Wound Care and Treatment Flashcards

1
Q

Evaluation and Management of Wounds

A

Wound Assessment

Pressure Injury/Device related pressure injury

Moisture associated dermatitis, skin tears, other

Leg Ulcers

Diabetic Foot Ulcers

Update on Covid Wounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Not all Wounds are the Same

  • There are core treatment modalities that cross all wound types
    • Treatment of inf_____
    • Topical dressings
    • De______ of necrotic or non-healing, well-perfused wounds
    • N______
    • _____ cessation
    • Treatment of medical co_____ that affect healing
    • How old is the wound? Is it greater than ___days?
  • But for each wound type, patient also needs evaluation and treatment targeting un_____ etiologies of the wound
A
  • There are core treatment modalities that cross all wound types
    • Treatment of infection
    • Topical dressings
    • Debridement of necrotic or non-healing, well-perfused wounds
    • Nutrition
    • Smoking cessation
    • Treatment of medical comorbidities that affect healing
    • How old is the wound? Is it greater than 90 days?
  • But for each wound type, patient also needs evaluation and treatment targeting underlying etiologies of the wound
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Wound Assessment

★ Staging only for?

★ M_______

★ Ex____

★ Wound B__ Characteristics

★ T______ (Sinus Tract)/Under_____

★ ____wound/Surrounding Skin

★ Distinguish _____ Ulcers from other Wounds

★ P____

A

★ Staging

★ Measurement

★ Exudate

★ Wound Bed Characteristics

★ Tunneling (Sinus Tract)/Undermining

★ Periwound/Surrounding Skin

★ Distinguish Pressure Ulcers from other Wounds

★ Pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Measurement

Measure the greatest length (___to ___) and the greatest width (___to ___) using a ____meter ruler.

Measure depth by?

A

Measure the greatest length (head to toe) and the greatest width (side to side) using a centimeter ruler.

Measure depth of the ulcer by gently placing a cotton tipped applicator to the deepest portion of the wound, and placing a mark on the applicator at the level of the skin. The cotton tipped applicator is then held against a centimeter ruler to the determine the depth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Dimensions/Size

Document in (1)

  • _____ (head to toe)
  • ____ (perpendicular to length or side to side)
  • ____ (at deepest point)
  • Describe undermining or tunneling in relation to ____
A
  • Length (head to toe)
  • Width (perpendicular to length or side to side)
  • Depth (at deepest point)
  • Describe undermining or tunneling in relation to clock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Wound Exudate

  • Exudate (drainage) is the accumulation of fluids in a wound that may contain (4).
  • The characteristics of wound exudate that should be assessed include (3).
  • The characteristics of the exudate will vary depending on the level of moisture, organisms, and amount of non-viable tissue, if present.
  • Individual health and healing stages affect the makeup of the wound exudate
A
  • Exudate (drainage) is the accumulation of fluids in a wound that may contain serum, cellular debris, bacteria, and leukocytes.
  • The characteristics of wound exudate that should be assessed include amount, type, and odor.
  • The characteristics of the exudate will vary depending on the level of moisture, organisms, and amount of non-viable tissue, if present.
  • Individual health and healing stages affect the makeup of the wound exudate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Significance of Wound Drainage

  • The volume and type of wound drainage determines the dressing selection for the wound.
  • Dry wounds require a ______ dressing and exudative wounds require an ______ dressing.
  • Containment of the exudate is crucial to protect the surr______ intact skin, reduce b_____load, and control od__.
A
  • The volume and type of wound drainage determines the dressing selection for the wound.
  • Dry wounds require a hydrating dressing and exudative wounds require an absorptive dressing.
  • Containment of the exudate is crucial to protect the surrounding intact skin, reduce bacterial load, and control odor.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dressing Categories to be used with all types of wounds

  • H____fibers cellulose and absorptive
  • F____ absorptive
  • Hydrog___ provides moisture
  • Hydroco_____ (duoderm)
  • Al_____ seaweed
  • Gauze products
  • S_____ products is antimicrobial
  • Com_______ especially important for leg ulcers/with edema
A
  • Hydrofibers cellulose and absorptive
  • Foams absorptive
  • Hydrogels provides moisture
  • Hydrocolloids (duoderm)
  • Alginates seaweed
  • Gauze products
  • Silver products silver is antimicrobial
  • Compression especially important for leg ulcers/with edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Wound Bed Characteristics

(5)

A

Epithelialization

Granulation

Necrotic Tissue (Slough and Eschar)

Tunneling and Undermining

Periwound (Maceration and Erythema)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(1)

The process of becoming covered with or converted to epithelium. The new epithelial cells advance across the wound until they eventually meet epithelial cells moving in from the opposite direction.

  • In _____ thickness wounds, epithelialization occurs throughout the wound bed as well as from the wound edges.
  • In ___ thickness wounds, epithelialization usually occurs from the edges only. The tissue appears as pink or red in color
A

Epithelialization

  • In partial thickness wounds, epithelialization occurs throughout the wound bed as well as from the wound edges.
  • In full thickness wounds, epithelialization usually occurs from the edges only. The tissue appears as pink or red in color
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

-(1)

The process of filling in an open wound with new blood vessels, connective tissue, fibroblasts, and inflammatory cells, when an open wound starts to heal.

