longer, longer, drop; that’s the case w Wenckebach”

usually asymptomatic and no tx is needed

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37
Q

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

A

most common type of leukemia in adults (>60) in the Western world; pts presents w typical “B” symptoms (weight loss, fatigue, fevers and drenching night sweats);

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38
Q

acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

A

most commonly in children and can arise from either B- or T-cel lineages, but B is most common

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39
Q

chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

A

proliferation of myeloid cells; associated w Philadelphia chromosome t9;22 a fusion chromosome that occurs from reciprocal translocation between BCR and ABL genes

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40
Q

hairy cell leukemia (HCL)

A

uncommon; presents in adult males w splenomegaly and cytopenias; B-cells have characteristic hair-like cytoplasmic projections and stain (+) for tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase

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41
Q

Hodgkin lymphoma

A

“Reed-Sternberg cells” would be seen in the involved tissue

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42
Q

PTHrP

A

caused by squamous cell lung carcinoma

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43
Q

viscerosomatics in acute hepatitis

A

warm and boggy paraspinal tissues of T5-9 (upper GI)

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44
Q

methamphetamine intoxication

A

a stimulant that can lead to disphoresis, HTN, tachycardia, severe agitation and psychosis pts may abruptly develop severe agitation and use extreme violence; maladaptive behavior, weight loss, perspiration, labile blood pressure and pupillary dilation can also occur

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45
Q

conditional probability

A

“if.. then what” problem; calculate the fraction of pts who survived the end of the first year (240) and then the end of the second year (180)

180/240=0.75 (75%)

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46
Q

Courvoisier sign

A
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47
Q

Alport syndrome

A

genetic disorder with renal, auditory and ocular manifestations; aka hereditary nephritis; X-linked inheritance defect in type IV collagen, mostly the alpha 3,4,5 subunits

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48
Q

noncompetitive, irreversible antagonist

A

decreases the maximum reaction velocity (Vmax)

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49
Q

McArdle disease

A

deficiency of muscle phosphorylase which is an enzyme responsible for the release of glucose from glycogen stores in muscles; management is oral ingestion of simply carbs, such as sucrose, before exercise

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50
Q

Boarderline personality disorder

A

part of the Cluster B personality disorder; pt is deploying splitting, which is an immature defense mechanism (seeing “all good” or “all bad”) as exemplified by “love of my life” to “worst person ever”

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51
Q

near miss

A

an event that could have had an adverse pt consequence but did not

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52
Q

Chvostek sign

A

facial muscle contractions when tapping the skin overlying the facial nerve; specific for hypocalcemia

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53
Q

trichomonas vaginalis

A

motile protozoan

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54
Q

cross-sectional study

A
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55
Q

battery

A

intentional and unauthorized (without consent) contact

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56
Q

cranial rhythmic impulse (CRI)

A

normal at 10-14 cycles per minute

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57
Q

somatic symptom disorder

A

anxiety about health w significant somatic symptoms without evidence of deception

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58
Q

differential diagnosis of multiple somatic complaints

A
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59
Q

anterior L1 tenderpoint

A

located medial to the anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)

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60
Q

anterior L2 tenderpoint

A

located medial to anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)

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61
Q

anterior L3 tenderpoint

A

located lateral to anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)

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62
Q

anterior L4 tenderpoint

A

located inferior to anterior inferior iliac spine (AIIS)

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63
Q

anterior chapman point for the prostate

A

posterior margin of the iliotibial band

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64
Q

Whipple disease

A

diarrhea, steatorrhea and joint pain caused by Tropheryma whippelii; diagnosed by PAS (+) macrophages within the digestive tract; commonly found in sewage

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65
Q

exhalation somatic dysfunctions of ribs 6-10 on the R with MET

A

encouraging inhalation at rib 6 using the serratus anterior

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66
Q

prospective cohort study

A

ask whether a given risk factor will increase the likelihood of the disease

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67
Q

Edwards syndrome (trisomy 18)

A

VSD is the most common cardiac anomaly

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68
Q

secondary syphillis

A

a rash involving almost always the palms and soles

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69
Q

Thompson test

A

muscles of the posterior leg include the gastrocnemius, soleus, and plantaris are all innervated by the tibial nerve (plantar flexion); distally their tendons form the achilles tendon which can be evaluated for injury by performing the Thomspon test (squeezing the calf of the suspected leg while pt lies prone)

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70
Q

Group B Strep (GBS)

A

Streptococcus agalactiae is a gram (+) cocci that grows in chains; catalase (-), beta-hemolytic and bacitracin resistant

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70
Q

subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)

A

often presents as acute onset of “worst HA of my life”; non-traumatic SAH is commonly due to a ruptured aneurysm; brain CT shows hyper density (white area) in the suprasellar cistern

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70
Q

sacral tenderpoints

A
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70
Q

posterior S5 tenderpoint

A

medial and superior to the inferior lateral angle on each side

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71
Q

Zidovudine

A

a competitive nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) uses in HIV-1 and HIV-2; Zidovudine can cause bone marrow suppression, therefore leading to neutropenia and/or anemia

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72
Q

sacral tenderpoints

A
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72
Q

Zidovudine

A

a competitive nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) uses in HIV-1 and HIV-2; Zidovudine can cause bone marrow suppression, therefore leading to neutropenia and/or anemia

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73
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) associated with CREST syndrome

