Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

1) Review of Blood Physiology

Blood is a ______ tissue

Blood components (2) %

Where is each component produced (3),(4)?

A

Blood is a connective tissue

  1. Plasma 55% (proteins)
    1. Liver* reticuloendothelial cells of adults
    2. Spleen
    3. Bone marrow
  2. Blood Cells 45%
    1. Bone marrow*
    2. Thymus
    3. Lymph nodes
    4. Spleen at diff points in development and under stress

In some pathological conditions spleen and bone marrow can take over to some extent – of producing proteins of plasma

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2
Q

Blood Functions

  1. ____ exchange
  2. H_____ and n____ transport
  3. Adaptive and innate ______
  4. Co_______
  5. W_____ elimination
  6. T______ regulation

Takeaway =

A
  1. Gas exchange
  2. Hormonal and nutrient transport
  3. Adaptive and innate immunity
  4. Coagulation
  5. Waste elimination
  6. Temperature regulation (vasodilation/vasoconstriction)

Blood disorders have the potential to impact every other organ system!

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3
Q

Cell Lines

All cells originate from (1)

Myeloid Cells (4)-(1)

Lymphoid Cells (3)

A

Multipotential Hematopoietic Stem Cell (MHSC)

Myeloid Cells = RBC, Platelets, Mast Cells, Granulocytes (Neutrophils, Basophils, Eosinophils, Monocytes)

Lymphoid Cells = NK cells, T and B Lymphocytes, Plasma Cells

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4
Q

Erythropoesis

  • RBCs are produced in BM in response to (1)
  • EPO is released from _______ in response to sensing low _______ of blood and tissues.
  • As oxygenation increases, EPO is _____regulated
  • As cells mature from progenitor cells they ____ organelles and their nucleus
  • Mature RBCs live approx. ____ days
  • Seeing an increase in early forms in blood and/or earlier stages of differentiation can indicate stress on BM from hyp____, inf_____, hemo_____ and/or BM nec______
A
  • RBCs are produced in BM in response to EPO
  • EPO is released from kidneys in response to sensing low oxygenation of blood and tissues.
  • As oxygenation increases, EPO is downregulated
  • As cells mature from progenitor cells they lose organelles and their nucleus
  • Mature RBCs live approx. 120 days
  • Seeing an increase in early forms in blood and/or earlier stages of differentiation can indicate stress on BM from hypoxia, infection, hemolysis and/or BM necrosis
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5
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb)

=

  • Used to carry _____ in the blood
  • Consists of 4 subunits =
  • Missing or altered subunits can result in a number of pathological conditions affecting (1
  • Destruction of RBCs either through standard or accelerated processes releases ______ into the blood stream
A

Metalloprotein in RBC’s

  • Used to carry oxygen in the blood
  • Consists of 4 subunits (2 𝞪 and 2𝜷)
  • Missing or altered subunits can result in a number of pathological conditions affecting oxygen transport
  • Destruction of RBCs either through standard or accelerated processes releases bilirubin into the blood stream
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6
Q

Iron

Role of iron?

  • Iron required typically obtained from _____
  • No efficient physiological means of ______ iron other than from cell _____, therefore?
A

Necessary for heme synthesis and provides strength and stability to the hemoglobin molecule

  • Iron required typically obtained from diet
  • No efficient physiological means of removing iron other than from cell shedding from the GI tract, therefore iron supplementation not a harmless therapy bc of effects of iron overload
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7
Q

Clotting

  • Tissue injury results in potential blood loss
  • Release of tissue ____ stimulates initial platelet ____ and clotting ______ which stabilizes plug with a cross linked ____ clot
  • Objective is to ____ bleeding and prevent entry of _____
A
  • Tissue injury results in potential blood loss
  • Release of tissue factor stimulates initial platelet plug and clotting cascade which stabilizes plug with a cross linked fibrin clot
  • Objective is to stop bleeding and prevent entry of microbes
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8
Q

Clotting Notes

  • Intrinsic pathway factors (5)
  • Extrinsic pathway factors (2)
  • Common pathway – (4)
  • PT (INR) – asctd with ______ pathway
  • PTT –asctd with ______ pathway
A
  • Intrinsic pathway – 12, 11, 8, 9, 10 (common pathway technically) TENANT
  • Extrinsic pathway – tissue factor and lucky number 7
  • Common pathway – you go to the bank and get small bills 10, 5, 2, 1
  • PT (INR) – asctd with extrinsic pathway
  • PTT –asctd with intrinsic pathway
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9
Q

Immunity

  1. (1)- 1st line of defense; non specific
    1. Monocytes/Dendritic cells function (1)
    2. Granulocytes/Mast cells function (1)
  2. (1)- specific to pathogen
    1. B lymphocytes function (1)
    2. T lymphocytes function (3)
A
  1. Innate - 1st line of defense; non specific
    1. Monocytes/Dendritic cells - phagocytosis
    2. Granulocytes/Mast cells - degranulation
  2. Adaptive - specific to pathogen
    1. B lymphocytes - antibody production
    2. T lymphocytes - direct cytotoxicity, production of cytokines, recruitment and de-escalation of immune response
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10
Q

Big Picture

about blood disorders =

A
  • Because blood is relevant to every system in the body, you can expect to see some pathology in every system when there is a blood disorder.
  • Correction of hematological abnormalities will directly impact other systemic disorders; don’t be afraid to be assertive and treat or refer.
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11
Q

2) The peripheral blood smear mini “atlas”

What should be the relative size of an RBC?

A

Should be around the size of a small lymphocyte - so in this pic the RBC’s are microcytic

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12
Q

Red Cell Line

(1) → (1) → (1)

A

nRBC’s → Reticulocytes → Erythrocytes

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13
Q

Red Cell Lines

  1. Erythrocyte
    1. Functional unit of _____ transport
    2. What does it look like?
    3. Lives how long?
  2. Reticulocytes
    1. What are they?
    2. What does it look like?
    3. Any central pallor?
  3. nRBCs
    1. What are they?
    2. What does it look like?
    3. Will we see these in a smear?
A
  1. Erythrocyte
    1. Functional unit of oxygen transport
    2. Enucleated biconcave disc
    3. Lives approx 120 days
  2. Reticulocytes
    1. Immature erythrocytes
    2. Loose condensed chromatin without clear nuclear envelope (reticular network)
    3. No central pallor
  3. nRBCs
    1. Immature erythrocytes
    2. Clear nucleus and condensed chromatin
    3. Abnormal in smear; body is desperate for RBCs
  • Loosely condensed chromatin – remnants of nuclear material*
  • More reticulocytes = more demand*
  • In bottom right pic – the erythrocytes are a bit hypochromic indicating problems with oxygen*
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14
Q

Red Blood Cell Morphology

Tear drops can arise from ___ deficiency, bone marrow _____, however if all the tear drops facing the same way =

Schistocytes indicative of ______ (some hemolysis is normal but shouldn’t see more than 3-4 shistocytes) – pretty much are cell fragments (cells that have died), increased in sickle cell/small blood vessel clotting disorders

Agglutination – can be seen in (1) reactions – foreign blood attacking host blood, neoplasms/cancer, ehler’s danlos, infection, inflammation

A

Tear drops can arise from b12 deficiency, bone marrow fibrosis, however if all the tear drops facing the same way – lab person just smeared the blood sample too aggressively and squished the cells

Schistocytes indicative of hemolysis (some hemolysis is normal but shouldn’t see more than 3-4 shistocytes) – pretty much are cell fragments (cells that have died), increased in sickle cell/small blood vessel clotting disorders

Agglutination – can be seen in blood transfusion reactions – foreign blood attacking host blood, neoplasms/cancer, ehler’s danlos, infection, inflammation

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15
Q

Platelet cell lines

  • Platelet
    • Small cell fragments (~__% size of RBC)
    • Life approx __-__ days
  • _________
    • Large precursor cell
    • ______ up into smaller fragments to create platelets (~1000)
    • Should we see platelets in a peripheral blood smear?
A
  • Platelet
    • Small cell fragments (~20% size of RBC)
    • Life approx 7-10 days
  • Megakaryocyte
    • Large precursor cell
    • Breaks up into smaller fragments to create platelets (~1000)
    • Should not be present in peripheral blood, lives in bone marrow
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16
Q

Which Granulocyte (white cell line) does this describe?

  • Regulate inflammation
  • Trap and kill parasites (mostly multicellular)
  • Increase during allergic reactions, parasites, pernicious anemia
  • Decrease with certain infections, corticosteroids
A

Eosinophils

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17
Q

Which Granulocyte (white cell line) does this describe?

  • Trap and kill pathogens (mostly bacterial)
  • Bands- continuous nucleus; bandlike
  • Mature -lobulated
  • Can increase with infection, granulocyte leukemias, and burns
  • Can decrease due to certain drugs/environmental exposures, viruses, or in aplastic anemias

Note: marrow stress from infection can results in “left shift” meaning there is a high number of immature granulocytes in blood

A

Neutrophils

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18
Q

Which Granulocyte (white cell line) does this describe?

  • Cytokine, histamine and heparin release
  • Facilitate immune response of other cells by making environment favorable
  • Often involved in parasite response
  • Poorly understood
  • Secretory function to mediate function of other cells but also drive anaphylaxis
  • Increase in CML, PV
A

Basophils

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19
Q

Which Agranulocyte (white cell line) does this describe?

  • Engulfs pathogens, cleans up foreign material and tissue debris after injury
  • Further differentiation to macrophage or dendritic cell in tissues
  • Large well stained nuclei with blue-gray “ground glass” cytoplasm
A

Monocytes

Monocytes that differentiate into dendritic cells also function as antigen presenting cells

Can increase in monocyte leukemias, TB, connective tissue diseases, chronic infections/ inflammation

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20
Q

Which Agranulocyte (white cell line) does this describe?

  • Antibody production, direct cytotoxicity of cells infected by viruses or abnormal cells
  • Directors or adaptive immune response
  • Large well stained nucleus with very little, blue staining cytoplasm
A

Lymphocytes

-T cell matures in thymus, B cell matures in bone marrow

Can increase in infection, TB and lymphocytic leukemias

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21
Q

3) Review of the CBC

Why do I need this Test?