  • In ____thickness wounds, granulation tissue starts at the ______ level of tissue damage and proceeds _____. The wound typically appears deep pink or ____ red with an irregular, gr_____ surface
A

Granulation

  • In full thickness wounds, granulation tissue starts at the deepest level of tissue damage and proceeds irregularly. The wound typically appears deep pink or beefy red with an irregular, granular surface
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Necrotic Tissue

(1) is moist, devitalized tissue and may appear in many colors, such as, white, yellow, tan, or green. The tissue may be loose or firmly adherent.

(1) is black or brown, necrotic, devitalized tissue that can be loose or firmly adherent, hard, soft or boggy

A

Slough is moist, devitalized tissue and may appear in many colors, such as, white, yellow, tan, or green. The tissue may be loose or firmly adherent.

Eschar is black or brown, necrotic, devitalized tissue that can be loose or firmly adherent, hard, soft or boggy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Tunneling and Undermining

(1) (also referred to as Sinus Tract) is a course or path of tissue destruction occurring in any direction from the surface or edge of the wound; results in dead space with potential for abscess formation.
(1) is tissue destruction that occurs under 4 Eschar is black or brown, necrotic, devitalized tissue that can be loose or firmly adherent, hard, soft or boggy. intact skin around the wound perimeter. Shear forces often cause undermining.

A

Tunneling (also referred to as Sinus Tract) is a course or path of tissue destruction occurring in any direction from the surface or edge of the wound; results in dead space with potential for abscess formation.

Undermining is tissue destruction that occurs under 4 Eschar is black or brown, necrotic, devitalized tissue that can be loose or firmly adherent, hard, soft or boggy. intact skin around the wound perimeter. Shear forces often cause undermining.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Periwound Area/Surrounding Skin

  • Routine wound assessment should include the area around the wound. Parameters of the assessment should include; c_____, skin tem_____, texture such as m___, d__, in_____, and the integrity of the surrounding skin including any infection.
  • Periwound assessment can offer clues to the effectiveness of ______ options and/or removal techniques. For example, if wound drainage is not contained or a moist dressing is left on intact skin, m______and/or denudement may occur.
A
  • Routine wound assessment should include the area around the wound. Parameters of the assessment should include; color, skin temperature, texture such as moist, dry, indurated, and the integrity of the surrounding skin including any infection.
  • Periwound assessment can offer clues to the effectiveness of treatment options and/or removal techniques. For example, if wound drainage is not contained or a moist dressing is left on intact skin, maceration and/or denudement may occur.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Stage 1 Pressure Injury

=

A

Stage 1 Pressure Injury

Red Non-Blanching epithelium

Intact skin with non-blanchable redness of a localized area over bony prominence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Stage 2 Pressure Injury

=

A

Epithelium ulcerated, Dermis intact

Partial thickness loss of dermis presenting as a shallow open ulcer with a red pink wound bed, without slough. May also present as an intact or open/ruptured serum filled blister

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Stage 3 Pressure Injury

=

A

Beyond dermis into subcutaneous tissue

Full thickness tissue loss. Subcutaneous fat may be visible but bone, tendon, or muscles are not exposed. Slough may be present but does not obscure the depth of tissue loss

May include undermining or tunneling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Stage 4 Pressure Injury

=

A

Beyond fascia into muscle, bone

Full thickness tissue loss with exposed tendon or muscle. Slough or eschar may be present on some parts of the wound bed, may include undermining or tunneling.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(1)

Purple or maroon localized area of discolored intact skin or blood-filled blister due to damage of underlying soft from pressure and/or shear. The area may be preceded tissue that is painful, firm, ushy, boggy, warmer or cooler as compared to adjacent tissue

A

Deep Tissue Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(1)

Full thickness tissue loss in which the base of the ulcer is covered by (yellow, tan, gray, green or brown) and/or eschar (tan, brown, or black) in the wound bed

A

Unstageable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Pressure Causes Ischemia

Pressure, Friction, Shear

>__mmHg closes ______

What areas should you exam, at least (4) sites (minimum exam)

A

Pressure, Friction, Shear

>30mmHg closes capillaries

(capillaries can close with only a little bit of pressure)

  1. Sacrum
  2. Ischia
  3. Greater Trochanter
  4. Heels
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Braden Score

Max score =

Risk indicated by score =

  • _____ perception (“ability to respond meaningfully to pressure-related discomfort”) >
  • M_____
  • A_____ (OOB, walking)
  • M_____ (position change in bed)
  • N_____
  • Fr____/ Sh_____
A

Max Score = 23

Risk indicated by score <18

  • Sensory perception (“ability to respond meaningfully to pressure-related discomfort”) >
  • Moisture
  • Activity (OOB, walking)
  • Mobility (position change in bed)
  • Nutrition
  • Friction/ Shear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What type of pressure injury is shown in these pictures?