A
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73
Q

Zidovudine

A

a competitive nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) uses in HIV-1 and HIV-2; Zidovudine can cause bone marrow suppression, therefore leading to neutropenia and/or anemia

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74
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) associated with CREST syndrome

A

PBC is an autoimmune disorder characterized by T-cell mediated destruction of small interlobular bile ducts which leads to cholestasis and eventually hepatic cirrhosis and liver failure; anti-mitochondrial antibodies are elevated (serologic hallmark)

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75
Q

primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) associated with CREST syndrome

A

PBC is an autoimmune disorder characterized by T-cell mediated destruction of small interlobular bile ducts which leads to cholestasis and eventually hepatic cirrhosis and liver failure; anti-mitochondrial antibodies are elevated (serologic hallmark)

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76
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

acute and painless onset of monocular visual loss due to transient retinal ischemia originating from atherosclerotic carotid artery disease; pts describe “visual loss as a dark curtain that falls down over their eye”

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77
Q

sublimation

A

a mature defense mechanism in which socially inappropriate desires are replaced by something more acceptable or productive

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77
Q

Hartnup disease

A

deficiency of tryptophan; precursor to nicotinamide (VitB3) therefore leads to pellagra = 4D’s: dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia and death

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78
Q

automatic implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ACID) placements

A

purpose of a ACID is to monitor the heart for an arrhythmia and to provide an electrical shock to make the heart beat normally again; ACIDs are life-sustaining therapies, however prior to placement physicians should discuss under what circumstances would the pt like the ACID to be deactivated

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79
Q

Clozapine

A

agent used to tx schizophrenia; serotonin 2A and dopamine receptor antagonist; adverse effect of agranulocytosis; MONITOR CBC

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80
Q

rubeola (measles)

A

begins w generalized symptoms (fever, malaise) accompanied by the 3C’s cough, coryza, conjunctivitis; *Koplik spots (small irregular red spots w central gray/white area)

-Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a potential delayed complication 7-10 yrs pot infection

-Encephalitis occurs 1-14 days later
-Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM) occurs within 2 weeks

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81
Q

Adson test

A

the pts radial pulse is palpated, the arm is extended at the elbow and the shoulder is extended, externally rotated and abducted; pts then turn their head to the ipsilateral arm; a (+) test occurs when the pulse significantly decreases or disappears; used in pts suspected in suffering from *thoracic outlet syndrome

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82
Q

Nocardia asteroides

A

a gram (+) weakly acid-fast bacterium found in soil; causes bronchitis, pneumonia, lung abscesses in immunocompromised pts; tx of choice is trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

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83
Q

Tay-Sachs disease (tay-saX)

A

excess storage of the cell membrane glycolipid GM2 ganglioside within cell lysosomes due to a deficiency in B-heXosaminidase A (HeX A)

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84
Q

accountable care organization

A

an integrated group of multi specialty physicians that care for a defined population, coordinating pt-centered care by focusing on a team approach, using the same electronic health record system and following the same evidence-based guidelines and quality incentives

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85
Q

Swiss cheese model of system failure

A

describes errors that occur because of both active and latent failure; when process failure or system error (holes in the cheese) in each protective system process (slice of cheese) line up, an adverse effect reaches the pt; the risk is decreased when multiple systems are layered (like slices of cheese) preventing an error from reaching the pt

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86
Q

Anterior thoracic counterstain tenderpoints

A
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87
Q

T12 anterior tenderpoint

A

located on the inner ala of the ilium in the midaxillary line b/l

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88
Q

T11 anterior tenderpoint

A

located halfway between the umbilicus and pubic symphysis

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89
Q

T10 anterior tenderpoint

A

located 1/4th of the distance from the umbilicus to the pubic symphysis

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90
Q

T9 anterior tenderpoint

A

located 1/3 of the distance from the tip of the typhoid to the umbilicus

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91
Q

treatment for serotonin syndrome

A

cyproheptadine which antagonizes serotonin receptors; serotonin syndrome characterized by a triad: cognitive impairment, autonomic instability and somatic effects

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92
Q

Homan test

A

a (+) Homan sign is present when there is calf pain upon forceful and abrupt dorsiflexion of the foot at the ankle while the knee is extended; used to evaluate the presence of a lower extremity DVT

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93
Q

pyridostigmine

A

medication of choice for myasthenia gravis; can cause bronchoconstriction and exacerbate asthma and reactive airway disease

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94
Q

cranial vault hold

A

thumbs: rest above the surface of the cranium
index: greater wings of the sphenoid
middle fingers: pre-auricular
ring fingers: mastoid process
pinky: squamous portion of the occiput

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95
Q

parental refusal of essential treatment for a minor

A

if parents refuse essential, but not emergent treatment for their child, the physician should pursue a court order to allow for tx of the child against the parents wishes

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96
Q

inhalation anthrax

A

Anthrax is caused by Bacillus anthracis a gram (+) spore-forming rod; when exposure is suspected, post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be started immediately with a 3-dose series of anthrax vaccine and a 60-day course of ciprofloxacin or doxycycline

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97
Q

COBRA

A

Consolidated omnibus budget reconciliation act (COBRA); this law helps to prevent people from suddenly losing health coverage when transitioning between jobs or when work hours are cut

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98
Q

GINA

A

Genetic information nondiscrimination act (GINA) made it unlawful employment practice for an employer to discriminate based on genetic information or to request genetic information

