GI Part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Nausea and Vomiting

A
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2
Q

N/V Clinical Presentation

A
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3
Q

N/V Associated Symptoms

  • Abdominal p____
  • H______, D____ness
  • Ti_____
  • Di______
  • F______
  • ______ status changes
  • Pr______
  • An_______
A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Headache
  • Dizziness
  • Tinnitus
  • Diarrhea
  • Fever
  • Mental status changes
  • Pregnancy
  • Anxiety
  • If a patient has NO symptoms of abdominal pain this may be indicative of serious illness, especially if they have neuro symptoms*
  • Neuro symptoms: Headache, visual disturbances, ataxia, vertigo*
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4
Q

Acute Emergencies

(5)

Usually accompanied by f___ or p___

A

Acute pancreatitis

Appendicitis

Bowel obstruction (SBO or Ileus)

Peritonitis

Cholecystitis

*Usually accompanied by fever or pain

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5
Q

Chronic or Recurrent N/V

  • May be p______
  • Result of r____ or ch_____
  • G_____ disorders
  • M_____ headaches (aura)
  • Diabetic gastrop_____
  • M_____ or e_____ abnormality
A
  • May be psychogenic
  • Result of radiation or chemotherapy
  • Gastric disorders
  • Migraine headaches (aura)
  • Diabetic gastroparesis
  • Metabolic or endocrine abnormality
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6
Q

N/V Physical

  • W_____, t______; _____ BP, p___ rate
  • Skin exam to assess t____, co____, mo_____, ra___
  • C_ exam
  • Abdominal exam to assess for dis_______, per_____, _____ness, ri____, re_____, m______
  • M____ status, g____, C_ function
  • Additional exam in children to include: Presence of t____, Urination or # wet (1)
A
  • Weight, temperature; orthostatic VS; pulse rate
  • Skin exam to assess turgor, color, moisture, rash
  • CV exam
  • Abdominal exam to assess for distention, peristalsis, tenderness, rigidity, rebound, masses
  • Mental status, gait, CN function
  • Additional exam in children to include: Presence of tears, Urination or # wet diapers
  • Abdominal exam includes abnormal BS, peritoneal signs, focal or flank tenderness*
  • Neuro exam includes retinopathy and papilledema, nystagmus, stiff neck, ataxia of gait*
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7
Q

N/V Diagnostic

Diagnostics depend on differentials

  • If N/V is <24 hours =
  • Lab tests may include = (2)*
  • (1) if obstruction or peritonitis suspected
A
  • If N/V is <24 hours = no labs are generally needed; Presentation, history and diff dx will guide testing
  • Lab tests may include = UA or urine dipstick (SGravity), serum electrolytes, glucose, BUN, Scr, serum ketones, amylase (r/o pancreatitis), LFT’s (alk phos and AST r/o acute cholecystitis, choledocholithiasis) drug levels, Hcg, CBC with diff, TSH
  • Abd X-ray if obstruction suspected
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8
Q

N/V Non-Pharm Management

  1. No _____ for at least 24 hours and ____ liquids for 24 hours; start with (1) (15mLs) every __ minutes
  2. Hydration status should be assessed by pt’s ability to _____ every 2-3 hours
  3. Followed by (1) diet for 24 hours
  4. (1) diet approx 1 week
A
  1. No solids for at least 24 hours and clear liquids for 24 hours; start with 1 tbsp. (15mLs) every 10 minutes
  2. Hydration status should be assessed by pt’s ability to void every 2-3 hours
  3. Followed by BRAT (bananas, rice, applesauce, toast) diet for 24 hours
  4. Bland diet approx 1 week
  • Most n/v is self-limited and supportive therapy is all that is indicated; although must look at cause to dictate therapy
  • No solids for 8-12 hours in children
  • Advance diet as tolerated: if vomiting does not occur, double fluids every hour, if vomiting occurs, allow stomach to rest briefly and then start again
  • May use glucose-electrolyte solutions for infants and small children such as Pedialyte or Rehydralyte
  • Regular diet may resume as tolerated: usually 4 hours after vomiting stops
  • For children, advance to BRAT diet
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9
Q

N/V Pharm Management

Pharm management should be started if pt is too nauseated or does not respond to PO intake, IV hydration should be started

Antiemetics in children?