  • Screening/Prognosis
    • Determine r___
    • E____ intervention
  • D_____
    • Include or exclude possibility of disease
    • Consider the possibility of alternate diagnosis
  • M______
    • How severe is the disease?
    • How far has the disease progressed?
    • Is our treatment working?
    • What drugs are appropriate in treatment?
A
  • Screening/Prognosis
    • Determine risk
    • Early intervention
  • Diagnosis
    • Include or exclude possibility of disease
    • Consider the possibility of alternate diagnosis
  • Management
    • How severe is the disease?
    • How far has the disease progressed?
    • Is our treatment working?
    • What drugs are appropriate in treatment?
  • Remember that you are responsible for following up on any test which you order*
  • Only order a test that you can reliably interpret and decide a treatment for*
  • Take in the full clinical picture available and don’t panic about isolated abnormalities or expected abnormals.*
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22
Q

Sensitivity and Specificity

  • Sensitivity → “true _____”
    • _____ → ↑Sensitivity rules OUT → negative test, no disease
  • Specificity → “true _____”
    • _____ → ↑Specificity rules IN → positive test, has disease
  • Notes:
    • Sensitivity and specificity can vary with respect to screening or diagnosis
      • Ie: PSA testing for screening vs monitoring
    • Same test can have variable sensitivity and specificity for different _____
      • Ie: EKGs baseline vs acute chest pain
    • T_____ of test is important
      • Ie: COVID swabs and HIV testing
A
  • Sensitivity → “true positives”
    • SnOUT → ↑Sensitivity rules OUT → negative test, no disease
  • Specificity → “true negatives
    • SpIN → ↑Specificity rules IN → positive test, has disease
  • Notes:
    • Sensitivity and specificity can vary with respect to screening or diagnosis
      • Ie: PSA testing for screening vs monitoring
    • Same test can have variable sensitivity and specificity for different purposes
      • Ie: EKGs baseline vs acute chest pain
    • Timing of test is important
      • Ie: COVID swabs and HIV testing
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23
Q

General Approach to Heme Labs

  • Is the value _____?
    • Should it be? Underlying conditions? Treatments applied and how often?
  • Is the patient s______?
    • Do we actively treat? Surveillance? Referral to specialist? Referral to ED?
    • Are symptoms unaccounted for by other medical conditions or history? OLDCART
  • _____ counts
    • Increased destruction? Malignancy? Hemolysis? Autoimmune disorder?
    • Decreased production? Hepatic or Renal compromise? Drugs impacting marrow? Infection?
  • _____ counts
    • Increased production? Malignancy? Other chronic illness? Inflammation?
    • Decreased destruction? Myelosuppression? Meds? Infections?
  • Big picture
A
  • Is the value normal?
    • Should it be? Underlying conditions? Treatments applied and how often?
  • Is the patient symptomatic?
    • Do we actively treat? Surveillance? Referral to specialist? Referral to ED?
    • Are symptoms unaccounted for by other medical conditions or history? OLDCART
  • Low counts
    • Increased destruction? Malignancy? Hemolysis? Autoimmune disorder?
    • Decreased production? Hepatic or Renal compromise? Drugs impacting marrow? Infection?
  • High counts
    • Increased production? Malignancy? Other chronic illness? Inflammation?
    • Decreased destruction? Myelosuppression? Meds? Infections?
  • Big picture
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24
Q

Important terms

  • (1) - decrease in cell numbers
    • (1) - low RBCs/ Hb
    • (1) - low WBCs (broadly)
    • (1) - low neutrophils (normally > half all WBCs)
    • (1) - low platelets
    • (1) - all cell lines low (RBC, WBC and PLTs)
  • (1) - increase in cell numbers
    • (1)/(1) - high RBCs
    • (1) - high WBCs (broadly
    • (1) - high platelets
A
  • Cytopenia - decrease in cell numbers
    • Anemia - low RBCs/ Hb
    • Leukopenia - low WBCs (broadly)
    • Neutropenia - low neutrophils (normally > half all WBCs)
    • Thrombocytopenia - low platelets
    • Pancytopenia - all cell lines low (RBC, WBC and PLTs)
  • Cytosis - increase in cell numbers
    • Erythrocytosis/Polycythemia - high RBCs
    • Leukocytosis - high WBCs (broadly
    • Thrombrocytosis - high platelets
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25
Q

WBC

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

4-11K/uL

  1. High = Infection, inflammation, acute and chronic leukemias, polycythemia vera, anaphylaxis, smoking, COPD/emphysema, obesity, etc
  2. Low = Cancer (liquid and solid tumor), chemotherapy/radiation, aplastic anemia, bone marrow failure, HIV/AIDS, TB, autoimmune disease, nutritional deficiencies and malnutrition
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26
Q

RBC

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

3.8-5.3 M/uL

  1. High = Smokers, living or endurance training in high altitude, dehydration, doping in athletes, structural heart disease, heart failure, COPD/emphysema, polycythemia vera, certain solid tumors, etc.
  2. Low = Anemias(broadly), thalassemias, hemoglobinopathies, bone marrow failure, thyroid disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic blood loss (including GI and HMB), chronic inflammation, Pb poisoning, certain drugs, liquid and solid tumors, frequent blood donation.
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27
Q

Hemoglobin (Hb)

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

Males 14-18 g/dL

Females 12-16 g/dL

  1. High = Smokers, living or endurance training in high altitude, dehydration, doping in athletes, structural heart disease, heart failure, COPD/emphysema, polycythemia vera, certain solid tumors, etc.
  2. Low = Anemias(broadly), thalassemias, hemoglobinopathies, bone marrow failure, thyroid disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic blood loss (including GI and HMB), chronic inflammation, Pb poisoning, certain drugs, liquid and solid tumors, frequent blood donation.
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28
Q

Hematocrit (Hct)

Normal Range

Meaning of measurement

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

Males 40-54%

Females 37-47%

% of RBCs per sample of blood

  1. High = Smokers, living or endurance training in high altitude, dehydration, doping in athletes, structural heart disease, heart failure, COPD/emphysema, polycythemia vera, certain solid tumors, etc.
  2. Low = Anemias(broadly), thalassemias, hemoglobinopathies, bone marrow failure, thyroid disease, chronic kidney disease, chronic blood loss (including GI and HMB), chronic inflammation, Pb poisoning, certain drugs, liquid and solid tumors, frequent blood donation.
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29
Q

Platelets (PLT)

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

150-400 K/uL

  1. High = Infection, inflammation, cancers, polycythemia, essential thrombocytosis
  2. Low = TTP, ITP, BM failure
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30
Q

MPV

=

Normal Range

  1. Low MPV =
A

8-12 fL

Mean size of platelets, older platelets generally smaller

  1. Low MPV = BM failure, renal disease, aplastic anemia, cancers, inflammation/infection, some drugs
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31
Q

MCV

=

Normal Range

  1. High MCV =
  2. Low MCV =
A

86-98 um3/cell

(Mean Corpuscular Volume) = Ave size of RBCs

High:Low B12/B9, AUD, hypothyroid, liver disease, pernicious anemia, AIHA, Leukemia, some drugs

Low: IDA, chronic disease/inflammation, thalassemia, low Cu, low Vit A, Pb poisoning

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32
Q

MCH

=

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

27-32 uug/RBC

(Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin) Ave concentration of Hb per cell

High: Low B12/B9, AUD, hypothyroid, liver disease, pernicious anemia, some drugs, MDS

Low: IDA, hemoglobinopathies, thalassemia

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33
Q

MCHC

=

Normal Range

  1. High levels =
  2. Low levels =
A

31-37 g/dL

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration = ave concentration of Hb per unit volume

High: early ID, hemolytic anemias, hereditary spherocytosis

Low: IDA or anemia of chronic illness

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34
Q

RDW

=

Normal Range

Generally larger indicates? what could cause this?

A

11.5-14.5%

Red cell distribution width = Range in variation in RBC size

Generally larger indicates more rapid turnover from

Anemias (including hemoglobinopathies and thalassemias), chronic illness/inflammation/blood loss, nutritional deficiencies

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35
Q

CBC Differential (WBC Differential) Normal Ranges

Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas

A

Neutrophils 55-70% (~60%)

Lymphocytes 20-40% (~30%)

Monocytes 2-8% (~6%)

Eosinophils 1-4% (~3%)

Basophils 0.5-1% (~1%)

  • Note: look at the big picture, if one value is super high, it will automatically lower the other values*
  • Remember to consider both the absolute counts (vary by lab) and the %; they both give insights into what may be occurring*
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36
Q

WBC Differential Functions

  1. Neutrophils =
  2. Lymphocytes =
  3. Monocytes =
  4. Eosinophils =
  5. Basophils =
A
  1. Neutrophils = first line immune response, shapes early host response
  2. Lymphocytes = antibody production, direct cytotoxicity of cells infected by viruses or abnormal cells, directors or adaptive immune response
  3. Monocytes = Boosts immune response, engulfs pathogens, cleans up foreign material and tissue debris after injury
  4. Eosinophils = regulates inflammation, traps and kills pathogens
  5. Basophils = Facilitates immune response of other cells by making environment favorable; often involved in parasite response
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37
Q

Reticulocytes

  • Increase in retics may indicate?
  • Normal retics in setting of _____ may be inappropriate (ARC>120)
  • Low levels or retics may indicate insufficiency due to?
A
  • Increase in retics may indicate high RBC turnover
  • Normal retics in setting of hemolysis may be inappropriate (ARC>120)
  • Low levels or retics may indicate insufficiency due to CKD/Low Epo
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38
Q

nRBCs

What does an increased # of nRBCs indicate? (2), relative to high reticulocytes?

A

Increased nRBCs represent stress on the marrow and need for fast RBC turnover; more severe than increased reticulocytes; consider severe infection or BM infarction

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39
Q

ANC levels

Calculation for ANC?

At what point do you need prophylaxis?

  1. Mild Neutropenia
  2. Moderate Neutropenia
  3. Severe Neutropenia
  4. Agranulocytosis
A

WBC x [(PMN% + Bands%)/100]

  1. Mild Neutropenia <1500
  2. Moderate Neutropenia <1000 (risk of infection)
  3. Severe Neutropenia <500 (high risk of infection, may need prophylaxis)
  4. Agranulocytosis <100 (critical risk of infection)
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40
Q

Highlights of BMP and other lab studies

  • sCr
    • (1) may be cause of low Epo production
    • Also important to know with respect to Rx of any (1)
  • LDH
    • Measure of tissue _____/cell _____ → consider _____ but less specific
  • Ferritin
    • Reflects whole body iron _____
    • Can be (1) during acute inflammatory states
A
  • sCr
    • CKD may be cause of low Epo production
    • Also important to know with respect ot Rx of any medication
  • LDH
    • Measure of tissue damage/cell necrosis → consider hemolysis but less specific
  • Ferritin
    • Reflects whole body iron stores
    • Can be artificially inflated during acute inflammatory states (Bc ferritin is an acute phase reactant so will be artificially high during infection)
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41
Q

Highlights of BMP and other lab studies

Bilirubin
○ ↑͢direct (conjugated) →
○ ↑͢indirect (unconjugated) →

Transaminases
○ ↑͢AST - may indicate (1)
○ ↑͢ALT - may indicate (1)
○ ↑͢ALP - bone marrow _____ or ______ disease

A

Bilirubin
○ ↑͢direct (conjugated) → may indicate hepatocellular injury
○ ↑͢indirect (unconjugated) → likely from hemolysis

Transaminases
○ ↑͢AST - may indicate hemolysis
○ ↑͢ALT - may indicate hepatocellular injury
○ ↑͢ALP - bone marrow necrosis or metastatic disease

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42
Q
  1. Anemia

=

  • Decrease in one of the (3) major RBC indices
  • WHO criteria in males and females =
  • Always treat anemias as a ______ rather than a disease entity and work to correct the underlying disorder
A

Mismatch between oxygen supply to the tissues carried by RBCs and metabolic need

  • Decrease in one of the three major RBC indices: RBC, Hct or Hb
  • WHO criteria: Hb <13 (males), Hb <12 (females)
  • Always treat anemias as a symptom rather than a disease entity and work to correct the underlying disorder
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43
Q

General Pathologic Causes of Anemia

(3)