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99
Q

Chagas disease

A

consists of facial edema and a nodule (chagoma) near the bite coupled w fever, lymphadenopathy and hepatosplenomegaly; drug of choice is *nifurtimox which kills Trypanosome cruzi trypomastigotes in the blood

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100
Q

neostigmine

A

pt underwent surgery and having symptoms of neuromuscular blockage (unable to lift head) and was given a reversal agent (neostigmine); acts as cholinergic and can cause bradycardia, bradypnea, and bronchoconstriction leading to hypoxia

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101
Q

Vibrio parahaemolyticus

A

cause of watery diarrhea from eating undercooked seafood, most commonly oysters

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102
Q

fetal circulation

A

2 umbilical arteries which branch from the internal iliac arteries which carry deoxygenated fetal blood to the placenta; blood leaves the placenta via a single umbilical vein and enters the fetal portal circulation

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103
Q

Haloperidol

A

a typical antipsychotic commonly used to tx schizophrenia and is notable for side effects of *hyperprolactinemia due to its dopamine-antagonist effects; increased prolactin levels may cause abnormal breast swelling and even lactation

T4 corresponds with the level of the nipple!

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104
Q

lateral ankle sprain

A

pt has posterior fibular head causing entrapment of the common perineal (fibular) nerve; lateral ankle sprain, as the lateral malleolus of the fibula is driven anteriorly and the fibular head is driven posteriorly

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105
Q

tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) toxicity

A

Amitriptyline inhibits the uptake of NE and serotonin at the synapse; in OD pts can convulse and progress to coma; can be thought of the 3 C’s: Cardiotoxicity (wide QRS complexes), anticholinergic and convulsions

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106
Q

disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI)

A

a STI characterized by a triad: migratory polyarthritis, tenosynovitis and dermatitis; caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae, a gram (-) diplococci and is the most common cause of septic arthritis in the US; tx is daily IV ceftriaxone for 1 week and doxycycline (tetracycline) - added for common co-infection of clamydia

107
Q

OMM for costochondritis

A

when you have linked rib and thoracic SD, it is best to first direct your tx toward the thoracic segment

108
Q

target muscles for treating exhalation rib SD

A
109
Q

stages of sleep

A
110
Q

NREM sleep

A

sleep spindles and K-complexes

111
Q

uncal herniations

A

occurs when the medial aspect of the temporal lobe (uncus) herniates across the tentorium cerebelli; initially results in ptosis, mydriasis, lateral strabismus and c/l hemiparesis of the extremities

112
Q

appropriate technique for sphenobasilar symphysis (SBS) compression

A

compressed 4th ventricle (CV4) technique, also known as bulb decompression and is an appropriate technique when there is diminished CRI from normal 10-14 cycles

113
Q

paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia (PSVT)

A

ECG findings of a narrow complex tachycardia w P waves buried within or very rarely visible before the QRS complex; *adenosine (Gs) can abort PSVT (bronchoconstriction side effect)

114
Q

Hunter syndrome

A

deficiency in *iduronate-2-sulfatase

115
Q

Apgar Scoring System

A

a method used to assess the clinical status of a newborn shortly after birth; appearance, pulse, grimace, activity and respiration

116
Q

brachial plexus posterior cord injury

A

posterior cord gives rise to axillary and radial nerves; axillary nerve innervates the deltoid muscle (shoulder abduction) and radial nerve control extension at the elbow, wrist and fingers

117
Q

histocompatibility antigen associated with multiple sclerosis

A

HLA-DRB1

118
Q

half life calculation

A
119
Q

Gaucher disease

A

deficiency of lysosomal B-glucocerebrosidase which leads to the accumulation of lipid-laden macrophages (Gaucher cells) in the spleen, liver, bone marrow and other tissues/organs

120
Q

allodynia

A

a non-painful stimulus evoking a painful response

121
Q

hyperalgesia

A

pain out of proportion to the painful stimulus

122
Q

hyperpathia

A

greater stimulus us required to get a neural response, but once evoked, the response goes to maximum intensity

123
Q

viscero-somatic reflex

A

visceral pathology causes somatic response ex: MI causing left sided jaw/arm pain (shared T1-4)

124
Q

viscero-visceral reflex

A

visceral pathology causes viscera; response; ex: gastric distension causing increased lower intestine motility

125
Q

somato-visceral reflex

A

somatic pathology causes visceral response ex:tissue injury in muscular distribution of T1-5 worsening COPD

126
Q

somato-somatic reflex

A

somatic pathology causes somatic response ex: torn bicep causes pain in the arm

127
Q

head and neck viscero-somatic levels

A

T1-4

128
Q

heart and lung viscero-somatic levels

A

T1-4

129
Q

foregut viscero-somatic levels

A

T5-9 (stomach, pancreas, liver, gallbladder and spleen)

130
Q

midgut viscero-somatic levels

A

T10-11 (distal 1/2 duodenum, small intestine, ascending colon, hepatic flexure and 2/3rds of transverse colon)

131
Q

hindgut viscero-somatic levels

A

T12-L2 (distal 1/3rd of transverse colon, splenic flexure, descending colon, sigmoid colon and rectum)

132
Q

appendix viscero-somatic levels

A

T12

133
Q

upper extremity viscero-somatic levels

A

T2-8

134
Q

lower extremity viscero-somatic levels

A

T11-L2

135
Q

upper ureter and gonads viscero-somatic levels

A

T10-T11

136
Q

lower ureter and all else GU viscero-somatic levels

A

T12-L2

137
Q

foregut ganglia

A

T5-9; celiac sympathetic ganglia and vagus parasympathetic ganglia

138
Q

midgut ganglia

A

T10-11; superior mesenteric sympathetic ganglia and vagus parasympathetic ganglia