  • (1) for motion sickness
  • (1) for gastroparesis, GERD, chemo SE
  • (1) for cancer, RT, surgery (preg class B)
  • (1) for migraine induced vomiting (preg class C)
A

Antiemetics should not be given routinely in children

  • Dramamine for motion sickness
  • Reglan for gastroparesis, GERD, chemo SE
  • Zofran for cancer, RT, surgery (preg class B)
  • Promethazine (Phenergan) for migraine induced vomiting (preg class C)
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10
Q

N/V in Infants and Children

  • Usually mild, short-lived _____
  • Weight loss may indicate an _____ problem
  • Weight gain may indicate over-_____
  • Any child with emesis plus colicky abdominal pain or fever >24 hours must be?
A
  • Usually mild, short-lived virus
  • Weight loss may indicate organic problem
  • Weight gain may indicate over-feeding
  • Any child with emesis plus colicky abdominal pain or fever >24 hours must be evaluated immediately in the ED (acute abdomen?)

Infancy: consider pyloric stenosis: projectile vomiting, epigastric mass

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11
Q

Oral Rehydration and Diet in Peds

  1. _____ to eat or drink for _-_ hours after vomiting; then start with 1 ___ (sip) of ____ liquid every __-__ min
  2. If clear liquids tolerated for 2-3 hours may advance diet to _____ diet and ___ liquid as tolerated
A
  1. Nothing to eat or drink for 2-3 hours after vomiting; then start with 1 tsp (sip) of clear liquid every 10-15 min
  2. If clear liquids tolerated for 2-3 hours may advance diet to bland diet and full liquid as tolerated
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12
Q

Oral Rehydration and Diet in Peds

Type of liquids that should be avoided?

Type of food that should be avoided?

Recommended foods include a combination of complex _______ (r____, wh____, p____, br____), ____ meats, yo___, fr___, and v______

A

Apple, pear, and cherry juice, and other beverages with high sugar content, including sports drinks (Gatorade), should be avoided since they have too much sugar and have inappropriate electrolyte levels

High fat foods are difficult to digest and should be avoided

Recommended foods include a combination of complex carbohydrates (rice, wheat, potatoes, bread), lean meats, yogurt, fruits, and vegetables

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13
Q

GI Bleeding

  1. (1) esophageal (varices, ulceration, esophagitis), Gastritis, Cancer, PUD, neoplasm
  2. (1) Meckel’s diverticulum, Crohn’s, Ulcer disease, Varices
  3. (1) hemorrhoid, fissure, polyp, carcinoma, diverticular disease, IBD
A
  1. Hematemesis esophageal (varices, ulceration, esophagitis), Gastritis, Cancer, PUD, neoplasm
  2. Melena Meckel’s diverticulum, Crohn’s, Ulcer disease, Varices
  3. Hematochezia hemorrhoid, fissure, polyp, carcinoma, diverticular disease, IBD
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14
Q

GI Bleeding Physical Exam

  • Vital signs: postural ______
  • C______ exam
  • Skin: p____, e____moses, pet____, tel______, stigmata of chronic ____ dx
  • Nose/Pharynx: source of _____
  • Lymph nodes: enlarged in ______
  • Abdomen: masses, He______
  • R___ exam
A
  • Vital signs: postural hypotension
  • Cardiovascular exam
  • Skin: pallor, ecchymoses, petechiae, telangiectases, stigmata of chronic liver dx
  • Nose/Pharynx: source of bleeding
  • Lymph nodes: enlarged in malignancy
  • Abdomen: masses, hepatosplenomegaly
  • Rectal exam
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15
Q