A

Device-Related Pressure Injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Core Measures for Prevention and Treatment of pressure injuries

(1)

  • Group 2 surface (mattress, chair cushion)
  • Avoid linen layering
  • Heel protectors, offloading boots, redistributing pillows
  • Correctly sized wheelchair

(1)

  • Devices as needed
  • Head of bed <30 degrees

(1)

  • Assess, reassess, maximize PO’s, if failing PO’s then make another plan

(1)

  • Underpads NOT diapers
  • Condom catheter

Preventing _____ related pressure injury

A

Pressure redistribution surfaces

  • Group 2 surface (mattress, chair cushion)
  • Avoid linen layering
  • Heel protectors, offloading boots, redistributing pillows
  • Correctly sized wheelchair

Repositioning q2h

  • Devices as needed
  • Head of bed <30 degrees

Nutritional intake adequacy

  • Assess, reassess, maximize PO’s, if failing PO’s then make another plan

Incontinence management

  • Underpads NOT diapers
  • Condom catheter

Preventing device related pressure injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Moisture associated dermatitis, skin tears, other

Distinguish Pressure Ulcers from other Wounds

Wound etiology other than from pressure:

  • A_____ Ulcer
  • V____ Stasis Ulcer
  • Neuropathic Wounds-D_____ Ulcer
  • Skin T_____
  • C____ Dermatitis
  • F_______

Not to be documented as a pressure ulcer

A
  • Arterial Ulcer
  • Venous Stasis Ulcer
  • Neuropathic Wounds-Diabetic Ulcer
  • Skin Tears
  • Contact Dermatitis
  • Fungus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Causative Factors for Skin Breakdown

What non-pressure wounds are shown in these pictures?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Skin tears- ISTAP skin tear classification

Type 1 =

Type 2 =

Type 3 =

A

Type 1: No skin loss

Type 2: Partial flap loss

Type 3: Total flap loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Leg Ulcers

Key Points

  • Are Venous stasis ulcers common?
  • A_____ disease should always be suspected/ ruled out
  • Not every leg ulcer is a venous stasis ulcer
  • Pursue a specific diagnosis
  • Ulcers can be m____factorial
  • Monitor area and aim for healing
A
  • Venous stasis ulcers are common
  • Arterial disease should always be suspected/ ruled out
  • Not every leg ulcer is a venous stasis ulcer
  • Pursue a specific diagnosis
  • Ulcers can be multifactorial
  • Monitor area and aim for healing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Venous Stasis Ulcers

  • P____
  • S_____
  • Dr_____
  • Dis____
  • Social is______
  • Psychological dis_____
  • In______
A
  • Pain
  • Smell
  • Drainage
  • Disability
  • Social isolation
  • Psychological distress
  • Infections
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Venous Stasis?

  • ____ veins
    • Iliac, femoral, popliteal, tibial veins
    • V____ create directional flow ‘Muscle ____’ pushes blood towards heart
  • _______/ perforating veins
    • Drain into deep veins during ‘muscle ____’
  • _____ valves > flow from deep to superficial veins
  • Increased pressure -> ____ capillaries
  • Ed____
  • Inf_____
  • Hemosiderin deposition causes (1)
  • Lipodermatosclerosis causes (1)
A
  • Deep veins
    • Iliac, femoral, popliteal, tibial veins
    • Valves create directional flow ○ ‘Muscle systole’ pushes blood towards heart
  • Superficial/ perforating veins
    • Drain into deep veins during ‘muscle diastole’
  • Faulty valves > flow from deep to superficial veins
  • Increased pressure -> leaky capillaries
  • Edema
  • Inflammation
  • Hemosiderin deposition → dark discoloration
  • Lipodermatosclerosis → white tissue
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Risk factors for Venous Stasis

  • F_____ history
  • Gender (1)
  • Pr_____
  • Height (1)
  • Weight (1)
  • St______ for extended periods
A
  • Family history
  • Female
  • Pregnancy
  • Tall
  • Obese
  • Standing for extended periods
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Venous Stasis Ulcers Prevention

  • (1) stockings
  • Vascular surgery (superficial vein ab_____, valvulo____)
  • Treat ‘venous ec_____’
A
  • Compression stockings
  • Vascular surgery (superficial vein ablation, valvuloplasty)
  • Treat ‘venous eczema common form of eczema/dermatitis that affects one or both lower legs in association with venous insufficiency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Venous Stasis Ulcer Eval

  • Rule out is_____
  • Venous ______ studies to confirm diagnosis
  • Evaluate for alternative or additional et_____ factors
  • Poorer prognosis if >__cm2 or >__ year
A
  • Rule out ischemia
  • Venous duplex studies to confirm diagnosis 12
  • Evaluate for alternative or additional etiologic factors
  • Poorer prognosis if >10cm2 or >1 year
34
Q

Treatment Options for Venous Stasis Ulcers

  • Treatment options
    • De________
    • _______ (if not ischemic) heals 80%
      • Elastic vs. inelastic
    • T_____ therapy, treat maceration and dermatitis in surrounding skin
    • Human s____ equivalent
    • Consider vascular ______ referral
      • Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery
    • Consider _____ surgery referral for skin graft (may break down)
    • Pentoxifylline? As_____?
  • _\_-__ months average healing time
  • Most will have re______
A
  • Treatment options
    • Debridement
    • Compression (if not ischemic) heals 80%
      • Elastic vs. inelastic
    • Topical therapy, treat maceration and dermatitis in surrounding skin
    • Human skin equivalent
    • Consider vascular surgery referral
      • Subfascial endoscopic perforator surgery
    • Consider plastic surgery referral for skin graft (may break down)
    • Pentoxifylline? Aspirin?
  • 4-5 months average healing time
  • Most will have recurrence
35
Q