139
Q

hindgut ganglia

A

T12-L2; inferior mesenteric sympathetic ganglia and *pelvic splanchnic parasympathetic ganglia

140
Q

cervical nerve roots

A

exit ABOVE the corresponding cervical vertebrae; C8 exits BELOW C7 and above T1

“7 UP, 8 down”

141
Q

referred pain of C3, C4, C5

A

phrenic nerve refers gallbladder/diaphragm pain to the R shoulder

142
Q

Scalene muscles and rib attachments

A

anterior and middle attach to rib 1
posterior scalene attaches to rib 2

143
Q

Sternocleidomastoid muscle action

A

sidebending TOWARD and rotation away; pathology = torticollis

144
Q

cervical vertebrae motions

A

“the cervical spine is the First Real Segment”

OA = Flexion & extension “type-1-like” opposite
AA = Rotation only
C2-C7 = Sidebending “type-2-like” same

145
Q

ligaments weak in Down syndrome and Rheumatoid arthritis

A

alar and transverse ligaments

146
Q

cervical movement and vertebral artery insufficiency

A

cautious w cervical *extension due to vertebral artery insufficiency

147
Q

Whiplash injuries and poor prognosis

A

loss of cervical spine lordosis or loss of consciousness at the scene of an accident

148
Q

Orientation of facets

A

“BUM BUL BM”

cervical = BUM = backwards, upwards, medial
thoracic = BUL = backwards, upwards, lateral
lumbar = BM = backwards, medial

149
Q

atypical ribs

A

Ribs w “1” or “2” in their # (ribs 1, 2, 11 and 12)
Rib 1 - only one facet, two grooves for subclavian vessels
Rib 2 - rough area for serratus anterior muscle
Rib 11 - only one facet
Rib 12 - no neck, only one facet

150
Q

Rib motions

A

Ribs 1-5 pump handle - AP diameter increases w inhalation
Ribs 5-10 bucket handle - transverse diameter increases w inhalation
Ribs 11-12 caliper motion “down and out” motion w inhalation

151
Q

treating rib exhalation dysfunctions w muscles

A

Rib 1 - anterior and middle scalene
Rib 2 - posterior scalene
Ribs 3-5 - Pec minor “pec” w 3 letters
Ribs 6-9 - Serratus anterior (S=six and S=serratus)
Ribs 11-12 - Lats (11 = lowercase L)

152
Q

thoracic vertebrae and the rule of 3’s

A

T1-3 = SP/TP in-line
T4-6 = TP 1/2 segment ABOVE SP
T7-9 = TP 1 full segment ABOVE SP
T10 = TP 1 full segment ABOVE SP
T11 = TP 1/2 segment ABOVE SP
T12 = SP/TP in-line

153
Q

Surgical neck fractures of the humerus

A

injury of the axillary nerve; flattened deltoid, loss of arm abduction and loss of sensation over deltoid

154
Q

radial nerve injury

A

axillary crush (crutches or Saturday night palsy) or a midshaft fracture; wrist drop, decreased grip strength and loss of sensation over posterior arm/dorsal arm

155
Q

Supracondylar fracture of the humerus

A

median nerve injury; ape hand and Pope’s Blessing, loss of wrist flexion, thumb opposition, loss of 2nd and 3rd lumbricals, loss of sensation over thenar eminence, dorsal and palmar aspect of lateral 3.5 digits

156
Q

ulnar nerve injury

A

Hook of hamate fracture “fall on outstretched hand” or medial epicondyle injury; ulnar claw, radial devaition of wrist during flexion, loss of wrist flexion, AB/ADduction of digits, loss of sensation over medial 1.5 digits and hypothenar eminence

157
Q

clavicle

A

the AC and SC joints move in OPPOSITE; if one goes up the other goes down

158
Q

Carrying angle

A

where is the ulna moving?
Ulna ABducts (moves away) carrying angle INCREASES
Ulna ADducts (moves towards) carrying angle DECREASES

*wrist and ulna move in OPPOSITES
*VaLgus = Larger angle = increases
*VaRus = Reduced angle = decreases

159
Q

Radial Head Dysfunction

A

supination of hand = ANTERIOR radial head (likes to go anterior)
Pronation of hand = POSTERIOR radial head (likes to go posterior)

160
Q

Thoracic Outlet

A

1st rib, anterior and middle scalenes, clavicle, pectoralis minor

*pts with a cervical rib (accessory rib)

161
Q

Rotator cuff muscles

A

SITS
Supraspinatus = ABduction
Infraspinatus = External rotation
Teres minor = External rotation
Subscapularis = Internal rotation

162
Q

Winged scapula

A

protrusion of scapula into abnormal orientation; serratus anterior/long thoracic nerve involvment (C5-7)

163
Q

Carpal Tunnel Syndrome

A

entrapment of the median nerve in the Flexor Retinaculum; risk factors = obesity, pregnancy, RA, hypothyroidism and manual labor; diagnosis w Tinel, Prayer, Phalen tests; tx w NSAIDs, splinting, OMT and surgery