GI Bleeding Diagnostics

  • Labs: ____ (Hgb may not reflect acute loss), Co____ studies, R____ (elevated BUN) and L____ function
  • Hematochezia (fresh blood per anus) if >50yo, _____ is warranted
  • Hematemesis: En_____ + B______ to r/o (1) diagnosis
  • Melena: decide location first, probably ____
  • Occult bleeding: do a ________
A
  • Labs: CBC (Hgb may not reflect acute loss), Coag studies, Renal and Liver function
  • Hematochezia (fresh blood per anus) if >50yo, Colonoscopy is warranted
  • Hematemesis: Endoscopy + Biopsy to r/o H.Pylori diagnosis
  • Melena: decide location first, probably upper
  • Occult bleeding: do a colonoscopy
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16
Q

GI Bleeding Diagnosis

  • (1): cirrhosis, chronic liver disease, alcoholism, meds, epigastric pain
  • IBD sx: d_____, ur_____, cr_______
  • _____ rectal bleeding: diverticular, ulcerative colitis, rectosigmoid disease
A
  • Hematemesis: cirrhosis, chronic liver disease, alcoholism, meds, epigastric pain
  • IBD sx: diarrhea, urgency, cramping
  • Frank rectal bleeding: diverticular, ulcerative colitis, rectosigmoid disease
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17
Q

GI Bleeding Management

  • Ulcer/gastritis: (2) Rx
  • I____ replacement
  • Anal bleeding: cause- hemorrhoids (if secondary to constipation-tx: f____ supplements or stool softener)
  • (1) or (1) to prevent bleed in known varices (goal pulse < 70) secondary to ______
  • Refer for ____ bleed, those who need en_____, un____ etiology of bleed
A
  • Ulcer/gastritis: H2 blockers, omeprazole
  • Iron replacement
  • Anal bleeding: cause- hemorrhoids (if secondary to constipation-tx: fiber supplements or stool softener)
  • Nadolol or Propanolol to prevent bleed in known varices (goal pulse < 70) secondary to cirrhosis
  • Refer for acute bleed, those who need endoscopy, unclear etiology of bleed
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18
Q

Appendicitis

Appendicitis is defined as an inflammation of the _____ lining of the _____ appendix that _____ to its other parts

  • Appendicitis may occur for several reasons, such as an infection of the appendix, but the most important factor is the ______ of the appendiceal ____
  • Left untreated, appendicitis has the potential for severe complications, including ______ or ____, and may even cause _____
A

Appendicitis is defined as an inflammation of the inner lining of the vermiform appendix that spreads to its other parts

  • Appendicitis may occur for several reasons, such as an infection of the appendix, but the most important factor is the obstruction of the appendiceal lumen
  • Left untreated, appendicitis has the potential for severe complications, including perforation or sepsis, and may even cause death
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19
Q

Appendicitis

  1. Most common in ages ___-___
  2. No single sign, symptom, or diagnostic test accurately confirms the diagnosis of appendiceal inflammation, and the classic history of an_____ and p______ pain followed by n_____, (1) quadrant pain, and v_____ occurs in only 50% of cases
  3. PE: do a full (2) exam
  4. Labs will show (1)
A
  1. Most common in ages 10-15yo
  2. No single sign, symptom, or diagnostic test accurately confirms the diagnosis of appendiceal inflammation, and the classic history of anorexia and periumbilical pain followed by nausea, RLQ quadrant pain, and vomiting occurs in only 50% of cases
  3. PE: do a full abdominal and rectal exam
  4. Labs will show elevated WBC (may be mildly high)
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20
Q

Appendicitis Presentation in Children

=

  • Younger children have (2) more often
  • Exam: look for __Q tenderness, and m___ on rectal exam
  • Treatment: if pain is Periumbilical, you may _____ the pt in __ hours in the clinic or ER, depending on the patient and family
A

The younger child is irritable, lies still, quiet with flexed hips

  • Younger children have perforation and peritonitis more often
  • Exam: look for RLQ tenderness, and mass on rectal exam
  • Treatment: if pain is Periumbilical, you may re-evaluate the pt in 4 hours in the clinic or ER, depending on the patient and family
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21
Q

Appendicitis Provocative Tests

(2)

A

Psoas and Obturator Sign

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22
Q

Psoas Sign

=

What indicates a positive sign?