ALWAYS screen for arterial disease in ANY lower extremity ulcer

  • Consider ___ in any lower extremity wound
    • Remember that wounds are often multifactorial
  • Symptoms: pain during ____, cl______
  • Signs: decreased h____, dependent r___, ____ capillary refill; distal, multiple, painful, or ___-healing wounds
  • Pulse exam may not be adequate
    • ______ blood flow can maintain pulses although inadequate flow for healing
  • Wounds with PAD should not be (2)
A
  • Consider PAD in any lower extremity wound
    • Remember that wounds are often multifactorial
  • Symptoms: rest pain, claudication
  • Signs: decreased hair, dependent rubor, poor capillary refill; distal, multiple, painful, or non-healing wounds
  • Pulse exam may not be adequate
    • Collateral blood flow can maintain pulses although inadequate flow for healing
  • Wounds with PAD should not be debrided or tightly compressed
36
Q

Screening for PAD

(2)

A

Ankle-Brachial Index (ABI)

Toe-Brachial Index (TBI)

37
Q

Ankle-Brachial Index

How is this calculated?

What ratio indicates PAD?

  • ABI ____ requires _____ analysis
  • Medial arterial cal______ in diabetics artificially raises ABI in ~__%
A

Health care providers calculate ABI by dividing the blood pressure in an artery of the ankle by the blood pressure in an artery of the arm. The result is the ABI. If this ratio is less than 0.9, it may mean that a person has peripheral artery disease (PAD) in the blood vessels in his or her legs.

  • ABI <0.9 or >1.3 requires waveform analysis
  • Medial arterial calcification in diabetics artificially raises ABI in ~30%
38
Q

Toe-Brachial Index

  • Do digital arteries calcify?
  • Can be helpful in _____ patients
  • <0.___ is abnormal
A
  • Digital arteries usually don’t calcify
  • Can be helpful in diabetic patients
  • <0.65 is abnormal

Remember, important to distinguish if patient has PAD bc should NOT compress those wounds

39
Q

Screening for PAD noninvasive vascular test in which blood pressure cuffs and a hand-held ultrasound device (called a Doppler or transducer) are used to obtain information about arterial blood flow in the arms and legs

A

Pulse Volume Recording

40
Q

Not Every Leg Wound is a Venous Stasis Ulcer

  • Ulcers secondary to edema
    • C_ _ , cirr____
  • Ly____edema
  • S____ cell ulcers
  • Vas____ (RA, paraneoplastic, cryoglobulins, other systemic vasculitides)
  • Vasculo____ (hypercoagulable patients, e.g. lupus, APAS, protein S/C)
  • Skin ____ (squamous cell)
  • (1) a rare condition that causes large, painful sores (ulcers) to develop on your skin, most often on your legs, cause often unknown.
  • F____ or mycob____ lesions
  • Hy______ ulcers
  • (1) ESRD on dialysis can get these ulcers
  • Calciphylaxis (kal-sih-fuh-LAK-sis) is a serious, uncommon disease in which calcium accumulates in small blood vessels of the fat and skin tissues. This condition can cause blood clots, painful skin ulcers and may cause serious infections that can lead to death.*
A
  • Ulcers secondary to edema
    • CHF,cirrhosis
  • Lymphedema
  • Sickle cell ulcers
  • Vasculitis (RA, paraneoplastic, cryoglobulins, other systemic vasculitides)
  • Vasculopathy (hypercoagulable patients, e.g. lupus, APAS, protein S/C)
  • Skin cancer (squamous cell)
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Fungal or mycobacterial lesions
  • Hydroxyurea ulcers
  • Calciphylaxis
41
Q

How will you know the Etiology of Wounds?

  • History of ____
  • ____ medical history
  • _____ exam
  • Circulation ____ routinely
  • (1)
    • …if non-healing for 3 months or after 6 weeks’ treatment
    • Clarify etiology
    • Malignant transformation
A
  • History of wound
  • Past medical history
  • Physical exam
  • Circulation studies routinely
  • Biopsy
    • …if non-healing for 3 months or after 6 weeks’ treatment
    • Clarify etiology
    • Malignant transformation
42
Q

What type of wound is this?

A

Lymphedema

43
Q

What types of wounds are these?

A
44
Q

Diabetic Foot Ulcers

How do diabetics end up as amputees?

  • Patients who do NOT have _____ do NOT get diabetic foot ulcers. ** though PAD patients can get ischemic ulcers
  • Increased risk for ulceration: n_____ PLUS ____ disease, foot de____, pre-ulcerative callus, prior ulcers
A
  • Patients who do NOT have neuropathy do NOT get diabetic foot ulcers. ** though PAD patients can get ischemic ulcers
  • Increased risk for ulceration: neuropathy PLUS arterial disease, foot deformity, pre-ulcerative callus, prior ulcers
45
Q

Neuropathy

  1. S______ Neuropathy
  2. M_____ Neuropathy
  3. A______ Neuropathy
  4. P____ful Neuropathy
A
  1. Sensory Neuropathy
  2. Motor Neuropathy
  3. Autonomic Neuropathy
  4. Painful Neuropathy
46
Q

Sensory Neuropathy Assessment

  • 10 g Semmes-Weinstein (1) to evaluate pressure sensation on the first, third, and fifth metatarsal heads, and on the plantar surface of the great toe +
  • v______ testing
  • p_______ sensation proximal to the nail bed of the first toe
  • a_____ reflex at the Achilles tendon
  • vibration perception threshold testing
A
  • 10 g Semmes-Weinstein monofilament to evaluate pressure sensation on the first, third, and fifth metatarsal heads, and on the plantar surface of the great toe +
  • vibration testing
  • pinprick sensation proximal to the nail bed of the first toe
  • ankle reflex at the Achilles tendon
  • vibration perception threshold testing
47
Q