164
Q

Scaphoid Fracture

A

most common carpal bone fracture “fall on outstretched hand”; proximal scaphoid risk of avascular necrosis (dorsal carpal branch/radial nerve); diagnosis w series of X-rays but if negative and there is high suspicious *get an MRI

165
Q

Golfer’s elbow

A

Medial epicondylitis; common insertion point for flexor muscle tendons; “forward throws”

166
Q

Tennis elbow

A

Lateral epicondylitis; common insertion point for extensor muscle tendons; “backwards throw”

167
Q

ACL

A

ligament that runs from the posteromedial aspect of the lateral femoral condyle to anteromedial aspect of the tibia; stabilizes anterior motion; “popping” sound; diagnose w anterior drawer test and Lachman test (more sensitive)

168
Q

PCL

A

ligament that runs from the lateral aspect of medial femoral condyle to fovea centralis; largest intra-articular ligament in the knee; stabilizes posterior motion; diagnose w posterior drawer test

169
Q

MCL

A

*most commonly injured knee ligament; ligament that runs from the femoral medial epicondyle to the tibial medial condyle; inferiorly boarded by *Pes Anserinus; injury excessive in valgus stress

170
Q

Foot/Ankle

A

ankle sprain - anterior talofibular ligament (ATF) always tear first
type I - ATF injured (1 ligament)
type II - 2 ligaments injured
type III - 3 ligaments injured

171
Q

Foot/Ankle Pronation

A

Dorsiflexion, Eversion and ABduction (stable)

172
Q

Foot/Ankle Supination

A

Plantarflexion, Inversion and ADduction (unstable = frequent sprains)

173
Q

Fibular Mechanics and Dysfunction

A
174
Q

Spondylosis

A

refers to degenerative spine usually caused by age-related or use-related “wear and tear”; findings = osteophytes, disc space narrowing, pain w movement; risk factors = obesity and overuse

175
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

refers to anterior slippage of one vertebrae relative to the one beneath it; diagnosed w a *lateral x-ray which shows “step off” point

176
Q

Spondylolysis

A

refers to fracture in the pars interarticularis in one of the vertebrae; diagnosed w an *oblique x-ray which shows “scotty dog” sign; pars interarticularis fracture (the neck/collar)

177
Q

Musculoskeletal Strain

A

refers to an overuse or traumatic injury causing muscular inflammation; negative straight leg test; tx w NSAIDs/OMT **NO MRI for 4-6 weeks (this is a unnecessary test/pt cost)

178
Q

Degenerative Joint Disease

A

osteoarthritis “wear and tear” leading to inflammation; findings = joint space narrowing and osteophytes; tx w NSAIDs/OMT

179
Q

Lumbar Disc Herniation

A

intervertebral disc protruding/bulging through the annulus fibrosis; findings = (+) straight leg test; most common @ L5/S1 (S1 nerve root injury); usually posterolateral displacement due to weakness of posterior longitudinal ligament

180
Q

Lumbar Spinal Stenosis

A

narrowing of central spinal canal leading to spinal nerve impingement; “shopping cart injury”; pain worse w extension and BETTER w flexion; can also observe a wide gait

181
Q

Cauda Equina Syndrome vs Conus Medullaris Syndrome

A

both require emergent surgical consultation

182
Q

Referred low back pain

A
183
Q

Ankylosing Spondylitis

A

seronegative spondyloarthropathy (all serologies are negative); findings of sacroilitis and Mennell sign; associations of uveitis, enthesitis, restrictive pulmonary disease, IBD; associated w HLA-B27; morning stiffness/pain that improves w motion; tx is *indomethacin

184
Q

Scoliosis

A

4 types = idiopathic (most common), neuromuscular, traumatic, and pathologic; most common in females; diagnosis with imaging and measurement of Cobb angle (severity of scoliosis):

Mild = 10-20 degrees = tx w OMT
Moderate = 21-45 degrees = tx w OMT + Bracing (MOBerate)
Severe = 50+ degrees = tx w Surgery
75 degrees or worse = cardiovascular compromise/involvement

185
Q

Structural vs Functional Scoliosis

A

Structural Scoliosis - curve does NOT correct w SB
Functional Scoliosis - curve DOES correct w SB
“Functional Fixes”

186
Q

Functional Short Leg

A

structurally intact, usually environmental/SD; most commonly due to *hip replacement; lumbar SD = SB away, Rotate towards (SART); anterior innominate rotation

tx w heel lift
Old = 1/16 inch Q2 weeks, Young = 1/8 inch Q2 weeks and the Maximum = 1/2 inch Q2 weeks

187
Q

Anatomical Short Leg

A

structurally dysfunctional (congenital); ANY part of the LE can have a defect (femur, tibia, fibula); lumbar SD = SB away, Rotate towards (SART); *posterior innominate rotation

tx w heel lift
Old = 1/16 inch Q2 weeks, Young = 1/8 inch Q2 weeks and the Maximum = 1/2 inch Q2 weeks

188
Q

Short Leg Syndrome treatment

A

tx w heel lift

Old = 1/16 inch Q2 weeks
Young = 1/8 inch Q2 weeks
Maximum = 1/2 inch Q2 weeks

189
Q

iliolumbar ligament

A

stabilizes anterior motion of L5 on the pelvis; FIRST ligament injured in innominate SD

190
Q

sacrospinous ligament

A

separates greater and lesser sciatic foramen

191
Q

piriformis muscle

A

action: ABducts and externally rotates (open ya legs); innervation of S1-S2; attachment = anterior sacrum and greater trochanter; watch for sciatic nerve injuries