A

Pain on passive extension of the right thigh. Patient lies on left side. Examiner extends patient’s right thigh while applying counter resistance to the right hip.

Place your hand above the patient’s right knee. Ask the patient to flex the right hip against resistance.

Increased abdominal pain indicates a positive psoas sign

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23
Q

Obturator Sign

=

What indicates a positive sign?

A

Raise the patient’s right leg with the knee flexed. Rotate the leg internally at the hip.

Increased abdominal pain indicates a positive obturator sign.

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24
Q

Appendicitis Diagnostics

(2)*

  • Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is suggested by the (1)
  • CBC with diff (1) supports diagnosis
  • U__, Beta ____, QN
  • Imaging (1) or US if indicated
A

WBC and CT*

  • Diagnosis of acute appendicitis is suggested by the H&P
  • CBC with diff (WBC 10,000-16,000 supports diagnosis)
  • UA, Beta HCG, QN
  • CT scan or US if indicated
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25
Q

Appendicitis CT Results

Will show (2)

A

Dilated fluid-filled appendix

Fat stranding (Minimal inflammatory changes are also present in the adjacent mesenteric fat)

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26
Q

Appendicitis Management

All cases of appendicitis require?

(1) standard of care for acute uncomplicated appendicitis, give (1) pre-op
(1) has been studied as an alternative for uncomplicated appendicitis, however (1)

A

Surgical consultation

Laparoscopic appendectomy, give broad spectrum abx w gram - and anaerobic coverage

Non op management with antibiotics has been studied, however carries a recurrent appendicitis rate of 14-20% in 1st year

(Patients who present late (>4-5 days after symptom onset may be treated initially with antibiotics, bowel rest and drainage if any abscess. Later (4- 10wks) appendectomy can then be performed in this subgroup only)

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27
Q

Inflammatory Bowel Disease

Refers to (2) chronic diseases that cause inflammation of the intestines

Increases incidence of (1) CA

  • Peak onset __ to __ yo
  • Second ‘peak’ incidence: ___ to __ yo
  • Males vs. Females?
  • (1) is greaest risk factor
  • Ethnicity: (1) > (1) > (1)
A

Ulcerative Colitis, Crohn’s Disease

Risk for Colorectal CA

  • Peak onset 15 to 25 yo
  • Second ‘peak’ incidence: 50 to 65 yo
  • Approximately equal between males and females
  • Family history is greatest risk factor
  • Jewish > Non-Jewish and Caucasian > African American
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28
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

=

A

Diffuse inflammatory disease of bowel mucosa, superficial and only in colon

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29
Q

Crohn’s Disease

A

Chronic relapsing inflammation-autoimmune

Distribution of disease is segmented (skip lesions)

Extends through all layers of bowel wall, entire GI tract can be affected (mouth to anus) , most commonly effects ileocecal junction (between small and large intestine)

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30
Q

Crohn’s Disease Systemic Complications

  • E___ inflammation
  • Lower ____ density, g____ failure in children
  • Liver and B____duct inflammation, gall_____
  • S___ lesions
  • Kidney ____
  • Subf_____ (more so in females)
  • Ar_____, j____ pain
A
  • Eye inflammation
  • Lower bone density, growth failure in children
  • Liver and Bile duct inflammation, gallstones
  • Skin lesions
  • Kidney stones
  • Subfertility (more so in females)
  • Arthritis, Joint pain
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31
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Presentation

____ diarrhea, ur_____, fecal in_____ (from chronic diarrhea not the UC), abdominal p_____

May have f____, an_____, ____ loss

Extracolonic manifestations include: (2) itis, j_____, skin _____

A

Bloody diarrhea, urgency, fecal incontinence, abdominal pain

Fever, Anorexia, Weight loss

Arthritis, uveitis, jaundice, skin lesions

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32
Q

Ulcerative Colitis

Frequently involves what parts of the GI tract? (2)

Diagnosis may be done by (1)