Foot Deformity

  • Increases _____ -> ul_____ risk
    • Prominent metatarsal heads
    • Claw or hammer toes
      • Distal displacement of submetatarsal fat pads
    • Hallux valgus
    • Charcot neuroarthropathy
      • Can have acute presentation
        • Mid-plantar pressure
    • Limited joint mobility
      • Ankle, 1st MP join
A
  • Increases pressure -> ulceration risk
    • Prominent metatarsal heads
    • Claw or hammer toes
      • Distal displacement of submetatarsal fat pads
    • Hallux valgus
    • Charcot neuroarthropathy
      • Can have acute presentation
        • Mid-plantar pressure
    • Limited joint mobility
      • Ankle, 1st MP join
48
Q

Key Patient Education Points

  1. If you step on a nail you will not ____ it
  2. Obtain pr____ footwear
  3. Use pr_____ footwear
  4. Never go ____foot – not even at home
  5. Daily foot ins______
  6. Sk___ and n____ care
  7. It is never min____
  8. “Come in right away” means within a ____
  9. One ____’s delay can be tragic
A
  1. If you step on a nail you will not feel it
  2. Obtain protective footwear
  3. Use protective footwear
  4. Never go barefoot – not even at home
  5. Daily foot inspections
  6. Skin and nail care
  7. It is never minor
  8. “Come in right away” means within a day
  9. One week’s delay can be tragic
49
Q

Critical Principles of DFU Management

  • ALL patients should have arterial studies (1)
  • Absolute ___loading
  • Consider advanced therapies early
  • Early cl_____ is the single most important goal
  • Any ulcer that fails to demonstrate an acceptable level of response to treatment in the first ____ should be re-______
A
  • ALL patients should have arterial studies (PVRs)
  • Absolute offloading
  • Consider advanced therapies early
  • Early closure is the single most important goal
  • Any ulcer that fails to demonstrate an acceptable level of response to treatment in the first month should be re-evaluated
50
Q

Peripheral Arterial Disease in DFUs

  • Present in 20-40% of patients with diabetic _____
  • Usually distal (infrapopliteal) and diffuse
  • Higher risk of am_______
    • Urgent _____ surgery consultation
  • Potential clues on history and physical
    • Cl______, r___pain
    • Reduced leg h___, pallor, dependent r_____, poor capillary refill, decreased or absent pedal p_____
    • Chronic or necrotic ulcers
  • Pulse exam is not reliable (____ flow)
  • Non-invasive vascular studies
    • ABIs ____, abnormal waveforms, TBIs
    • Arterial duplex
A
  • Present in 20-40% of patients with diabetic ulcers
  • Usually distal (infrapopliteal) and diffuse
  • Higher risk of amputation
    • Urgent vascular surgery consultation
  • Potential clues on history and physical
    • Claudication, rest pain
    • Reduced leg hair, pallor, dependent rubor, poor capillary refill, decreased or absent pedal pulses
    • Chronic or necrotic ulcers
  • Pulse exam is not reliable (collateral flow)
  • Non-invasive vascular studies
    • ABIs <0.9 or >1.3, abnormal waveforms, TBIs <0.65
    • Arterial duplex
51
Q

Off-Loading

  • Acceptable methods in increasing level of effectiveness
    • Removable (_____-bottom shoes, half-shoes) + assistive device
      • Poor adherence and variable pressure relief
    • Removable orthotic w_____ (CROW) affixed to limit removal
    • Total contact c____/Instant total contact cast
  • Surgical approaches to reduce recurrence
    • Achilles tendon l______, bone re______
A
  • Acceptable methods in increasing level of effectiveness
    • Removable (rocker-bottom shoes, half-shoes) + assistive device
      • Poor adherence and variable pressure relief
    • Removable orthotic walkers (CROW) affixed to limit removal
    • Total contact cast/Instant total contact cast
  • Surgical approaches to reduce recurrence
    • Achilles tendon lengthening, bone resection
52
Q

Infections in DFUs

  • >50% of DFUs develop in_______
    • Agg_____; cross fascial barriers
    • Careful exam: may not have cellulitis; may have tunneling
    • Signs of sep____ may be subtle
  • Consider h________
    • Systemic signs
    • Rapidly progressive/deep-tissue infection
    • Necrosis
    • Critical Ischemia
    • Need to coordinate care
A
  • 50% of DFUs develop infection
    • Aggressive; cross fascial barriers
    • Careful exam: may not have cellulitis; may have tunneling
    • Signs of sepsis may be subtle
  • Consider hospitalization
    • Systemic signs
    • Rapidly progressive/deep-tissue infection
    • Necrosis
    • Critical Ischemia
    • Need to coordinate care
53
Q

Osteomyelitis in DFUs

God Standard Diagnosis = (1)

  • 5% of DFUs have o_______
  • When should you consider imaging studies?
    • > In ____ patients presenting with a new DFU
    • Plain r_______- bony abnormalities, soft tissue gas, radiopaque foreign bodies
    • M____- abscess or osteomyelitis
    • Bone scan + indium scan if MRI unavailable or contraindicated
  • Treatment: long-term ____+/- re_______
A