  • Other causes: physiological anemia of ____ in women, ath_____
  • Anemia masks: sm______, de______, living at (1)
A

Blood loss/Inflammation

Low production of RBCs

High destruction of RBCs (hemolytic anemias)

  • Other causes: Physiological anemia of pregnancy, Athletes
  • Anemia masks: Smoking, Dehydration, Living at high altitude (all are hemoconcentrated states)

Smoking – deoxygenates (dt many factors but also inhaling carbon monoxide impairs oxygen transport)

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44
Q

Anemia General Medical History

  • Known medical conditions & medications → HMB = , N___/A__ use, last E___/C___ screen, Chronic ____ Disease, C__ Hx?
  • Family history of anemia → ___PD, S____ cell disease, th______, k____ disease?
  • Lifestyle and diet → Sm____, Et___ use, ath____, veg___?
A
  • Known medical conditions & medications → HMB, NSAID/ASA use, last EGD/CRC screen, CKD, Ca Hx?
  • Family history of anemia → G6PD, SCD, thalassemias, kidney disease?
  • Lifestyle and diet → Smoker, EtOH use, athlete, vegan?
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45
Q

Anemia History

  • OLDCART
  • Symptoms
    • General
    • IDA → (3)
    • Macrocytic → (2)
    • Hemolysis → (3)
  • Chronicity → how quickly and for how long have symptoms persisted
  • Recent travel → T____ infections or p_____?
A
  • OLDCART
  • Symptoms
    • General → Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, HA, SOB, CP, palpitations, cold extremities, weight loss, brittle nails, paleness
    • IDA → Ice chewing, PICA, restless legs
    • Macrocytic → poor concentration/memory loss, burning and tingling in fingers and toes
    • Hemolysis → yellow skin and eyes, dark urine, worsening of other symptoms with certain foods/drugs
  • Chronicity → how quickly and for how long have symptoms persisted
  • Recent travel → Tropical infections or parasites?
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46
Q

Anemia Eval Contextual Factors

Acute or Chronic bleeding

  • Bleeding from (2)
  • Known ___ ulcers/tumors, stool abnormalities (2)
  • Urine abnormality (1)
  • Menstrual abnormality (1)
  • Transfusions → acute or delayed ______ transfusion reaction
A
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47
Q

Anemia Eval Recent Travel?

  • (1) borne illness → malaria, dengue, etc..
  • (1) borne illness → babesiosis (hikers or agricultural workers)
  • (1) fevers → ebola, nippah, hantavirus
A
  • Mosquito borne illness → malaria, dengue, etc..
  • Tick borne illness → babesiosis (hikers or agricultural workers)
  • Hemorrhagic fevers → ebola, nippah, hantavirus
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48
Q

Anemia Eval

What can volume depletion do to underlying anemias?

A

May mask anemias in those who are symptomatic but CBC is otherwise WNL

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49
Q

S/S of Anemia

  1. General appearance
  2. Vitals
  3. Skin
  4. HEENT
  5. Heart
  6. Abdomen
  7. Neuro
  8. MSK
  9. Psych
A
  1. General appearance - listless in advanced cases
  2. Vitals - ↑HR and/or ↓BP in advanced cases (may have wide pulse pressure 120/50)
  3. Skin - pallor, jaundice, mucous membrane pallor, spoon nails, cold to touch
  4. HEENT - conjunctival pallor, scleral icterus, glossitis, angular cheilitis
  5. Heart- tachycardia, flow murmurs
  6. Abdomen - hepatosplenomegaly
  7. Neuro - acroparesthesias
  8. MSK - weakness
  9. Psych - depression, poor memory and concentration; dementia like symptoms in severe anemia
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50
Q

Anemia Lab Findings

  1. (1) → Hb levels and red cell indices
  2. (1) → enough production? appropriate to degree of hemolysis?
  3. (1) → renal function
  4. (1) → bilirubin and transaminases
  5. (1) → hemolysis/necrosis
  6. (1) → iron stores; beware inflammatory processes
  7. (1) → ↑ may reflect iron deficiency; ↓ acute phase reaction, chronic illness or iron overload
  8. (1) → ↑ iron overload; ↓ IDA or chronic illness
A
  1. CBC → Hb levels and red cell indices
  2. Retic’s → enough production? appropriate to degree of hemolysis?
  3. BMP → renal function
  4. LFT → bilirubin and transaminases
  5. LDH → hemolysis/necrosis
  6. Ferritin → iron stores; beware inflammatory processes
  7. TIBC→ ↑ may reflect iron deficiency; ↓ acute phase reaction, chronic illness or iron overload
  8. TSAT → ↑ iron overload; ↓ IDA or chronic illness
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51
Q

Iron Panel (4)

A

Serum Iron

Ferritin

TIBC (blood’s ability to attach itself to iron and transport it around the body, indirect measurement of transferrin, the protein transports iron)

TSAT (Transferrin saturation ie iron saturation)

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52
Q

If you are doing a direct look for IDA, your best labs would be? (4)

A

CBC, Ferritin, TIBC and TSAT

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53
Q

Anemia Imaging

○ Abdominal US → spleen, liver?
○ Echocardiogram → _____ heart, ______ E/E’, ____ TRJ velocity
○ CT/MRI → spleen, liver, LN?

A

○ Abdominal US → enlarged or absent spleen, hepatomegaly
○ Echocardiogram → enlarged heart, elevated E/E’, high TRJ velocity
○ CT/MRI → enlarged or absent spleen, hepatomegaly, enlarged lymph nodes

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54
Q

Anemia Causes Direct Visualization

(1) → polyps, chronic gastritis, ulcers, tumors, tumors, etc…
(1) → polyps, colitis, fistulas, ulcerations, tumors, etc…

A

EGD → polyps, chronic gastritis, ulcers, tumors, tumors, etc…
Colonscopy → polyps, colitis, fistulas, ulcerations, tumors, etc…

  • Do not blanket order imaging for new anemia. These suggestions are here regarding old imaging that might offer insight into a new anemia or progression of known anemia.*
  • Do order colonoscopy for anyone appropriate for screening by age or investigation by symptoms. New iron deficiency anemia is an indication for colonoscopy in adults regardless of age. I would strongly consider it in anyone who is anemic and microcytic without other explanation.*
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55
Q

Anemia severity and progression

Can range from mild asymptomatic to severe requiring admission:
Important features for determining level of care:
● Clinical ______
● Overall _____ of health at baseline
● Pace of symptom pr________
● Pace of l___ changes
● Ability of body to com________

A

Important features for determining level of care:
● Clinical presentation
● Overall state of health at baseline
● Pace of symptom progression
● Pace of lab changes
● Ability of body to compensate

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56
Q

A note on acute blood loss

  • Normal adult blood volume =
  • 1 unit of blood =
  • By volume loss:
    ○ ≤ 20% (≤1000 cc)→
    ○ 20-30% (1000 -1500cc) →
    ○ 30-40% (1500 - 2000cc)→
    ○ ≥50% (≥2500cc)→
A
  • Normal adult blood volume: ~5000 cc
  • 1 unit of blood = 500cc
  • By volume loss:
    ○ ≤ 20% (≤1000 cc)→ asymptomatic at rest; tachycardia and mild SOB with activity
    ○ 20-30% (1000 -1500cc) → variable but symptomatic at rest and may progress rapidly
    ○ 30-40% (1500 - 2000cc)→ circulatory collapse and hypovolemic shock
    ○ ≥50% (≥2500cc)→ incompatible with life
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57
Q

Chronically Progressive Anemias

  • Hb may drop to 50% below baseline without threat of sh___ or d____
    • Compensatory mechanisms → ↑O2 delivery per RBC
      • ↑(1) → ↑circulation to maintain O2 delivery
      • ↑(1) → ↑ increased extraction of O2 from the blood
        • ____ shift of O2 dissociation curve
      • ↑(1) → ↑ anaerobic metabolism → ↓pH
        • _____ shift of O2 dissociation curve
A
  • Hb may drop to 50% below baseline without threat of shock or death
    • Compensatory mechanisms → ↑O2 delivery per RBC
      • ↑HR → ↑circulation to maintain O2 delivery
      • ↑2,3DPG → ↑ increased extraction of O2 from the blood
        • Right shift of O2 dissociation curve
      • ↑hypoxia → ↑ anaerobic metabolism → ↓pH
        • Right shift of O2 dissociation curve
  • 2**,3 Bisphosphoglycerate -stabilizes oxygenated form of Hb*
  • The RBC 2,3 BPG (also known as 2,3 DPG) molecule* stabilizes the deoxygenated form of hemoglobin by allosteric binding and facilitates oxygen release at tissue sites.
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58
Q

Macrocytic =

Normocytic =

Microcytic =

A

MCV > 100

MCV 80-100

MCV <80

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59
Q

Macrocytic Anemia Differentials

(4)

A

Vitamin B9, B12 Deficiency

(GI/bariatric surgery, chronic PPIs)

Chronic ETOH use/abuse

Increased Bone Marrow Stress

(MDS, AML, other heme malignancy, chemo, hydroxyurea, azidothymidine (AZT) antiretroviral)

Pernicious Anemia

Nutritional vs. Malabsorptive (bariatric surgery, alcohol)

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60
Q

Macrocytic Anemia Workup

(3)

A

Check VB12 and folate levels

Screen for ETOH use (consider checking LFTs)

Review diet and med list

If MCV > 110 fL → almost always folate or vitamin B12 deficiency

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61
Q

Macrocytic Anemia Treatment

  1. Suspect malignancy →
  2. Nutritional deficiency, vegan diet or GI/Bariatric surgery →
  3. Positive screen for AUD →
A
  1. Suspect malignancy → referral to HemeOnc or ED based on presentation
  2. Nutritional deficiency, vegan diet or GI/Bariatric surgery → supplement folate and vitamin B12
  3. Positive screen for AUD → link to care; supplement thiamine, folate and vitamin B12
62
Q

Macrocytic Anemia FU

  • _____ testing after supplementation
    • Poor response or worsening → (1)
  • Ongoing s________
  • Ongoing l_____ to outside referrals.
  • Even if there is an explanatory cause to macrocytosis, if the patient is still anemic continue work up or referral
    • IE: Hb 8g/dL and MCV 104 even if taking PPIs → still anemic and should be further explored
A
  • Repeat testing after supplementation
    • Poor response or worsening → referral to Heme
  • Ongoing supplementation
  • Ongoing linkage to outside referrals.
  • Even if there is an explanatory cause to macrocytosis, if the patient is still anemic continue work up or referral
    • IE: Hb 8g/dL and MCV 104 even if taking PPIs → still anemic and should be further explored
63
Q

Normocytic Anemia Differentials

  1. Chronic (1) disease → ↓retics
  2. Blood ____ (early/acute) → ↑ retics
  3. Chronic (1)
  4. (1) → possibly emergent!
  5. (1) → hemolysis markers
  6. Hemoglobin_____ (SCD) → cell morphology and hemolysis markers
  7. (1) Deficiency → diet recall and hemolysis markers
  8. Sphero_____ → cell morphology
  9. (1) endocrine disease
A
  1. CKD → ↓retics
  2. Blood loss (early/acute) → ↑ retics
  3. Chronic disease/inflammation
  4. Autoimmune → possibly emergent!
  5. Infection → hemolysis markers
  6. Hemoglobinopathies (SCD) → cell morphology and hemolysis markers
  7. G6PD → diet recall and hemolysis markers
  8. Spherocytosis → cell morphology
  9. Hypothyroidism