90% go into _____ after 1st attack

A

Distal Colon and Rectum

Diagnosis may be done by Sigmoidoscopy

90% go into remission after 1st attack

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33
Q

Ulcerative Colitis Management

Mainstay =

Initial tx/prophylaxis =

During inactive disease =

During flareup

Screen for (1)

A

Biologics

Mesalamine (5-ASA)- NSAID that treats and prevents flare ups in UC (other 5-ASAs include Asacol, Pentasa, Lialda)

1-2 tsp of Metamucil per day

Reduce dietary fiber during flare-up

Screen for Colon CA

Others: steroids, immunosuppression (6-MP, AZA, CsA), opiates, psychological support, surgery

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34
Q

Biologics used in UC

(2)*

+ others

A

Vedolizumab (Amjevita), Golimumab (Simponi)

  • Adalimumab (Humira)
  • Infliximab (Remicade)
  • adalimumab-atto (Amjevita)
  • adalimumab-adbm (Cyltezo)
  • certolizumab pegol (Cimzia)
  • Infliximab-abda (Renflexis)
  • infliximab-dyyb (Inflectra)
  • tofacitinib (Xeljanz)
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35
Q

Crohn’s Disease Diagnosis

Involves mostly (2) parts of the GI tract

Diagnostics (3)

A

Mostly small intestine, terminal ileum

Colonoscopy/Tissue biopsy, EGD, Barium Enema

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36
Q

Crohn’s Disease S/S

  • D_____, abdominal p___ (__Q) or dis____, weight ___, food _____, n___, v_____, f____, p___anal pain /drainage, recurrent ____’s, pneumaturia, psoas ab____
  • Extraintestinal: ___itis, ankylosing spondylitis, ___itis, aphthous o____ ulcers, sclerosing cholangitis
  • May have discreet RLQ ____
A
  • Diarrhea, abdominal pain (RLQ) or distention, weight loss, food avoidance, nausea, vomiting, fever, perianal pain /drainage, recurrent UTI’s, pneumaturia, psoas abscess
  • Extraintestinal: arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, uveitis, aphthous oral ulcers, sclerosing cholangitis
  • May have discreet RLQ mass
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37
Q

Crohn’s Disease Diet Modifications

Adequate p_____ and calories, (1) for those with diarrhea, decreased ___, no _____

Supplemental (1)

May need bowel ____ or T_ _

A

Adequate protein and calories; fiber for those with diarrhea, decreased fat; no milk

Vitamins

May need bowel rest or TPN

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38
Q

Crohn’s Disease Pharm Management

Rx (1)-(3) for control/prophylaxis

Others =

(1) reserved for intractable disease - most pts have to get it at some time

A

5-ASA agents (Asacol aka Mesalamine, Pentasa, Apriso)

Antibiotics, steroids, immunosuppression (6-MP, AZA), biologics, opiates, psychological support

Surgery

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39
Q

Biologics used in Crohn’s Disease

(6)

A

Adalimumab (Humira) + other variations

Certolizumab (Cimzia)

Infliximab (Remicade) + other variations

Natalizumab (Tysabri)

Ustekinumab (Stelara)

Vedolizumab (Entyvio)

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40
Q

Chronic benign GI disorder: abdominal pain, bloating, and disturbed defecation that is classified as functional bc there are no structural/biochemical abnormalities

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

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41
Q

Irritable Bowel Syndrome

  • Gender ___ > ___ (2:1)
  • Most common presentation: abdominal p___ and bl_____; d_____ &/or c_____
  • (1) criteria can help make diagnosis
A
  • Women affected more than men (2:1)
  • Most common presentation: abdominal pain and bloating; diarrhea &/or constipation
  • Rome criteria can help make diagnosis
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42
Q

Rome IV Criteria for IBS

New definition

A

Functional GI disorders have a new definition. Rome IV defines them as follows: “Functional GI disorders are disorders of gut-brain interaction.

It is a group of disorders classified by GI symptoms related to any combination of the following: motility disturbance, visceral hypersensitivity, altered mucosal and immune function, altered gut microbiota, and altered central nervous system processing.