Bone biopsy is gold standard

  • 5% of DFUs have osteomyelitis
  • When should you consider imaging studies?
    • > In ALL patients presenting with a new DFU
    • Plain radiographs- bony abnormalities, soft tissue gas, radiopaque foreign bodies
    • MRI- abscess or osteomyelitis
    • Bone scan + indium scan if MRI unavailable or contraindicated
  • Treatment: long-term abx +/- resection
54
Q

Summary Key Points

  • Some treatments apply to all or most wounds
  • However, specific diagnosis is crucial because it fundamentally affects treatment plan
  • Pressure injury, leg ulcers, and diabetic foot ulcers are common wound types
  • MAD (moisture associated dermatitis), IAD (incontinence associated dermatitis), skin tears, intertrigo and other skin breakdown should not be documented as ____ injury
  • Prevention (including of recurrence) will also be affected by specific diagnosis (usually but not often from venous stasis)
  • Keep an eye out for high-risk conditions and complications
  • If wound is not healing, re-_____and change the plan
A
  • Some treatments apply to all or most wounds
  • However, specific diagnosis is crucial because it fundamentally affects treatment plan
  • Pressure injury, leg ulcers, and diabetic foot ulcers are common wound types
  • MAD, IAD, skin tears, intertrigo and other skin breakdown should not be documented as pressure injury
  • Prevention (including of recurrence) will also be affected by specific diagnosis (usually but not often from venous stasis)
  • Keep an eye out for high-risk conditions and complications
  • If wound is not healing, re-evaluate and change the plan
55
Q

Update on Covid Wounds

  • The Covid-19 pandemic presented us with a host of new maladies that affected every body system
  • The hyperc_______ and in______ reactions gave way to multiple wounds and skin conditions
  • Covid ____, a condition similar in appearance to chilblains has been noted
  • Pressure ulcers from pr_____ with the ventilator have been noted on the face and s_____ pressure ulcers from prolonged immobility in ICU have been noted
  • New wounds of the f____ have also been noted
A
  • The Covid-19 pandemic presented us with a host of new maladies that affected every body system
  • The hypercoagulability and inflammatory reactions gave way to multiple wounds and skin conditions
  • Covid toes, a condition similar in appearance to chilblains has been noted
  • Pressure ulcers from proning with the ventilator have been noted on the face and sacral pressure ulcers from prolonged immobility in ICU have been noted
  • New wounds of the feet have also been noted
56
Q

Covid Skin Manifestations

  • Morb_____ Rash
  • Ur______
  • Ves_____ eruptions
  • Acral Lesions (Covid _____)
  • Live____ eruptions
  • Initially mainly seen in children and then widely noted in adults
A
  • Morbilliform Rash
  • Urticaria
  • Vesicular eruptions
  • Acral Lesions (Covid toes)
  • Livedoid eruptions
  • Initially mainly seen in children and then widely noted in adults
57
Q

(1)

At Montefiore Medical Center, Bronx, NY during the height of the pandemic we were called to see a number of uncommon wounds that presented as extensive skin lesion of the plantar aspect of foot and the ankle

All of the patients tested positive for Covid-19

Comorbidities such as obesity, Diabetes Mellitus, Hispanic or African American ethnicity were present

Immunocompromised states such as HIV and Heart Transplant on immunosupressants were present in two patients

A

Unusual Bullae

58
Q

Basic Treatment Modalities for Wounds

Basic Healing Principles

Dress Classifications/Types

Review of Specific Ulcers/Case Studies

A

Basic Healing Principles

Dress Classifications/Types

Review of Specific Ulcers/Case Studies

59
Q

Basic Wound Principles

  • If wet—___ it (manage wound ex____ and protect the ___-ulcer skin)
  • If dry—_____ (maintain a moist wound environment)
  • If deep—____it (gently)
  • If necrotic –_____it
  • Minimize issues with fr_____, sh______, skin irritation and additional pressure
A
  • If wet—dry it (manage wound exudate and protect the peri-ulcer skin)
  • If dry—moisturize (maintain a moist wound environment)
  • If deep—pack it (gently)
  • If necrotic –debride it
  • Minimize issues with frictions, shearing, skin irritation and additional pressure
60
Q

Dressings

(1) –from seaweed, turns into a gel, absorbs 2x its weight, can have a fishy odor, may turn green Melgisorb,
(1) —absorbs vertically, prevents maceration, turns into a gel, have to fully remove Durafiber, Aquacel
(1) – hydrophilic, maintains temperature, have silicone border Allevyn, Polymen

Wound with excessive drainage has a high biob_____ and _____ healing

A

Calcium alginate–from seaweed, turns into a gel, absorbs 2x its weight, can have a fishy odor, may turn green Melgisorb,

Cellulose—absorbs vertically, prevents maceration, turns into a gel, have to fully remove Durafiber, Aquacel

Foams– hydrophilic, maintains temperature, have silicone border Allevyn, Polymen

Wound with excessive drainage has a high bioburden and inhibits healing

61
Q

Dressings

(1) —high water content with polymers, promotes autolytic debridement, basically a saline gel, provides moisture, cleansing, caution not to macerate skin Solosite, Intrasite
(1) —can be used for protection, can provide too much moisture and can be used for auto-debridement, has to be removed carefully so as not to tear skin Duoderm
(1) (Low Absorbent) –made from cotton and acrylic fibers, allows passage of exudate OpSite, Telfa