Anemia of chronic disease may become microcytic/iron deficient overtime

64
Q

Normocytic Anemia Workup

  • Labs (2), (6)
  • Review ____ history and ____ recall
  • Screen appropriate candidates with (1)
A
  • Obtain repeat CBC and peripheral smear with review (some labs do this), BMP, LFT, Retics, LDH, TSH, Ferritin
  • Review family history and recent diet recall
  • Screen appropriate candidates with colonoscopy
65
Q

Normocytic Anemia Treatments

  1. Suspect CKD→ (1) for Rx (1)
  2. Blood loss→ (1)
  3. Infection → (1)
  4. G6PD → (3)
  5. Hypothyroidism → (1)
  6. AIHA, SCD, Spherocytosis → (1) or (1) if unstable
A
  1. Suspect CKD→ referral to Renal or Heme for consideration of ESA
  2. Blood loss→ find source and correct
  3. Infection → treat as appropriate or refer to ID
  4. G6PD → list sulfa allergy, referral to RD for dietary counseling, consider referral to Heme
  5. Hypothyroidism → work up and referral as appropriate
  6. AIHA (autoimmune hemolytic anemia), SCD, Spherocytosis → if clinically unstable referral to Heme; otherwise referral to ED
66
Q

Normocytic Anemia Follow Up

  • ______ testing after intervention.
  • Poor response or worsening → referral to _____ for co-management
  • MCV falls for low Ferritin → consider (1) dx or bl_____ has not fully been corrected
  • Ongoing linkage to outside re______
A
  • Repeat testing after intervention.
  • Poor response or worsening → referral to Heme for co-management
  • MCV falls for low Ferritin → consider IDA or bleeding has not fully been corrected
  • Ongoing linkage to outside referrals
67
Q

Microcytic Anemias Differentials

(4)

(1) Deficiency
(3) Poisoning

A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

Thalassemias (usually MCV <70fL)

Sideroblastic Anemia

Chronic blood loss

CU deficiency

Pb (lead), Al, Zn poisoning

68
Q

Microcytic Anemia Workup

  • Obtain (1) panel
  • Review____ history, occ____/env_____ exposures and recent diet recall
  • Screen appropriate candidates with (1)
A
  • Obtain iron panel (including ferritin, TIBC, and TSAT)
  • Review family history, occupational/environmental exposures and recent diet recall
  • Screen appropriate candidates with colonoscopy
69
Q

Microcytic Anemia Treatments

  1. IDA →
  2. Thalassemias/Sideroblastic anemia →
  3. Blood loss →
  4. Metal deficiency/Toxicity →
A
  1. IDA → to be discussed further but generally replete
  2. Thalassemias/Sideroblastic anemia → referral to Heme
  3. Blood loss → stop bleeding and replete iron as needed
  4. Metal deficiency/Toxicity → referral to Heme
70
Q

Microcytic Anemia FU

  • _____ testing after supplementation.
    • Poor response or worsening
      • Consider (1) in addition to colonoscopy
      • Consider ___ iron preparations
      • Referral to ___ for co-managment
  • On____ supplementation
A
  • Repeat testing after supplementation.
    • Poor response or worsening
      • Consider EGD in addition to colonoscopy
      • Consider IV iron preparations
      • Referral to Heme for co-managment
  • Ongoing supplementation
71
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia

  • Causes: ____ loss, nut______ deficiencies, poor ab_____
  • S/S: (2), craving (2), restless (1)
  • PE: HR (1), tongue (1), skin color (1), nails (1)
  • Labs: (5), consider (1) if broader differential
    • Colonoscopy for FIT test: ____cytic, ____chromic anemia
A
  • Causes: blood loss, nutritional deficiencies, poor absorption
  • S/S: Fatigue, weakness, SOB, craving ice, pica, restless legs
  • PE: tachycardia, glossitis, pallor, koilonychia (spoon nails)
  • Labs: CBC, Ferritin, Iron, TIBC, TSAT; consider CMP if broader differential
    • Colonoscopy for FIT test: Microcytic, hypochromic anemia
72
Q

Iron Deficiency Anemia Treatment and FU

  • Rx: Depending on severity can start with (1) iron and titrate up; (1) iron if stable but anemia profound
  • F/U: Depending on severity: PO iron: _-_ weeks and Q_months after: IV iron: _ weeks (no labs) then _ weeks after for labs
A
  • Rx: Depending on severity can start with (1) iron and titrate up; (1) iron if stable but anemia profound
  • F/U: Depending on severity: PO iron: 2-4 weeks and Q3months after: IV iron: 2 weeks (no labs) then 6 weeks after for labs
73
Q

Animal Sources of Iron

(4)

A

Beef, pork, chicken (Organ meat and blood)

Shellfish (Bivalves)

Fish

Eggs

74
Q

Plant Sources of Iron

Legumes (5)

Iron enriched cereals (4)

Fruits (4)

Vegetables (4)

N___ and S____

Blackstrap ______

A

Legumes (Beans, lentils, peas, tofu, tempeh)

Iron enriched cereals (Bread, bran, oats, cornmeal)

Fruits (Figs, dates, raisins, prunes)

Vegetables (Broccoli, dark leafy vegetables, potatoes, cabbage)

Nuts and seeds

Blackstrap molasses

  • While not absolutely required, animal sources of iron are generally more bioavailable and easily absorbed than than plant based sources*
  • Some vegans will consume bivalves and eggs depending on their definition of veganism and how it fits into their moral framework. It’s worth asking what veganism is to them when considering dietary sources of iron.*
75
Q

PO Iron Formulations

(3), dose, frequency

  • Pro’s
    • ____ line for IDA
    • Least in____
    • Easiest to obtain
    • Least risk of _____genicity
  • Con’s
    • GI side effects: (2)
      • Max dose: ___mg elemental iron QD
    • ____ to take effect
    • Timing for max absorption
      • Give with (1) to boost absorption
      • Rx (1) block absorption

Newer forms of PO iron on the horizon with improved absorption and tolerability but hard to obtain coverage

A

Ferrous Sulfate, Ferrous Gluconate, Ferrous Fumarate 325 TID

  • Pro’s
    • First line for IDA
    • Least invasive
    • Easiest to obtain
    • Least risk of immunogenicity
  • Con’s
    • GI side effects: constipation, NVD
      • Max dose: 200mg elemental iron QD
    • Slow to take effect
    • Timing for max absorption
      • Give with Vitamin C to boost absorption
      • Antacids block absorption

Newer forms of PO iron on the horizon with improved absorption and tolerability but hard to obtain coverage

76
Q

IV Iron Preparations Background

  • Considered in _____ IDA, patients who are bloodless (1) /untransfusable (1), or anemic during _____ and near EDD
  • Preparations vary by maximum dose ____ of administration, imm______ and ______ coverage.
  • Risk of _____ reactions in trials is generally _____: 1:1 million to 1:3 million
    • Highest risk among those with (1)
    • Allergy is to _______ material most times; can rechallenge with other irons if allergy to one formulation
A
  • Considered in severe IDA, patients who are bloodless (religion) /untransfusable (lots of past transfusions, increased alloimmunity), or anemic during pregnancy and near EDD
  • Preparations vary by maximum dose frequency of administration, immunogenicity and insurance coverage.
  • Risk of allergic reactions in trials is generally small: 1:1 million to 1:3 million
    • Highest risk among those with multiple allergies
    • Allergy is to conjugate material most times; can rechallenge with other irons if allergy to one formulation
77
Q

IV Iron Formulations

  • (1) → oldest, most easily covered, highest immunogenicity; requires test dose 1st
  • (1) → smaller more frequent doses; generally well covered; only IV iron used in pregnancy
  • (1) → biggest single dose; sometimes difficult to cover with insurance
A
  • Iron dextran → oldest, most easily covered, highest immunogenicity; requires test dose 1st
  • Iron sucrose → smaller more frequent doses; generally well covered; only IV iron used in pregnancy
  • Iron carboxymaltose → biggest single dose; sometimes difficult to cover with insurance
78
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease

Common and secondary to ______ → enough iron but not ____ for Heme

  • Causes: (1) (autoimmune dz, collagen vascular dz, malignancy, or infection)
  • S/S: F_____, w_____, S___, weight ___, skin (1), and findings consistent with primary cause of inflammation
  • PE: HR (1), skin (1), findings consistent with primary cause of anemia
A

Common and secondary to inflammation → enough iron but not free for Heme (all the iron is bound up dt inflammation)

  • Causes: chronic inflammation (autoimmune dz, collagen vascular dz, malignancy, or infection)
  • S/S: Fatigue, weakness, SOB, weight loss, pallor, and findings consistent with primary cause of inflammation
  • PE: tachycardia, pallor, findings consistent with primary cause of anemia
79
Q

Causes of Anemia of Chronic Disease

A

Connective tissue diseases: Ehlers Danlos

Autoimmune disease: RA, SLE

Thyroid disease

IBD: UC and Crohn’s

Chronic infection: TB, osteomyelitis, subacute bacterial endocarditis

Cancer

CKD

80
Q

Anemia of Chronic Disease Workup, Tx, FU

  • Labs: C__, C___, F_____, T___; primary disorder labs and markers; colon_____
    • Normocytic normochromic but may progress to ____cytosis if occult blood loss
    • WBC and platelets lvls = (1), ferritin lvls normally (1)
  • Rx: Treat primary disorder; usually do not need iron unless there is source of occult (1); some conditions require (1) if patient becomes hypoproliferative
  • F/U: as per primary cause of inflammation but monitor CBC for changes in (1)
A
  • Labs: CBC, CMP Ferritin, TSH; primary disorder labs and markers; colonoscopy
    • Normocytic normochromic but may progress to microcytosis if occult blood loss
    • WBC and platelets are normal or elevated; ferritin normally elevated
  • Rx: Treat primary disorder; usually do not need iron unless there is source of occult blood loss; some conditions require ESAs if patient becomes hypoproliferative
  • F/U: as per primary cause of inflammation but monitor CBC for changes in MCV

Erythropoiesis-stimulating agents – for hypoproliferative ie CKD

81
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease

Secondary to chronic renal disease; may co-exist with (1) or chronic (1)

  • Causes: chronic renal disease from various causes (often stages (2))
  • S/S: F_____, ____ness, S___, weight ___, skin (1), ed____, (2) urias
  • PE: HR (1), BP (1), pallor or ____pigmentation, skin sx (2)
A

Secondary to chronic renal disease; may co-exist with IDA or chronic inflammation

  • Causes: chronic renal disease from various causes (often CKD4 or CKD5)
  • S/S: Fatigue, weakness, SOB, weight loss, pallor, edema, oliguria/anuria
  • PE: tachycardia, hypertension, pallor or hyperpigmentation, xerosis, itching
82
Q