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43
Q

Rome IV Criteria for IBS

A person may experience problems with:

  1. (1): The movement of food and waste through the GI tract
  2. (1): Heightened experience of pain in the internal organs
  3. (1): Changes in the gut’s immune defenses
  4. (1): Changes in the community of bacteria in the gut
  5. (1): Changes in how the brain sends and receives from the gut
A
  1. Motility disturbance
  2. Visceral hypersensitivity
  3. Altered mucosal and immune function
  4. Altered guy microbiota
  5. Altered central nervous system processing
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44
Q

Rome Criteria for IBS

_____ abdominal pain, on average, at least __ days/week in the last__ months associated with 2 or more of the following

  1. Related to def_______
  2. Change in _____ of stool
  3. Change in _____ of stool

*Criteria fulfilled for the last __ months with symptom onset at least** __ **months before diagnosis.

A

Recurrent abdominal pain, on average, at least 1 days/week in the last 3 months associated with 2 or more of the following

  1. Related to defecation
  2. Change in frequency of stool
  3. Change in appearance/form of stool

*Criteria fulfilled for the last 3 months with symptom onset at least 6 months before diagnosis.

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45
Q

IBS Work Up

  • Weight -usually _____
  • Abdominal exam: tenderness (usually __Q) guarding, bowel sounds, masses, H_ _
  • R____ exam: tenderness, masses, blood
  • Diagnostics: CBC, E___, TSH, glucose, lytes, BUN/Scr Fecal o____ ; stool for O&P x 3; stool culture, U___ breath test
  • May have imaging: Abd u/s and x-ray, KUB = , BE
  • If severe symptoms or unsure-proceed w/ (1)
A
  • Weight -usually stable
  • Abdominal exam: tenderness (usually LLQ) guarding, bowel sounds, masses, HSM
  • Rectal exam: tenderness, masses, blood
  • Diagnostics: CBC, ESR, TSH, glucose, lytes, BUN/Scr Fecal occult ; stool for O&P x 3; stool culture, Urea breath test
  • May have imaging: Abd u/s and x-ray, KUB (kidney, ureter, bladder), BE
  • If severe symptoms or unsure-proceed w/ colonoscopy
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46
Q

IBS Management

Rome IV emphasizes that the best management for functional GI disorders requires a ______ approach which takes into consideration

  • Early life influences: g_____, c_____, en____
  • Psychosocial factors: st____, per______, psychological state, cop___, social su___
  • Physiology: m____, sen____, i_____ function, microf____, food, diet
A

Biopsychosocial Approach

  • Early life influences: genetics, culture, environment
  • Psychosocial factors: stress, personality, psychological state, coping, social support
  • Physiology: motility, sensation, immune function, microflora, food, diet
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47
Q

IBS Management

Treatment is purely symptomatic and includes dietary modifications, medications, behavioral therapy, education and reassurance

  • Establish effective relationship with pt: ed_____ and re____ is key
  • Symptom d____ (timing, associated sx, feelings)
  • Predominate diarrhea: f____ to bulk stool; lo_____ 2-4 mg QID (45 min before meals) can be helpful
  • Constipation: dietary fiber; laxative- M_____ preferred
A
  • Establish effective relationship with pt: education and reassurance is key
  • Symptom diary (timing, associated sx, feelings)
  • Predominate diarrhea: fiber to bulk stool; loperamide 2-4 mg QID (45 min before meals) can be helpful
  • Constipation: dietary fiber; laxative- Miralax preferred
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

IBS Management Cont.

  • Gas/Bloating: diet
  • Abdominal ______: Bentyl 10-20mg TID, Levsin sl TID prn or Levbid
  • St_____ reduction, ___feedback, ex___
  • Moderate to severe IBS, consider Rx (1)
  • Follow-up in _-_ weeks then every _-_ mos
A
  • Gas/Bloating: diet
  • Abdominal cramping: Bentyl 10-20mg TID, Levsin sl TID prn or Levbid
  • Stress reduction, biofeedback, exercise
  • Moderate to severe IBS, consider SSRI
  • Follow-up in 3-6 weeks then every 3-6 mos
49
Q

Role of Serotonin in IBS

Serotonin is a neurotransmitter and a hormone that plays an important role in numerous life processes, including mood, sleep, appetite, temperature regulation, pain perception, sexual behavior, and the secretion of other hormones.