A

Hydrogels—high water content with polymers, promotes autolytic debridement, basically a saline gel, provides moisture, cleansing, caution not to macerate skin Solosite, Intrasite

Hydrocolloid—can be used for protection, can provide too much moisture and can be used for auto-debridement, has to be removed carefully so as not to tear skin Duoderm

LAD (Low Absorbent) –made from cotton and acrylic fibers, allows passage of exudate OpSite, Telfa

62
Q

Dressings

(1) inner core highly absorbent, may adhere to wound Exudry
* (1)* absorbent sheets with silver, for skin folds
* (1)* Semi-permeable polyurethane coated with adhesive layer, impermeable to liquids but moisture/gases can escape

A

HAD (High Absorbent) inner core highly absorbent, may adhere to wound Exudry

  • Interdry* absorbent sheets with silver, for skin folds
  • Tegaderm* Semi-permeable polyurethane coated with adhesive layer, impermeable to liquids but moisture/gases can escape Tegaderm
63
Q

Debridement

  • Scalpel
  • Curette
  • Gauze
  • Mes____
  • Dressings to auto debride (hydro_____, hydro___)
  • C_______ enzyme debrider, does not harm normal tissue, can use with exposed muscle, tendon
A
  • Scalpel
  • Curette
  • Gauze
  • Mesalt
  • Dressings to auto debride (hydrocolloid, hydrogel)
  • Collagenase enzyme debrider, does not harm normal tissue, can use with exposed muscle, tendon
64
Q

Dressing Guide/Antimicrobials

  • Cad______– 0.9% iodine, absorbs exudate, released slowly Iodosorb
  • S______ Aquacel Ag, Acticoat , silver sulfadiazine
  • H_____ Medihoney
  • Topical antibacterials
  • H____tonic—cotton and hypertonic saline, osmotic flow of necrotic tissue and bacteria into the dressing Mesalt
A
  • Cadexomer– 0.9% iodine, absorbs exudate, released slowly Iodosorb
  • Silver Aquacel Ag, Acticoat , silver sulfadiazine
  • Honey Medihoney
  • Topical antibacterials
  • Hypertonic—cotton and hypertonic saline, osmotic flow of necrotic tissue and bacteria into the dressing Mesalt
65
Q

Misc Dressings

  • Paraffin based mesh gauze, may cause skin maceration and can be occlusive Xeroform Adaptic
  • R____ gauze/Kerlix
  • Ab______ pads
  • Tape Don’t tape to ___, tape to dressing
A
  • Paraffin based mesh gauze, may cause skin maceration and can be occlusive Xeroform Adaptic
  • Roll gauze/Kerlix
  • Abdominal pads
  • Tape Don’t take to skin, tape to dressing
66
Q

Cleansing Agents/Odor Control

  • Normal s_____
  • Wound cleansers
  • D_____ solution (hypochlorite, bleach, antiseptic)
  • Odor absorbing dressing—contains ch_____ Carboflex
A
  • Normal saline
  • Wound cleansers
  • Dakin‘s solution (hypochlorite, bleach, antiseptic)
  • Odor absorbing dressing—contains charcoal Carboflex
67
Q

Compression Dressings

  • Multilayer compression
  • Unna’s b____
  • Compression garments
  • Compression st______
  • A___ wraps
  • Co____
  • Reducing edema, help with wound healing
A
  • Multilayer compression
  • Unna’s boot
  • Compression garments
  • Compression stockings
  • Ace wraps
  • Coban (self adherent wrap)
  • Reducing edema, help with wound healing
68
Q

Atypical Ulcers

  • S_____ cell
  • P_____ gangrenosum
  • Calc______
  • C_____ vascular/______ Arthritis
  • Anti_____ induced skin necrosis
  • Other Vasculitis/vasculopathy
  • Co_____
  • Caustic chemical
A
  • Sickle cell
  • Pyoderma gangrenosum
  • Calciphyllaxis
  • Collagen vascular/Rheumatoid Arthritis
  • Anticoagulant induced skin necrosis
  • Other Vasculitis/vasculopathy
  • Cocaine
  • Caustic chemical
69
Q

Tests to Rule Out Arterial Disease

(2)

A

PVR (pulse volume recording)/ABI need to be done

TCOM

Transcutaneous Oxygen Measurement, or TCOM, is a non-invasive measurement reflecting the amount of oxygen diffused from the capillaries, through the epidermis, to an electrode at the measuring site

70
Q

(1)

  • By far the most common leg ulcer, up to 80%, but there are other ulcers
  • Generally associated with edema
  • Can be chronic and recurring
  • Estimated annual cost $ 1.9 to 2.5 billion
  • Note hyperpigmentation, lipodermatosclerosis, edema, eczema
A

Venous Ulcer

71
Q

(1)

  • Due to (1)–formed red blood cell clots along with venous valve incompetence, vasoconstriction related autonomic control, lead to decreased tissue perfusion and ulceration
  • Located at the medial or lateral malleolus, pretibial area or the dorsum of the foot
  • Surrounding skin with –hyperpigmented, atrophy of subcutaneous fat, absence of hair follicles
A