Chronic Kidney Disease Workup, Tx, FU

  • Labs: C___, C___, F_____, Vit (1) and (1), colon_____
    • ____cytic ____chromic but may progress to microcytosis if occult blood loss
    • _____ threshold for ferritin to reflect adequate iron stores due to chronic inflammation; Defer to nephrology but generally desire ferritin ≥ ___-____ (KDIGO, 2012).
  • Rx: Often will trial (1) rx as tolerated; Often require rx (1) due to hypoproliferation due to low EPO.
  • F/U: (1) co-management; monitoring of CBC per KDIGO guidelines depending on CKD stage and whether or not on HD.
A
  • Labs: CBC, CMP, Ferritin, Vit B12 and folate, colonoscopy
    • Normocytic normochromic but may progress to microcytosis if occult blood loss
    • Higher threshold for ferritin to reflect adequate iron stores due to chronic inflammation; Defer to nephrology but generally desire ferritin ≥ 300-500 (KDIGO, 2012).
  • Rx: Often will trial PO iron as tolerated; Often require ESAs due to hypoproliferation due to low EPO.
  • F/U: Nephrology co-management; monitoring of CBC per KDIGO guidelines depending on CKD stage and whether or not on HD.
83
Q

Macrocytic Anemias

Causes (3)*

S/S (3)*

PE (3)*

A

Causes: due to diet, EtOH use or malabsorption

S/S: fatigue, weakness, poor memory or concentration, acroparasthesias; severe cases may present with dementia-like symptoms

PE: tachycardia, pallor, glossitis, angular cheilitis, poor mini-cog performance

  • Malabsorption – often autoimmune or secondary to drugs*
  • More mental symptoms*
84
Q

Macrocytic Anemia

Labs (2)*

Rx (4)*

F/U

A

Labs: CBC, CMP, vitamin B12 and folate levels, ferritin; consider AUDIT or other EtOH screening and mini-cog testing

Rx: PO or IM supplementation of vitamin B12 and PO folate; if EtOH is factor referral to treatment and PO thiamine

F/U: Depending on severity but generally 2-4 weeks post start of supplementation for symptom check and linkage to other referrals and Q3months after; monitor for correction of macrocytosis in CBC

85
Q

Sickle cell disease (SCD) & sickle cell trait (SCT)

=

Cause

Variants? Standard part of ____ screen n the USA

A

Inherited group of Hemolytic Anemias

Results from substitution of VAL for GLU in the B subunit of Hb at the 6th position → HB polymerization → RBC destruction

Most commonly HbSS but variants include HbSC, HbS𝛃+, HbS𝛃0, HbSE, etc…, Standard part of newborn screen in USA

86
Q

Sickle Cell Disease/Trait Major Complication

(1) → (4)

A

Microvascular occlusion and ischemia

  1. Anemia
  2. Painful episodes/ chronic pain
  3. Immuno-compromise
  4. Multisystem organ dysfunction
87
Q

Sickle cell inheritance

Type of Inheritance

Usual gene =

SCD =

SCT =

A

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

HbAA

SCD = 2 dysfunctional genes for Hb production

SCT = 1 dysfunctional gene

88
Q

SCD Presentation

  • FMHx: parent with (1) or (1); unexplained ______
  • S/S:
    • General : fatigue, weakness, weight loss, acute/chronic p____
    • Skin: p____ or y_____ mucous membranes or palms, y_____ eyes, ed____, non-healing w_____
    • CV/Pulm: pal_____, S___
A
  • FMHx: parent with SCD or SCT; unexplained anemia
  • S/S:
    • General : fatigue, weakness, weight loss, acute/chronic pain
    • Skin: pale or yellow mucous membranes or palms, yellow eyes, edema, non-healing wounds
    • CV/Pulm: palpitations, SOB

Usually thin bc metabolism needs them to constantly put out blood

89
Q

SCD Presentation Physical Exam

  • General appearance - acutely distressed during (1)
  • Vitals - ____ HR in crisis and/or normotensive with ____ pulse pressures
  • Skin - j____, mucous membrane p___, open/non-healing ul____ on shins/ankles
  • HEENT - conjunctival p____, scleral ic____,
  • Heart- ____cardia, flow m_____
  • Abdomen - hepato_____, _____spleen (HbSS) or spleno____ (HbSC)
  • Neuro - mild ______ impairments in those with history of stroke or silent cerebral infarcts; hyperalgesia/allodynia
  • Psych - dep____, poor m____ and con_____
A
  • General appearance - acutely distressed during (1)
  • Vitals - ↑HR in crisis and/or normotensive with wide pulse pressures
  • Skin - jaundice, mucous membrane pallor, open/non-healing ulcers on shins/ankles
  • HEENT - conjunctival pallor, scleral icterus,
  • Heart- tachycardia, flow murmurs
  • Abdomen - hepatomegaly, absent spleen (HbSS) or splenomegaly (HbSC)
  • Neuro - mild cognitive impairments in those with history of stroke or silent cerebral infarcts; hyperalgesia/allodynia
  • Psych - depression, poor memory and concentration
90
Q

SCD Labs and Testing

______cytic anemia with evidence of hemo____

  • CBC + R____, BMP, LFT (total and direct b___), (1) → routine monitoring or during crisis
  • (2) → q3-6 months depending on clinical presentation
  • (1) annually
  • (1) → q1-2years for screening in those with baseline SOB
A

Normocytic anemia with evidence of hemolysis

  • CBC + Retics, BMP, LFT (total and direct bili), LDH → routine monitoring or during crisis
  • HbEP, Ferritin → q3-6 months depending on clinical presentation
  • Dilated eye exam with MD → annually due to risk of SCD retinopathy
  • Echo → q1-2years for screening in those with baseline SOB

hbEP = hemoglobin electrophoresis

91
Q

SCD Rx (Disease modifying therapies)

  • (1) → ↑Hb F which ↓ polymerization; only therapy proven to ↓ mortality
  • (1) → ↓ oxidative stress and ↓ frequency of pain crises
  • (1) → ↓ polymerization, ↓ hemolysis and ↑ Hb levels
  • (1) → ↓ frequency of pain crisis and hospitalizations
A
  • Hydroxyrurea → ↑Hb F which ↓ polymerization; only therapy proven to ↓ mortality
  • L-glutamine → ↓ oxidative stress and ↓ frequency of pain crises
  • Voxelotor → ↓ polymerization, ↓ hemolysis and ↑ Hb levels
  • Crizanlizumab → ↓ frequency of pain crisis and hospitalizations

Very appropriate to use opiates in acute pain crises in SCD

92
Q

SCD Management with Heme and PCP

  • HCM→ PCP updates i______ (_____ schedule) & routine screenings; coordinate MDT
  • Heme → D_ _x, CBC monitoring, acute crisis, disease specific H_ _
  • Pain → sometimes Heme but may be managed by other pain specialists
A
  • HCM→ PCP updates immunizations (asplenic schedule) & routine screenings; coordinate MDT
  • Heme → DMTx, CBC monitoring, acute crisis, disease specific HCM
  • Pain → sometimes Heme but may be managed by other pain specialists
93
Q
  1. Leukemia
  • Group of malignancies of hematopoetic tissues
    • Classically associated with __creased white cells in BM or peripherally
    • Etiology is largely idiopathic
  • Classified by origin and chronicity of changes
    • (1) cell lines - RBC, PLT, Granulocytes and Monocytes
      • Acute =
      • Chronic =
    • (1) cell lines - Lymphocytes and NK cells
      • Acute =
      • Chronic =
A
  • Group of malignancies of hematopoetic tissues
    • Classically associated with increased white cells in BM or peripherally
    • Etiology is largely idiopathic
  • Classified by origin and chronicity of changes
    • Myeloid cell lines - RBC, PLT, Granulocytes and Monocytes
      • Acute - AML
      • Chronic - CML
    • Lymphoid cell lines - Lymphocytes and NK cells
      • Acute - ALL
      • Chronic – CLL

Known risk factors: other heme disorders, chemical exposures, some medications, ionizing radiation, viral infections, heredity

94
Q

Leukemia S/S, PE

  • S/S: F_____, ____ness, _____ness, pal_____ (see anemia)
  • PE: f____, pa____, br____, pet____, ____cardia
A
  • S/S: Fatigue, weakness, dizziness, palpitations (see anemia)
  • PE: fever, pallor, bruising, petechiae, tachycardia

Symptoms are vague and may vary according to progression of disease. Symptoms are similar to those with anemia but may not have anemia on CBC.

95
Q

Leukemia Treatment

(4)

A
  1. Active surveillance
  2. Symptom management
  3. Induction, Consolidation chemotherapy
  4. HSCT (allo or haplo)

Treatment is super variable as well depending on specific symptoms, disease progression and findings

96
Q

Leukemia Blasts

Blasts on the smear are?

  • Difficult to d_____ on your own when looking at smear
  • Note ____ counts
  • Hematologic e______
  • ____ day referral to hematology office or send to closest ___
A

Blasts on the smear are not normal!

  • Difficult to differentiate on your own when looking at smear
  • Note WBC counts
  • Hematologic emergency
  • Same day referral to hematology office or send to closest ER
97
Q
  1. Lymphomas

Group of malignancies of lymphatic system

  • Diverse group of malignancies
  • Originate from (2) cells
  • May present with anemias or other (1)
  • Traditionally have ____ cure rates
A
  • Diverse group of malignancies
  • Originate from immature and/or mature lymphocytes; sometimes NK cells
  • May present with anemias or other cytopenias
  • Traditionally have high cure rates
98
Q

Lymphoma Classes

(2), (2)

A

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma (NHL)

Hodgkins Lymphoma (HL) → Classic vs. Nodular lymphocyte

  • NHL is much more common than HL at about a 9:1 ratio*
  • Can also further differentiate type by system or tissue involved: CNS lymphoma, Primary gastric, Follicular, Cutaneous, Bone marrow*
99
Q

Non-Hodgkins Lymphoma Risk Factors

  • Age > ___
  • Gender? (slight and variable by subtype)
  • Race?
  • Exposure to ben____, insect____, or herb____
  • Ionizing _____
  • ______ disease (SLE, RA, etc)
  • ______ infections which directly impact lymphocytes (EBV, HTLV-1)
  • Chronic immuno______
  • H___ infection
  • Inherited i_____ disorders
A
  • Age > 60
  • ♂>♀ (slight and variable by subtype)
  • Caucasian
  • Exposure to benzene, insecticides, or herbicides
  • Ionizing radiation
  • Autoimmune disease (SLE, RA, etc)
  • Viral infections which directly impact lymphocytes (EBV, HTLV-1)
  • Chronic immunosuppression
  • HIV infection
  • Inherited immune disorders
100
Q

NHL Presentation

  • Describe the lymphadenopathy, is it painful?
  • Liver, Spleen?
  • Cyto_____
  • Systemic symptoms (3)
  • Symptoms may also be system specific if affected lymph nodes are ______ ( ie: GI symptoms of anorexia, early satiety, N/V, abdominal pain, GI obstruction, perforation, hemorrhage, etc.).
A
  • Enlarged painless lymphadenopathy
  • Hepatosplenomegaly
  • Cytopenias
  • Systemic symptoms : fever, night sweats, unintentional weight loss (aggressive cases)
  • Symptoms may also be system specific if affected lymph nodes are localized ( ie: GI symptoms of anorexia, early satiety, N/V, abdominal pain, GI obstruction, perforation, hemorrhage, etc.).
101
Q