Although most of the body’s serotonin is found in the ___________ system and in ______, its most well-known effects are in the _____.

Serotonin is an important signaling molecule in the gastrointestinal (GI) system, where it functions to initiate gut m_____, allow the stomach to ex____, and transmit information to the ____.

A

Although most of the body’s serotonin is found in the gastrointestinal system and in blood platelets, its most well-known effects are in the brain.

Serotonin is an important signaling molecule in the gastrointestinal (GI) system, where it functions to initiate gut motility, allow the stomach to expand, and transmit information to the CNS.

50
Q

Defined as a decrease in the frequency of bowel movements

Most commonly occurring gastrointestinal complaint

This disorder does affect the pediatric population but is a common complaint among older adults and more prevalent in _____

A

Constipation

women

51
Q

Common Causes of Constipation

Common causes (mostly functional)

  • ______ urge to defecate (most common)
  • inadequate f____ and fl____ in diet; sed_____
  • met___, en____, n____, colorectal disorder

Elderly patients:

  • Diminished vit____, decreased act____, consequence of _____ illness and medications, poor d____ habits, and decreased fl___ intake
A

Common causes (mostly functional)

  • ignoring urge to defecate (most common)
  • inadequate fiber and fluids in diet; sedentary
  • metabolic, endocrine, neuro, colorectal disorder

Elderly patients:

  • Diminished vitality, decreased activity, consequence of chronic illness and medications, poor dietary habits, and decreased fluid intake
52
Q

Rome Criteria for Constipation

Functional constipation categorized under new Rome criteria IV

  • IBS subtypes (constipation and diarrhea) are now based on abnormal _____ type occurring at least __% of days
A
  • IBS subtypes (constipation and diarrhea) are now based on abnormal stool type occurring at least 25% of days

New diagnoses added to this edition include reflux hypersensitivity syndrome, cannabinoid hyperemesis syndrome (CHS), opiod-induced constipation (OIC), and narcotic bowel syndrome (NBS). **

**“Many purists would say [these] are not really functional because [they have] a cause, but we have to rethink … this in the 21st century,” Drossman said. “What we’re really saying is that these are conditions that will mimic other so-called functional GI conditions, which … may have specific etiologies, and [they are] also consistent with our [new] definition [for functional GI disorders].”

53
Q

Rome IV IBS Subtypes

  • Subtypes are based on how _____ you experience very ____ or very ____ stools.
  • The percentages are now based on stool ___ on days with at least one (1)
  • In Rome III, the percentages were based on ____ stools.
A
  • Subtypes are based on how frequently you experience very loose or very hard stools.
  • The percentages are now based on stool form on days with at least one abnormal bowel movement.
  • In Rome III, the percentages were based on total stools.
54
Q

Constipation Eval: History

Pt def____ of constipation; stool p____ and recent changes, d___, act____, medication and lax_____ use, PMH, P_H

  • Rectal exam =
  • Check for im_____–esp in elderly or those with chronic constipation
A

History: pt definition of constipation; stool pattern and recent changes, diet, activity, medication and laxative use, PMH, PSH

  • Rectal exam: fissures, hemorrhoids, irritation, guiac disease
  • check for impaction–esp in elderly or those with chronic constipation
55
Q