Sickle Cell Ulcers

72
Q

Sickle Cell Ulcer Treatment

  • De______
  • If drainage—hydrofiber
  • Com_____ dressing
  • If venous component, gr____ considered
  • Sickle cell treatment—transfusion, hydroxyurea, pain management
A
  • Debridement
  • If drainage—hydrofiber
  • Compression dressing
  • If venous component, graft considered
  • Sickle cell treatment—transfusion, hydroxyurea, pain management
73
Q

(1)

Condition associated with high levels of calcium phosphate ; leading to calcification of the small arteries; leading to intimal fibrosis and thrombus formation

  • Associated with end stage renal disease
  • Hyperparathyroidism
  • If associated cardiac involvement , high mortality
  • Distribution of peripheral locations on the body including fingers, toes, tongue, penis and torso
  • Can be very painful
  • Start as localized tender lesions with violaceous mottling and progress to purpuric patches and placques , and to eschar
  • Elevated calcium and phosphorus levels
A

Calciphylllaxis

74
Q

Calciphyllaxis Treatment

  • De_____
  • Dressings for moisture or for drainage as needed
  • Treat underlying disease—kidney tr____, sodium thiosulfate, p_____ectomy, amp______
A
  • Debridement
  • Dressings for moisture or for drainage as needed
  • Treat underlying disease—kidney transplant, sodium thiosulfate, parathyroidectomy, amputation
75
Q

(1)

Uncommon noninfectious neutrophilic dermatosis that is of uncertain etiology

  • Starts as small painful papule, pustule or nodule surrounded by an erythematous bawe, The lesion enlarges and ulcerates
  • Most commonly seen in middle aged women
  • Associated with various arthritides, inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, myeloproliferative disorders, SLE, PBC, PAPA
  • _____ for diagnosis
  • Diagnosis of _____
  • Can be very painful
A

Pyoderma Gangrenosum

Uncommon noninfectious neutrophilic dermatosis that is of uncertain etiology

  • Starts as small painful papule, pustule or nodule surrounded by an erythematous bawe, The lesion enlarges and ulcerates
  • Most commonly seen in middle aged women
  • Associated with various arthritides, inflammatory bowel disease, hepatitis, myeloproliferative disorders, SLE, PBC, PAPA
  • _____ for diagnosis
  • Diagnosis of _____
  • Can be very painful
76
Q

Pyoderma Treatment

  • Pr_______ dressing
  • Topical st______
  • Systemic treatment—______suppressants, antimicrobials, skin graft
  • Paradoxical response to debridement-may get _____
A
  • Protective dressing
  • Topical steroids
  • Systemic treatment—immunosuppressants, antimicrobials, skin graft
  • Paradoxical response to debridement-may get worse
77
Q

Nonathererosclerotic Ischemic Ulcers

  • (1)—immune-mediated inflammation and destruction of the blood vessels— cryoglobulinemia, paraneoplastic, RA and other vasculitides 5
  • (1)—thrombi within the blood vessels without inflammation, hypercoagulability—antiphospholipid syndrome, SLE, protein C deficiency
A
  • Vasculitis—immune-mediated inflammation and destruction of the blood vessels— cryoglobulinemia, paraneoplastic, RA and other vasculitides 5
  • Vasculopathy—thrombi within the blood vessels without inflammation, hypercoagulability—antiphospholipid syndrome, SLE, protein C deficiency
78
Q

V______/V______

  • Multiple small, painful erythematous nodules
  • Palpable purpura causing stinging or burning sensation
  • Most common below knee, but see on the back, hands, buttocks, forearms
  • Treat underling disease
A

Vasculitis/Vasculopathy

79
Q

(1)

Systemic autoimmune disorders/ collagen vascular disorders

Autoimmune processes make pathologic changes in involved blood vessels

  • Begins as palpable purpura and ecchymosis
  • Located on pressure points or lower extremities w/ livedo reticularis
  • Extremely painful
A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

80
Q

Treatment of RA Ulcers

  • De_____ as needed
  • Dressings for moisture or exudate as needed
  • Treat underlying disease—high dose cortico_____ and possibly meth_____, cyclophosphamide, under care of rheumatologist
  • Difficult to heal with medications needed for treating underlying disease
A
  • Debridement as needed
  • Dressings for moisture or exudate as needed
  • Treat underlying disease—high dose corticosteroids and possibly methotrexate, cyclophosphamide, under care of rheumatologist
  • Difficult to heal with medications needed for treating underlying disease
81
Q

Other Atypical Ulcers

  • C____ induced
  • Anticoagulant induced –(1)
  • Drain cleaner only 2 drops (similar to pressor effect)
A
  • Cocaine induced
  • Anticoagulant induced –Enoxaparin, Heparin
  • Drain cleaner only 2 drops (similar to pressor effect)
82
Q

Warfarin- Induced Skin Necrosis

  • Ischemia-related skin necrosis
    • 1 in 10,000 patients
    • Secondary to rapid decline in Protein __ when warfarin is initiated
  • Risk Factors
    • _____ warfarin dose
    • Ob_____
    • F______ gender
  • Manifestation
    • Pl_____, hemorrhagic bl____ or scar
A
  • Ischemia-related skin necrosis
    • 1 in 10,000 patients
    • Secondary to rapid decline in Protein C when warfarin is initiated
  • Risk Factors
    • High warfarin dose
    • Obesity
    • Female gender
  • Manifestation
    • Plaques, hemorrhagic blisters or scar