Hodgkins Lymphoma Risk Factors

  • Bimodal distribution with regard to age: young adults (~__ yo) and older adults (~__ yo).
  • Previous (1) viral infection
  • gender? (slight)
  • F____ history of lymphoma
  • _____ SES
  • H ___ infection
  • FHx: nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma
A
  • Bimodal distribution with regard to age: young adults (~20 yo) and older adults (~65 yo).
  • Previous EBV infection
  • ♂>♀ (slight)
  • Family history of lymphoma
  • Higher SES
  • HIV infection
  • FHx: nodular sclerosis Hodgkin lymphoma
102
Q

Hodgkins Lymphoma Presentation

  • lymphadenopathy?
    • Mostly above the (1)
  • Pel-Ebstein fever (~⅓)
    • cyclic about every __-__ days
  • C____, Chest _____ +/- SOB when large m______ mass or l___ involved
  • Pr_____
  • E____ induced pain at nodal sites
  • B___ or b___ pain
A
  • Asymptomatic lymphadenopathy
    • Mostly above the diaphragm
  • Pel-Ebstein fever (~⅓)
    • cyclic about every 7-10 days
  • Cough, CP +/- SOB when large mediastinal mass or lung involved
  • Pruritis
  • EtOH induced pain at nodal sites
  • Back or bone pain
103
Q

Lymphoma Workup

Labs (2), (2) inflammatory markers

Imaging (5)

Biopsy (3)

Immunophenotyping (2)

Chromosomal (2)

A
  • Labs: CBC, CMP, LDH, CRP
  • Imaging: XR, US, CT, PET-CT, MRI
  • Biopsy: Lymph node, BM or now “liquid” biopsy
  • Immunophenotyping: IHC, flow cytometry
  • Chromosomal: FISH, PCR
  • Labs: helpful for prognosticating but do not establish the diagnosis*
  • Imaging: stage the disease and offer insight into prognosis; do not establish dx. MRI helpful with CNS involvement*
  • Biopsy: only thing that can establish the dx; liquid bx are relatively new but often have long turn around times so not always useful if treatment decisions need to happen rapidly*
104
Q

Lymphoma Treatment

  • Active ______
  • S_____ management
  • Cytotoxic _____
  • _____therapy
  • R_____
  • H_ _ _
A
  • Active surveillance
  • Symptom management
  • Cytotoxic chemotherapy
  • Immunotherapy
  • Radiation
  • HSCT
105
Q
  1. Hemostasis Abnormalities

Hemostasis

  • (1) → initial clot formation after injury from vessel elasticity and platelets
    • (1) pathway - PT/INR
    • Warning: muco_____ bleeding
  • (1) → development of a fibrin based clot
    • (1) pathway - PTT
    • Warning: deep hema____ or j____ bleeds
  • Bleeding challenges → event that causes bleeding
    • Surgery, vaginal delivery, dental extraction, trauma, etc…
  • Major bleed → event that causes fall in Hb of ≥ __ g/dL
A
  • Primary → initial clot formation after injury from vessel elasticity and platelets
    • Intrinsic pathway - PT/INR
    • Warning: mucocutaneous bleeding
  • Secondary → development of a fibrin based clot
    • Extrinsic pathway - PTT
    • Warning: deep hematomas or joint bleeds
  • Bleeding challenges → event that causes bleeding
    • Surgery, vaginal delivery, dental extraction, trauma, etc…
  • Major bleed → event that causes fall in Hb of ≥ 2 g/dL

These are some important terms you may need in discussing bleeding disorders with members of a hematology team

106
Q

Bleeding History

  • Start with a good history of any specific bleeding events → OLD CART
    • Provoked? When and where? Age?
    • Any previous major bleeding challenges? → appropriate clotting at the time?
    • Any major bleed events? →S_____, tr______ or IV ____ replacement
A
  • Start with a good history of any specific bleeding events → OLD CART
  • Provoked? When and where? Age?
  • Any previous major bleeding challenges? → appropriate clotting at the time?
  • Any major bleed events? →Surgery, transfusions or IV iron replacement

History of bleeding significant enough to require surgery, transfusions or IV iron should get you thinking about an undiscovered bleeding disorder. Likewise a bleed that did not require this interventions is suggestive of not having a bleeding disorder but a basic review of CBC and coags would be advisable.

107
Q

Bleeding History

  • PMH → r___, l___ or thy____ disease; _____ tissue disorders; personal history of c____
  • FHx → Cancer, V___, hemophilias, family members with HMB
  • Social Hx → EtOH use, synthetic THC
  • Medications/supplements → antic_____ and antip____
    • A_ , N____, steroids, antibiotics, SSRI, vit E, garlic, turmeric, ____ oil*, ginko, etc
  • (1) Hx → onset, frequency, duration, flow, other family members
    • Ask about # of pads/tampons used rather than light, moderate or heavy flow
    • Passage of clots > size of quarter
A
  • PMH → renal, liver or thyroid disease; connective tissue disorders; personal history of cancer
  • FHx → Cancer, VWD, hemophilias, family members with HMB
  • Social Hx → EtOH use, synthetic THC
  • Medications/supplements → anticoagulant and antiplatelet
    • ASA, NSAIDs, steroids, antibiotics, SSRI, vit E, garlic, turmeric, fish oil*, ginko, etc
  • Menstrual Hx → onset, frequency, duration, flow, other family members
    • Ask about # of pads/tampons used rather than light, moderate or heavy flow
    • Passage of clots > size of quarter
  • Renal → platelet dysfunction*
  • Liver → produces clotting factors and albumin*
  • Thyroid → acquired VWD*
  • *fish oil is traditionally thought to contribute to bleeding however the evidence suggest that while platelet aggregation is affected; it did not impact perioperative bleeding in one meta-analysis (Begtrup, Krag and Hvas, 2017).*
108
Q

Cutaneous Bleeding

  • (1): small flat red discrete areas < 2mm
  • (1): collections of petechiae; usually flat but sometimes palpable depending on cause.
  • (1): subQ collection of blood that remains flat to skin
  • (1): Collection of blood in extravascular space and may raise skin or cause pain in deep tissues
A
  • Petechiae: small flat red discrete areas < 2mm
  • Purpura: collections of petechiae; usually flat but sometimes palpable depending on cause.
  • Ecchymosis: subQ collection of blood that remains flat to skin
  • Hematoma: Collection of blood in extravascular space and may raise skin or cause pain in deep tissues
  • A brief visual atlas of some cutaneous findings associated with bleeding*
  • Generally listed as increasing in size from large to small; however, not to be confused with importance. Some larger findings like ecchymosis with a known explanation and without impediment to resolving is far less concerning than recurrent diffuse petichiae.*
  • Takeaway – ecchymosis vs. hematoma*
109
Q

Other cutaneous findings associated with bleeding

  • (1): Dilated or broken blood vessels near surface of skin
  • Perif_____ hemorrhage
  • (1): Absence of melanin in skin and hair
A
  • Telangiectasias: Dilated or broken blood vessels near surface of skin
  • Perifollicular hemorrhage
  • Albinism: Absence of melanin in skin and hair
  • Telangictasias - on lips mouth or fingers may be associated with hereditary bleeding disorders*
  • Perifolicular hemorrhage - classically associated with scurvy*
  • Oculocutenous albinism - can be associated with platelet disorders*
  • Other physical exam findings are certainly relevant and should be considered. Patients with recurrent bleeding may present with symptoms of anemia as they are chronically losing Hb.*
110
Q

So I have a patient that is bleeding… now what?

  • Review their history and symptoms as previously stated
    • Any previous bleeding that needed (3) is a red flag
    • Known con____ syndromes
A
  • Review their history and symptoms as previously stated
    • Any previous bleeding that needed surgery, IV iron or transfusion is a red flag
    • Known congenital syndromes
111
Q

So I have a patient that is bleeding… now what?

PE

  • Skin:
    • Evidence of bleeding → _____cytopenias
    • Pallor → bleeding leading to a____
    • Skin el_____ → EDS
  • Chest: systolic murmur → bleeding causing anemia? (1) disease (harsh murmur)
  • Abdomen: hepatosplenomegaly → (1) disease?
  • MSK: joint l___ → EDS
A
  • Skin:
    • Evidence of bleeding → thrombocytopenias
    • Pallor → bleeding leading to anemia
    • Skin elasticity → EDS
  • Chest: systolic murmur → bleeding causing anemia? VWD (harsh murmur)
  • Abdomen: hepatosplenomegaly → liver disease?
  • MSK: joint laxity → EDS
112
Q

So I have a patient that is bleeding… what do I test?

No “one size fits all” for suspected bleeding disorders

  • Start with the basics → obtain (3)
  • Do we have enough (1)? Do they appear normal?
  • Is there a problem in the (1), (1), or (1) pathway?
  • How f____ and s____ are the changes occurring? Do I need to refer to a _____ level of care?
A
  • Start with the basics → obtain CBC, PT/INR and PTT
  • Do we have enough platelets? Do they appear normal?
  • Is there a problem in the intrinsic, extrinsic or common pathway?
  • How fast and sever are the changes occurring? Do I need to refer to a higher level of care?
  • No specific testing or work up exist for general bleeding disorders but general starting points include*
  • CBC → platelet function and morphology*
  • PT/PTT → intrinsic and extrinsic pathways*
113
Q

So I have a patient that is bleeding… what do I test?

What does the history suggest?

  • Common inherited bleeding disorders → (3)
  • Drug toxicities → overdose on anti_____; change in _____ or ______ function affecting dosing
  • In general: bleeding emergencies are determined on history and clinical presentation; no need to wait for an extensive work up
A
  • Common inherited bleeding disorders → VWD, Hemophilia A (Factor VIII deficiency) and Hemophilia B (Factor IX deficiency)
  • Drug toxicities → overdose on anticoagulation; change in renal or hepatic function affecting dosing
  • In general: bleeding emergencies are determined on history and clinical presentation; no need to wait for an extensive work up
  • Defer to Heme to order unless confident of a particular diagnosis and intend to initially manage it. → PFA, Mixing studies → deficiency of factors vs inhibition of factors, Thrombin, Fibrinogen, Factor assays, VWF antigen, Vitamin K , levelsAnticoagulant levels*
  • Refer early and often to Heme for suspected bleeding disorders*
114
Q

Chronic Causes of Thrombocytopenia

  • (1) → TPO production of liver drops
  • (1) → history of thrombosis or recurrent pregnancy loss; associated with Rheum dz’s
  • (1) → antibody mediated platelet destruction
A
  • Liver disease → TPO production of liver drops
  • APLS (antiphospholipid syndrome) → history of thrombosis or recurrent pregnancy loss; associated with Rheum dz’s
  • ITP → antibody mediated platelet destruction
115
Q

Acute Causes of Thrombocytopenia

(may also be associated with thrombosis)