192
Q

iliopsoas muscle

A

iliacus + psoas = MAIN HIP FLEXORS; innervation L1-3

193
Q

sacral motion

A

Superior sacral axis = craniosacral & respiratory motion
Medial sacral axis = postural motion
Inferior sacral axis = innominate motion

194
Q

Counterstrain

A

passive, indirect technique that is meant to resolve the pain of tenderpoints/”gamma gain” (do NOT refer pain); goal is at least 70% reduction in pain

195
Q

Anterior cervical counterstrain

A

Cervical SARA: “Flex the Front and Extend the End”

usually the tx involves flexion and SARA; except Maverick TPs (do not resolve when the muscle is shortened): AC1 (RA) “AC1 Rotates Away Son” and AC7 (FSTRA) “Flex STRAw into 7-up”

196
Q

Anterior cervical counter strain Maverick TPs

A

do not resolve when the muscle is shortened; resolves when muscle is lengthened

AC1 (RA) “AC1 Rotates Away Son”
AC7 (FSTRA) “Flex STRAw into 7-up”

197
Q

Posterior cervical counterstrain

A

Cervical SARA: “Flex the Front and Extend the End”

usually the tx involves extension and SARA (ESARA); except Maverick TPs (do not resolve when the muscle is shortened): PC1 (F) “F PC1” and PC3 (FSARA) “3 isn’t E”

198
Q

Posterior cervical counterstain Maverick TPs

A

do not resolve when the muscle is shortened; resolves when muscle is lengthened

PC1 (F) “F PC1”
PC3 (FSARA) “3 isn’t E”

199
Q

Cervical Sara

A

“Flex the Front and Extend the End”

200
Q

Anterior Thoracic Counterstrain

A

AT1-AT6 all tx w F only
AT7-12 (all the rest) FSTRA
AT7 @ 7th ICS
AT8 @ T12
AT9 @ L2
AT10 @ L4
AT11 @ Sacral Base
AT12 @ iliac crest

201
Q

Posterior Thoracic Counterstrain

A

ESARA = Along midline (spinous process)
ESART = Transvere process (lateral)

202
Q

Anterior Rib Counterstrain

A

“I’ll STRT w the ribs” all tx w FSTRT
AR1 @ first chondrosternal joint
AR2 @ superior aspect of 2nd rib @ midclavicular line

203
Q

Anterior rib 1 TP

A

AR1 @ first chondrosternal joint

“I’ll STRT w the ribs” tx w FSTRT

204
Q

Anterior rib 2 TP

A

AR2 @ superior aspect of 2nd rib @ midclavicular line

“I’ll STRT w the ribs” tx w FSTRT

205
Q

Posterior Rib Counterstrain

A

PR1 corresponding rib angle tx w ESART
PR2-12 corresponding rib angle tx w SARA (sometimes FSARA)

206
Q

Anterior Lumbar Counterstrain

A

“STRA, SART SART SART, SARA” (only 5 to memorize)

AL1 medial to ASIS tx w FSTRA
AL2 medial to AIIS tx w FSART
AL3 lateral to AIIS tx w FSART
AL4 inferior to AIIS tx w FSART
AL5 anterior & superior to pubic ramus tx w FSARA

207
Q

Anterior Pelvic/Sacral Counterstrain

A
208
Q

Posterior Pelvic/Sacral Counterstrain

A
209
Q

Physiological Changes in Pregnancy (relaxin and progesterone)

A

increased relaxin = increase pelvic-sacral laxity, worsen lumbar lordosis and increase hypertonicity in back muscles

increased progesterone = increased venous congestion

210
Q

Physiological Changes in Pregnancy (hemodynamic changes)

A

increased CO
increased Na+ and water retention
expanding total blood volume
reduced SVR
decreased lymphatic drainage = worsening thoracic kyphosis, diaphragm and fetal compression of vena cava

211
Q

OMT in pregnancy

A

PROMOTE Study = OMT is safe in pregnancy

212
Q

Diaphragmatic openings

A

I (IVC) ate (8) ten (10) eggs (esophagus) at (aorta) twelve (12)

T8 - IVC, right phrenic nerve
T10 - Esophagus, vagus nerve
T12 - Aorta, thoracic duct and azygos vein (At 12, its red, white and blue)

213
Q

breakdown of lactose

A

galactose and glucose via lactase; deficiency in lactose intolerance

214
Q

Ketamine

A

activates opioid receptors within the insular cortex, putamen and thalamus producing analgesia which makes it preferred for painful procedures; also preferred in pts w bronchospasm, asthma or both; adverse effects of hallucinations, nightmares and vivid dreams

215
Q

Follicular lymphoma

A

t(14;18) which form a BCL2-IgH fusion gene

216
Q

Marfan syndrome

A

AD mut in fibrillin-1 gene

217
Q

Diabetic nephropathy

A

albuminuria, hyperfiltration and glomerulosclerosis; findings on biopsy would display *uniform glomerular basement membrane thickening and Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

218
Q

most SPECIFIC diagnostic testing modality for pulmonary embolism (PE)

A

CT pulmonary angiography; tx is immediate anti-coagulation w heparin

219
Q

lesions to the posterior limb of the internal capsule

A

the lenticulostriate arteries that supply the internal capsule are the most common site of spontaneous HTN hemorrhage in pts with longstanding HTN; the posterior limb contains descending corticospinal tract (UMNs) and ascending somatosensory pathways for the body and face; lesions results in c/l hemiparesis and hemianesthesia