  • (1) → use up all platelets and clotting factors in small vessel resulting in disseminated bleeding; associated with sepsis
  • (1) → aHUS, TTP, (associated with MAHA); emergent
  • (1) → prior heparin exposure (usually UFH or LMWH)
  • (1) → 5-30 days post vaccination with J&J or AZ covid vaccines; rare/emergent
A
  • DIC → use up all platelets and clotting factors in small vessel resulting in disseminated bleeding; associated with sepsis
  • TMA→ aHUS, TTP, (associated with MAHA); emergent
  • HIT → prior heparin exposure (usually UFH or LMWH)
  • VIITT → 5-30 days post vaccination with J&J or AZ covid vaccines; rare/emergent
  • Also think broadly like infections and medications as these may present either acutely or chronically*
  • Please do not wait until platelest are critically low to refer*
116
Q

Thrombocytopenia Levels and Implications

  • <100k - hold (1), obtain (1) for others
  • <50k - hold *(1)
  • <20k - risk of (1), send to (1)
A
  • <100k - hold high risk surgeries (cardiac, ortho, neuro); obtain heme clearance for other surgeries
  • <50k - hold all surgeries; high risk of surgical bleed and mortality
  • <20k - risk of spontaneous brain bleed and death; send to ED
117
Q

Basic Coags: PT and PTT

  • PT _____/ PTT ____ → Extrinsic pathway
    • Drug toxicity (VKA), vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, DIC, plasma cell dyscrasia (MGUS, MM, etc…)
    • Inherited Factor ____ deficiency is rare but also a possibility
  • PT ____ / PTT _____ → Intrinsic pathway
    • DOACs (rare but possible) VWD/aVWD (severe), hemophilias, factor deficiencies,
    • Antibody inhibition of pathway 2/2 pregnancy, malignancy or connective tissue disorders
  • ____ PT and PTT _____ → common pathway
    • Anticoagulant toxicity (VKA, Heparins or DOACs), liver disease, amyloidosis, DIC
    • Factor deficiencies or inhibition
A
  • PT abnormal / PTT normal → Extrinsic pathway
    • Drug toxicity (VKA), vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, DIC, plasma cell dyscrasia (MGUS, MM, etc…)
    • Inherited Factor VII deficiency is rare but also a possibility
  • PT normal / PTT abnormal → Intrinsic pathway
    • DOACs (rare but possible) VWD/aVWD (severe), hemophilias, factor deficiencies,
    • Antibody inhibition of pathway 2/2 pregnancy, malignancy or connective tissue disorders
  • Both PT and PTT abnormal → common pathway
    • Anticoagulant toxicity (VKA, Heparins or DOACs), liver disease, amyloidosis, DIC
    • Factor deficiencies or inhibition

Remember this is just a starting point for investigations and you should be thinking what picture fits these symptoms and what disorders do I not want to miss to guide testing.

118
Q

Negative work up so far?

Consider (1) Disease

=

  • Commonly (1) in menstruating persons, (1) bleeding, post-op bleeding, and/or easy br_____
  • Typically has _____ platelet counts, PT and PTT but some variation according to severity
  • Consider testing and referral to heme → Factor ____, VWF ____, Rist____ cofactor + coll____ binding
  • Will need support prior to elective surgeries such as DDAVP and tranexamic acid depending on findings and severity

Beyond this → strongly advise referral to Heme for stable patients

You are never wrong to consult/refer a stable patient

A

Von Willebrand Disease (VWD)

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

  • Commonly HMB in menstruating persons, mucocutaneous bleeding, post-op bleeding, and/or easy bruising,
  • Typically has normal platelet counts, PT and PTT but some variation according to severity
  • Consider testing and referral to heme → Factor VIII, VWF antigen, Ristocetin cofactor + collagen binding
  • Will need support prior to elective surgeries such as DDAVP and tranexamic acid depending on findings and severity

Beyond this → strongly advise referral to Heme for stable patients

You are never wrong to consult/refer a stable patient

119
Q

Venous Thromboembolism (VTE)

=

  • (1) → large vessels of upper or lower extremities
  • (1) → migration of clot to lungs impairing gas exchange.

_____ threatening and need immediate intervention even when a_____.

A

Abnormal clotting of deep venous system with threatened or actual migration of clots to lungs.

  • Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) → large vessels of upper or lower extremities
  • Pulmonary embolism (PE) → migration of clot to lungs impairing gas exchange.

Life threatening and need immediate intervention even when asymptomatic.

Clot formation in venous sinus, portal vein, renal and mesenteric supplies are also possible but much more rare and managed differently.

120
Q

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

Virchow’s Triad

A

Vessel wall damage

Turbulent flow (Venous stasis)

Hypercoagulability

121
Q

DVT Risk Factors

Every 1/____ adults

  • Constitutional: ____ age, ob___, pr_____, sm____, imm____, IV__U
  • PMH: recent tr____/s___, any ca___, sep___, O__ use, previous DVT, recent venous access, hypercoagulable genetic disorder, APLS =
A

Every 1/1000 adults

  • Constitutional: older age, obese, pregnancy, smoker, immobility, IVDU
  • PMH: recent trauma/surgery, any cancer, sepsis, OCP use, previous DVT, recent venous access, hypercoagulable genetic disorder, APLS (antiphospholipid syndrome)
122
Q

DVT Presentation

S/S (3)

PE:

  • Limb ed_____; bilateral if high enough to affect pelvic circulation
  • Limb er____, w____and di____ of blood vessels
  • +/- ____ to palpation
  • Homans test use?
A

S/S:

  • Unilateral swelling below suspected thrombus (~70%); rare but can be bilateral
  • Pain at site of thrombus (~50%)
  • Redness below thrombus

PE:

  • Limb edema; bilateral if high enough to affect pelvic circulation
  • Limb erythema, warmth and dilation of blood vessels
  • +/- tenderness to palpation
  • Homans test is not particularly useful
123
Q

DVT Workup

Imaging (1)

Labs (2) - useful to guide tx if no baseline

Labs (1) not too useful in practice, don’t use to guide decision making

(1) Score

A

Venous Duplex US

CBC, PT/PTT - useful to guide tx if no baseline

D-Dimer not too useful in practice, don’t use to guide decision making

Well’s Score

124
Q

Pulmonary Embolism

  • Epidemiology: 50-100/100k adults
  • Risk factors: similar to DVT
  • Mechanism: Virchow’s Triad
    • m____ of DVT; can arise de novo
  • S/S
    • D____
    • Pl_____ CP
    • Cough → Hemo____
    • Weak/Dizzy
    • Syn____/Pre-syncope
    • Sudden D_____ Anxiety
A
  • Epidemiology: 50-100/100k adults
  • Risk factors: similar to DVT
  • Mechanism: Virchow’s Triad
    • migration of DVT; can arise de novo
  • S/S
    • Dyspnea
    • Pleuritic CP
    • Cough → Hemoptysis
    • Weak/Dizzy
    • Syncope/Pre-syncope
    • Sudden Death Anxiety
125
Q

Pulmonary Embolism PE

  • Skin =
  • RR =
  • HR =
  • ______ breath sounds
  • ______ neck veins
  • PE findings of DVT
A
  • Pallor/cyanosis
  • Tachypnea
  • Tachycardia
  • Decreased breath sounds
  • Distended neck veins
  • PE findings of DVT
126
Q

Pulmonary Embolism Workup

If unstable →

  • EKG → tachy to brady or ____ complex tachycardia with (1)
  • (1) scan (CXR has little utility)
  • Echo → ____ heart strain
  • Labs (3)
  • (1) score
A

Send to ED if unstable

  • EKG → tachy to brady or wide complex tachycardia with RBBB
  • CTPE (CT pulmonary angiogram)/ VQ scan (CXR has little utility)
  • Echo → right heart strain
  • D-dimer, BNP, Troponin
  • Well’s score
127
Q

VTE Treatment Options

(3)(1), (3), (3)

A

Supportive Therapy

Anticoagulation

  1. Acute = UFH or LMWH, sometimes VKA or DOAC
  2. Chronic = DOAC preferred on a taper schedule, duration depends → VKA if unable to tolerate DOAC
  3. Pregnant = LMWH

Reperfusion

(limb threatening or life threatening PE)

  1. Thrombolysis
  2. Thrombectomy
  3. Surgical Embolectomy
128
Q
  1. Other Bone Marrow Disorders
    (2) -(1)
A

Aplastic Anemia

Myleoproliferative Neoplasms (MPNs)

Polycythemia Vera (most common MPN)

129
Q

Aplastic Anemia

=

Mortality =

What should you do?

Workup/Tx =

A

Bone marrow failure → Pancytopenia asctd w injury to hematopoetic stem cells → Reticulocytopenia

Life threatening, High mortality

Same day referral to Heme or ED if unable or hemodynamically unstable

Will need BMBx and depending on depth of cytopenia, immediate admission for HSCT

  • Patients with AA are at high risk fo sepsis*
  • Please do not refer a septic patient to Heme; we are just going to send them to the ED*
130
Q

Aplastic Anemia Causes and Presentation

Causes = (1) tx, en____ exposures, in______, i____ disorders, etc

Presents with recurrent (1), mucosal (1), and profound progressive (1)

A

Causes = cancer tx, meds, environmental exposures, infection, immune d/o, etc…

Presents with recurrent infections, mucosal hemorrhages and profound progressive anemia

131
Q

Myeloproliferaive Neoplasms (MPNs)

(2) rare

(1) most common

A

Essential Thrombocythemia

Myelofibrosis

Polycythemia Vera

MPNs arise from a mutation in the hematopoetic stem cells

132
Q

Essential Thrombocythemia (rare)

=

Increases risk of (2)

  • (2) gene mutations most commonly asctd with
  • (1) age >, (1) gender

Symptoms = are vague and may mimic (1), may also present with bl______

Treatment = may include ob_____, anti (2), or rx (1)

A

BM produces too many platelets

↑ risk of VTE and arterial clots (MI and CVA)

  • JAK2, CALR gene mutations
  • >60yo, female > male

Symptoms = are vague and may mimic anemias, may also present with bleeding

Treatment = may include observation, antiplatelet/anticoagulation, or Hydroxyurea

133
Q

Myelofibrosis (rare)

=

  • (4) gene mutations most commonly associated

Symptoms (may be asymptomatic but gradually progressive, may present with)

  • extreme an____
  • bl____ symptoms and frequent inf_____
  • ______ pain
  • hepatospleno_____ due to extra_____ (1)

Treatment = depends on progression and may include obs______, PO Rx (1) (-nibs) and/or eventual (1)

A

BM becomes fibrotic with abnormal cells

  • JAK2, CALR, MPL, TET2 gene mutations most commonly associated

Symptoms (may be asymptomatic but gradually progressive, may present with)

  • extreme anemia
  • bleeding symptoms and frequent infections
  • abdominal pain
  • hepatosplenomegaly due to extramedullary erythropoiesis

Treatment = depends on progression and may include observation, PO small molecule inhibitors (-nibs) and/or eventual HCST

134
Q

Polycythemia Vera

=

Different from other MPN as the RBC mass is distinctly elevated (not enough to establish Dx)

Risks

  • >__yo more common (~75% of cases)
  • ionizing r_____ and b____ exposure
  • (1) mutation -not clearly inheritable but some family predispositions are known

Treatment (Treated can be managed for years)

  • Requires (1) due to risk of conversion to (3)
A

Clonal proliferation of myeloid cells → not all mature or functional

Different from other MPN as the RBC mass is distinctly elevated (not enough to establish Dx)