220
Q

abdominal actinomycosis

A

Actinomycotic abscesses can occur following cholecystectomy complicated by gallstone spillage into the peritoneal cavity; tx is abscess drainage along w intravenous penicillin

221
Q

Chapman points corresponding to acute appendicitis

A

anterior chapman point is tip of the right 12th rib

posterior chapman point is located on the lamina of the transverse process of T11-T12

222
Q

lacunar infarct

A

an acute lacunar infarct in the basal ganglia leads to HA, difficulty walking, incoordination in the UE and HTN; most commonly caused by uncontrolled HTN and lack of medical care

223
Q

Atheroma formation

A

platelet-derived growth factors are related from activated platelets, macrophages and endothelial cells where they then recruit smooth muscle cells from the arterial wall media and induce their proliferation in the intima; this contributes to plaque growth and stabilization

224
Q

Sibson fascial release

A

thoracic inlet release is initiated by contacting Sibson fascia

225
Q

isotonic contraction

A

a bicep curl is an example of isotonic contraction; in this type of contraction the muscle tension is constant as the muscle changes length

226
Q

CXR findings in an obstructive atelectasis

A

ipsilateral diaphragm elevation and ipsilateral tracheal deviation

227
Q

amiodarone-induced pulmonary toxicity

A

amiodarone is a potent anti-arrhythmic drug w multiple potential side effects, including interstitial pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis. hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, hepatic toxicity, cardiac toxicity, neuropathies and skin reactions

228
Q

benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV)

A

abnormal sensation (vertigo) that is elicited by certain critical provocative positions; underlying pathogenesis is due to *otolith displacement from the utricle of the semicircular canal

229
Q

acute mesenteric ischemia

A

causes pain that is “out of proportion” to the physical examination findings; the most common cause is decreased intestinal blood flow (vascular occlusion) from an arterial embolism, typically originating from the heart

230
Q

Function of ApoE

A

clearance of lipoproteins and chylomicrons

231
Q

Dipeptidyl peptidase IV (DPP-IV) inhibitors

A

sitagliptin, saxagliptin and linagliptin meds used for better glycemic control in DM2; unique and most common adverse effect of *upper respiratory infections and nasopharyngitis

232
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

A

BCR-ABL fusion gene which increases tyrosine kinase activity; leukemia w splenomegaly and a decreased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase activity is a clue for CML

233
Q

Pompe Disease

A

lysosomal storage disease due to acid maltase deficiency; infantile form of alpha-1,4-glucosidase deficiency results in myopathy affecting multiple organ systems; key clinical features include severe generalized hypotonia, muscle weakness, respiratory distress, failure to thrive and cardiomegaly early in childhood

234
Q

Asherman syndrome

A

the result of removal of the stratum basalts after too forceful or repetitive dilation and curettage procedures, commonly resulting in intrauterine adhesions as an inflammatory response to damages stratum basalis leading to secondary amenorrhea and infertility

235
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS)

A

X-linked congenital immunodeficiency characterized by recurrent pyogenic infections and eczema due to IgM deficiency and IgA excess

236
Q

Polycythemia vera

A

one of the chronic myeloproliferative disorders characterized by a rise in RBC mass accompanied by an increase in WBC and platelet production; pruritus after a warm shower or bath is the most common presenting symptom; characteristic lab findings include a JAK2 mut and low serum EPO levels; tx w phlebotomy and hydroxyurea

237
Q

absolute contraindications in HVLA

A

joint instability, severe osteoporosis or spondylosis, metastasis in the area to be treated, severe herniated disc w radiculopathy (not a small one), infection of the tissues being treated, Down syndrome or rheumatic disease affecting the spine

238
Q

theca lutein cyst

A

also called lutein cysts, are luteinized follicle cysts within the ovary that form as a result of overstimulation from high levels of hCG or hypersensitivity to hCG; recent pregnancy is a risk factor

239
Q

viscero-somatic reflexes from dysfunctions of the head and neck

A

tissue texture changes at T1-T4

240
Q

most common cause of death in children less than 1 yr old

A

congenital malformation; best advice for a mother is to evaluate for trisomy and complete nuchal translucency testing

241
Q

Alkaptonuria

A

an AR disorder that results from homogentisic oxidase deficiency; results in elevated levels of homogentisic acid which forms a pigment that is deposited in CT and joints throughout the body; presents in the 3rd decade of life w abnormal dark-colored urine when it is left standing

242
Q

IT Brand Syndrome

A

the most common cause of knee pain in athletes, especially long-distance runner; IT band arises from the tensor fascia late, gluteus minimus, gluteus medius and gluteus maximus muscles proximally; travels along the lateral side of the thigh and inserts on Gerdy tubercle at the proximal lateral tibia

243
Q

Ataxia-telangiectasia

A

AR form of ataxia due to ATM gene mut causing defective DNA repair; pts develop progressive cerebellar ataxia, abnormal eye movements, telangiectasias and immune deficiency resulting in frequent sinopulmonary infections

244
Q

Pancoast tumor

A

AKA superior sulcus tumors; diagnostic criteria require the tumor to invade the parietal pleura and cause pain, paresthesias or other neurologic manifestations; when the brachial plexus is involved, the inferior portion is typically affected, thereby producing signs and symptoms in the ulnar distribution

245
Q

Monckeberg arteriosclerosis

A

uncommon disease process that occurs in older adults; characterized by calcification of the tunica media; often is discovered incidentally on imaging

246
Q

McCune-Albright syndrome

A

presents w precocious puberty, cafe-au-lait spots and a history of long bone fractures secondary to fibrous dysplasia; mut in GNAS gene that results in constant G protein activation activation and increased production of pituitary hormones

247
Q

elevated serum markers in ovarian cancer

A

CA-125

248
Q

Giant cell arteritis

A

an inflammatory arteriopathy affecting the major branches of the aorta; pts often present w HA, scalp tenderness, jaw claudication and insidious onset of constitutional symptoms (fever, fatigue, unintentional weight loss); tx is high-dose glucocorticoids (tx should not be delayed due to the possibility of progression to permanent vision loss)

249
Q

functional residual capacity

A

the amount of hair in lungs at the end of normal expiration

250
Q

muscarinic effects

A

remember parasympathetics increase bronchoconstriction, increased lacrimation (tearing) and sweating

251
Q

Heme synthesis

A
252
Q

Drug of choices for GU infections

A

Neisseria gonorrhoeae = Ceftriaxone

Chlamydia = Azithromycin

BV and trichomoniasis = Metronidazole

Syphilis = Penicillin

253
Q

MCAD deficiency

A

presents w hypoketotic hypoglycemia and evidence of liver failure; lab results show hypoketotic hypoglycemia (no ketones and low glucose) and dicarboxylic acids on urinalysis; tx involves avoidance of prolonged fasting

254
Q

Meralgia Paresthetica

A

pain/paresthesias in the anterolateral thigh; caused by compression od the lateral femoral cutaneous nerves, usually as the nerve travels under the inguinal ligament; frequently in pts who sit for prolonged periods of time, especially those who are obese

255
Q

CSF in MS pts

A

oligoclonal bands (immunoglobulins); found in the CSF of most pts multiple sclerosis

256
Q

photoaging and solar damage

A

pts w extensive sun exposure history; presents w coarse and fine wrinkles; biopsy shows loss of rete ridges within the dermis and loss of both collagen and elastin w an accumulation of breakdown products (solar elastosis)

257
Q

lung adenocarcinoma

A

more commonly occurs in women and is not associated w smoking; presents w dyspnea and cough; CXR peripheral “coin lesion”

258
Q
A

metastatic brain cancer as chartcaterized by multiple and b/l lesions at the junction of the gray and white matter; most common sites of metastasis are lung, breast, kidney, and colorectal and melanoma

259
Q

renal blood flow calculation

A

RBF = renal plasma flow / (1-hematocrit)

260
Q

measurements of renal function

A
261
Q

Chadwick sign

A

pt is likely pregnant; the bluish hue of her vaginal is one of the earliest signs of pregnancy; warfarin is contraindicated in pregnancy

262
Q

slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

A

most commonly occurs in overweight/obese children (10-13 yrs) and is characterized by slippage of the overlying end of the femur (metaphysis) from its anatomical position in the acetabulum; presents w acute onset of groin and hip pain in the absence of trauma

263
Q

Brucellosis

A

transmitted through direct contact w infectious animal fluids or the ingestion of unpasteurized milk or cheese; commonly presents w undulating fever, profuse sweating and joint pain

264
Q

hypothalamic thermoregulatory center

A

anterior and posterior hypothalamic nuclei

265
Q

tx of an acute asthma attack

A

treated w oxygen, short-acting B-agonist and IV steroids; BETA BLOCKERS are CONTRAINDICATED!

266
Q

paraneoplastic association w small cell carcinoma

A

Cushing syndrome (ACTH)
Hyponatremia (SIADH)
Lambert-Eaton syndrome (calcium pre-synaptic antibodies)

267
Q

paraneoplastic association w squamous cell carcinoma

A

hypercalcemia (PTHrP)

268
Q

characteristics of lung cancer

A
269
Q

menopause

A

permanent cessation of menses (>12 months) as a result of non pathological age-related decline in the number of ovarian follicles; loss of ovarian function leads to decreased ovarian estrogen production (decreased estrogen) which reduces the negative feedback on the anterior pituitary resulting in increased FSH and LH; significantly elevated FSH is diagnostic of menopause

270
Q

craniosacral motion

A

occurs at the superior transverse axis found at S2

271
Q

Fetal hydantoin syndrome (FHS)

A

characterized by microcephaly, mid facial underdevelopment (cleft palate), hypoplasia of digits and nails, cardiac defects, intrauterine growth restriction and developmental delay; associated w anti epileptic drug phenytoin during pregnancy

272
Q

Rett Syndrome

A

X linked dominant (men die in utero); mut in MECP2 gene; 4 stages:

1st phase: develop normal up to 6 months - loss of verbal, cognitive and physical (regression)
2nd phase: occurs 1-4 yrs - loss of purposeful movement of hands
3rd phase: apraxia (cannot carry out purposeful movements
4th phase: scoliosis and abnormal posturing

273
Q

Rett Syndrome

A

X linked dominant (men die in utero); mut in MECP2 gene; 4 stages:

1st phase: develop normal up to 6 months - loss of verbal, cognitive and physical (regression)
2nd phase: occurs 1-4 yrs - loss of purposeful movement of hands
3rd phase: apraxia (cannot carry out purposeful movements
4th phase: scoliosis and abnormal posturing