Risks

  • >50yo more common (~75% of cases)
  • ionizing radiation and benzene exposure
  • 2/2 JAK2 mutation not clearly inheritable but some family predispositions are known

Treatment (Treated can be managed for years)

  • Requires close supervision due to risk of conversion to MF, AML, MDS
135
Q

Polycythemia Vera Presentation

  • S/S: H__, d___ess, v____ disturbances, pr____ especially after (1), early s____
  • PE: f____ plethora, spleno_____, exc_____, gouty tophi
  • PMH: hyper____, arterial ______ (MI/CVA), V__
  • CBC will show?
A
  • S/S: HA, dizziness, visual disturbances, pruritus after a warm bath, early satiety
  • PE: facial plethora, splenomegaly, excoriations, gouty tophi
  • PMH: HTN,arterial thrombosis (MI/CVA), VTE
  • CBC will show elevated H/H
  • Pruritis - after a warm bath; described as unbearable/burning and commonly on chest, back, medial arms and ventral legs.*
  • Facial plethora - fullness and redness; thing cushingoid with flushing*
136
Q

Polycythemia Vera WHO Lab Findings

  • Hb > ___ g/dL (73%), WBC > ____ k/uL, Plt> ___ k/uL
  • Elevated (1) inflammatory marker (50%)
  • (1) gene mutation (98%)
  • Low (1) (81%)
A
  • Hb > 18.5 g/dL (73%), WBC > 10.5k/uL, Plt>450k/uL
  • Elevated LDH (50%)
  • JAK2 + (98%)
  • Low Epo (81%)
  • Criteria listed here are to help you when in suspicion of PV; I would not recommend ordering genetic testing in primary care setting as it will not likely be paid for, is very expensive, not diagnostic and will not be managed in primary care setting.*
  • This is more so a guide on who to refer to hematology based on previous testing. You do not need to draw any additional labs to refer if you have an elevated H/H. If you have a good relationship with them get a peripheral smear you can send them otherwise the will just make one in the office. Diagnosis can get complicated due to the differentials but will likely include red cell mass study and some may order BM biopsy to rule out other pathology.*
137
Q

Polycythemia Vera Treatments

Therapeutic (1)

Low dose (1)

Cytoreductive therapy Rx ie (1)

A

Therapeutic phlebotomy

Low dose ASA

Cytoreductive therapy (Hydroxyurea)

138
Q
  1. Special Populations

Anemia in (4)

A

Anemia in Pregnancy, Newborns, Children, Older Adults

139
Q

Anemia in Children

What is the most common cause of anemia in children?

  • Screen at __-__ months, draw (2)
  • Consider excessive consumption of (1) in children 1-3yo, why?
  • Ask about (1) exposure in the home (paint, dust, pipes, parental employment, live near airport)
  • Menstruating young adults may also have heavy ____ bleeding evaluated as a cause
A

Iron Deficiency Anemia

  • Screen at 9-12 months, draw iron panel*, lead*
  • Consider excessive consumption of cow’s milk in children 1-3yo, Ca+ can displace Fe+ absorption
  • Ask about lead exposure in the home (paint, dust, pipes, parental employment, live near airport)
  • Menstruating young adults may also have heavy menstrual bleeding evaluated as a cause
  • Please ignore racialized data; look at this as a range of normals and always consider symptoms even if someone has a classically appropriate Hb to further explore.*
  • Screening at birth for SCD and G6PD; repeat at 4 months of age*
140
Q

Anemia in Children

Differences in Racial and Ethnic Groups

  • (1) → X linked; Southern Med, SWANA and African ancestry
  • (1) →Variable depending on genotype; African and Latino ancestry most commonly in USA (also known to those of South Asian, Southern Med and SWANA ancestry)
  • (1) → African, Southern Med, SWANA, and South Asian ancestry
A
  • G6PD → X linked; Southern Med, SWANA and African ancestry
  • Hgbpathies→Variable depending on genotype; African and Latino ancestry most commonly in USA (also known to those of South Asian, Southern Med and SWANA ancestry)
  • Thalassemias → African, Southern Med, SWANA, and South Asian ancestry
141
Q

Anemia in Pregnancy

Majority is due to absent _____ stores

Please remember to screen and treat (1) anemia in pregnancy!

  • __% of reproductive age women globally are anemic (WHO, 2018)
  • Many have iron deficiency WITH____anemia
  • Also do not close the diagnosis on IDA or Ph__ if anemia has unexplained factors.
A

Majority is due to absent iron stores

Please remember to screen and treat iron deficiency anemia in pregnancy!

  • 40% of reproductive age women globally are anemic (WHO, 2018)
  • Many have iron deficiency WITHOUT anemia
  • Also do not close the diagnosis on IDA or PhysA if anemia has unexplained factors.

SCREEN ALL PREGNANT PATIENTS FOR IDA/other anemias* get cbc and iron panel

142
Q

Anemia in Pregnancy Patho

Why does anemia happen in pregnancy?

  • (1) → physiological anemia
  • (1) → associated with NSVD
A

Pregnancy increases demand for iron and other nutrients (Vit B12/B9) for fetal tissue and rbc production

  • Expanding blood volume → physiological anemia
  • Blood loss associated with NSVD
143
Q

Anemia in Pregnancy Supplementation

(1)

  • Standard dose =
  • Hemolytic states dose =

(1) consider if depleted, esp in 3rd semester, which formulation?

A

Folic Acid Supplementation

  • Standard dose = 400-800ug daily
  • Hemolytic states dose = 5mg daily

IV Iron Sucrose* (only formulation allowed in pregnancy)

  • Folic acid supplementation should start prior to conception whenever possible*
  • Folic acid 5mg daily is weakly evidence based but fairly representative of what is the standard recommendation among those in hematology. Very little risk of harm as Vit B’s are water soluble and excess will just be urinated out.*
144
Q

Anemia in Pregnancy -Iron Supplementation

A
145
Q

Anemia in Newborns and Infants

(3)

A

Prematurity

Blood Loss

Hemolytic Anemias

146
Q

Hemolytic Anemias in Newborns

  • (1) or (1) incompatibility
  • Twin to twin _____
  • Congenital in_____
  • (1) Deficiency, s____cytosis, etc
  • H______opathy
A
  • Rh or ABO incompatibility
  • Twin to twin transfusion
  • Congenital infection
  • G6PD, spherocytosis, etc
  • Hemoglobinopathy
147
Q

Anemia Ranges in Newborns

A
148
Q

Anemia in Newborns Notes

  • NBs are screened for (2) at birth in the US; however, this is not always the case when patients are born abroad so don’t assume that they screened negative if you don’t have specific documentation stating a negative screen*
  • NBs and infants are not as likely to have a ________cause to anemia before 6 months of age; thus screening for nutritional causes begins around (1) months.*
  • Children with SCD may not present as anemic until around 6 months as they are born with high levels of (1) which prevents sickling of RBCs*
A
  • NBs are screened for SCD and SCT at birth in the US; however, this is not always the case when patients are born abroad so don’t assume that they screened negative if you don’t have specific documentation stating a negative screen*
  • NBs and infants are not as likely to have a nutritional cause to anemia before 6 months of age; thus screening for nutritional causes begins around 9 months.*
  • Children with SCD may not present as anemic until around 6 months as they are born with high levels of HbF which prevents sickling of RBCs*
149
Q

Anemia in Older Adults

  • Anemia in older adults has significant (1) and (1) associated with it.
  • Likelihood of anemia of (1) goes up but IDA does not go down
    • Annual exam: (2) at least
    • HCM: (1) should be up to date
    • ____ threshold to send for repeat labs and GI consult for new unexplained anemias
A
  • Anemia in older adults has significant morbidity and mortality associated with it.
  • Likelihood of anemia of chronic disease goes up but IDA does not go down
    • Annual exam: BMP and ferritin at least
    • HCM: colonoscopy should be up to date
    • Low threshold to send for repeat labs and GI consult for new unexplained anemias
  • Morbidity: decreased mobility, QOL, neuropsychiatric effects and risk of falls*
  • Mortality: both community dwelling and those in nursing facilities; especially problematic in those preparing for surgery and those with underlying chronic renal or cardiac disease*
150
Q

Anemia in Older Adults

  • Serum (1) can be useful in guiding exploration of anemia
    • <46 ng/mL → suspect (1) anemia; (1) referral and start PO (1); consider other iron studies but don’t wait to treat
    • 46-100 ng/dL → get (1) panel and (1); refer to (1)
      • If iron studies confirm IDA → (1)
      • BMP indicates CKD → send to (1)
      • No CKD, no IDA, no GIB → refer to (1)
    • >100 ng/dL → suspect hemoglobin_____; (1) test and/or referral to ____
  • Macrocytic anemias → review n_____, E____ use, and chronic Rx (1) use but generally helpful to consider at Heme consult
A
  • Serum ferritin can be useful in guiding exploration of anemia
    • <46 ng/mL → suspect IDA; GI referral and start PO iron; consider other iron studies but don’t wait to treat
    • 46-100 ng/dL → get iron panel and BMP; refer to GI
      • If iron studies confirm IDA → treat
      • BMP indicates CKD → send to renal
      • No CKD, no IDA, no GIB → refer to heme
    • >100 ng/dL → suspect hemoglobinopathies; HbEP and/or referral to heme
  • Macrocytic anemias → review nutrition, EtOH use, and chronic PPI use but generally helpful to consider at Heme consult

Ferritin and BMP screening are personal recommendations; not based on extensive literature review or society recommendations to my knowledge; HOWEVER, are very important if evaluating a new unexplained anemia

  • BMP assess for CKD by looking at sCr and any electrolyte or metabolic derangements
  • Increased risk of GIB due to Ca or ulcers from NSAID use as patients age
  • Likely anemia will be normocytic to microcytic but this is not something to split hairs about as the timing and rate of any blood loss will impact these; more important to thoroughly investigate this fully when noted.*
  • There are cases of macrocytic anemias and these can be concerning for processes such as chronic EtOH use, nutritional deficiencies and MDS. You may want to consider a Heme consult even with a known cause for macrocytic anemia in older adults due to the concern for heme malignancies as people age.*
  • Especially important to correct folate and B 12 deficiencies as this may mimic dementia
151
Q

Hematology Tips

  • Do not be afraid to call/email with questions about whether to refer or not (curbsiding is common and will likely get you a faster appointment).
  • When referring to general hematology send records over with at least a:
    • (1) with differential and R____
    • I___ studies, f___, vitamin (1), (1)
    • Peripheral _____ (depends on internal vs external referral)
  • Do not change anticoagulant/antiplatelet medications without speaking with us first if already an established Hematology patient.
  • Useful resources
    • American Society of Hematology “How I Treat” series
    • American Society of Hematology Pocket Guides App
A
  • Do not be afraid to call/email with questions about whether to refer or not (curbsiding is common and will likely get you a faster appointment).
  • When referring to general hematology send records over with at least a:
    • CBC with differential and Retic’s
    • Iron studies, ferritin, vitamin B12, folate
    • Peripheral smear (depends on internal vs external referral)
  • Do not change anticoagulant/antiplatelet medications without speaking with us first if already an established Hematology patient.
  • Useful resources
    • American Society of Hematology “How I Treat” series
    • American Society of Hematology Pocket Guides App

Send all the labs – want to trend!