Meds Associated with Constipation

  • O_____ and related narcotics
  • Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  • At_____, dicyclomine, hyoscyamine, clidinium,
  • Tricyclic anti_____, Antip____ and neuroleptic , Anti-par_____ drugs,
  • Calcium channel antagonists, Central alpha adrenergic agonists, Hy_____
  • MAO inhibitors, Methyl-_____,
  • Aluminum (ant____, sucralfate), I____ supplements, Calcium supplements, Barium sulfate,
  • Heavy m____ intoxication (lead, mercury, arsenic), V____ alkaloid, Cholestyramine, Sodium polystyrene sulfate
A
  • Opioids and related narcotics
  • Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
  • Atropine, dicyclomine, hyoscyamine, clidinium,
  • Tricyclic antidepressants, Antipyschotic and neuroleptic , Anti-parkinsonian drugs,
  • Calcium channel antagonists, Central alpha adrenergic agonists, Hydralazine
  • MAO inhibitors, Methyl-DOPA,
  • Aluminum (antacids, sucralfate), Iron supplements, Calcium supplements, Barium sulfate,
  • Heavy metal intoxication (lead, mercury, arsenic), Vinca alkaloid, Cholestyramine, Sodium polystyrene sulfate
56
Q

Constipation PE

  • Not uncommon to have _____ findings
  • Orthostatic hypotension and/or tachycardia implies _______
  • Wt loss suggests an_____ or ca_____
  • O____ exam
  • G_, G___, R_____ exam
  • N_____ exam
A
  • Not uncommon to have normal findings
  • Orthostatic hypotension and/or tachycardia implies dehydration
  • Wt loss suggests anorexia or carcinoma
  • Oral exam
  • GI, GYN, Rectal exam
  • Neuro exam
57
Q

Constipation Diagnostics

  • Labs (3)
  • (2) urine and stool
  • Imaging (4)
  • C______ or Flex Sig
  • Anorectal manometry (measures _____ of anal sphincter muscles)
  • Colonic tr______ studies
  • Electromyelogram (assess _____ of muscles and nerve cells that control them)
A
  • CBC with diff, Chemistry profile, TSH
  • UA, Stool for occult blood/Stool culture
  • AXR/ KUB, Abdominal u/s, BE
  • Colonoscopy or Flex Sig
  • Anorectal manometry (measures pressure of anal sphincter muscles)
  • Colonic transport studies
  • Electromyelogram (assess health of muscles and nerve cells that control them)
58
Q

Constipation Management

  • Keep stool d____
  • Increase f____ intake
  • Increase dietary fiber and supplements: Meta____, Fiberall or Fibercon, stool s_____, or os_____ agents;
  • If straining still present a l_____ is indicated (3)
  • _____ if > 50 years old: unresponsive to tx, positive hemoccult, or weight loss
A
  • Keep stool diary
  • Increase fluid intake
  • Increase dietary fiber and supplements: Metamucil, Fiberall or Fibercon, stool softeners, or osmotic agents;
  • If straining still present a laxative is indicated
  • Senna, Bisacodyl, Miralax
  • Refer> 50 years old: unresponsive to tx, positive hemoccult, or weight loss
59
Q

FDA Approved Meds for Constipation

  1. (1) (lubiprostone) softens the stool by increasing its water content, so the stool can pass easily. This medication is taken twice daily with food.
  2. (1) (linaclotide) is a capsule taken once daily on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. Linzess helps relieve constipation by helping bm’s occur more often. It is not approved for use in those age 17 years and younger.
  3. (1), a prescription laxative with a variety of brand names, draws water into the bowel to soften and loosen the stool.
  4. (1) (polyethylene glycol)is an osmotic laxative and causes water to remain in the stool, which results in softer stools.
  5. (1), taken orally once daily, works locally in the upper GI tract to stimulate secretion of intestinal fluid and support regular bowel function. Trulance was approved by the FDA January 2017.
  6. (1) (Zelnorm) reduces abdominal pain and improves constipation C/I: history of ischemic colitis, bowel obstruction, gallbladder disease
  7. (1) (Ibsrela) ADULTS only
A
  1. Amitiza (lubiprostone) softens the stool by increasing its water content, so the stool can pass easily. This medication is taken twice daily with food.
  2. Linzess (linaclotide) is a capsule taken once daily on an empty stomach, at least 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. Linzess helps relieve constipation by helping bm’s occur more often. It is not approved for use in those age 17 years and younger.
  3. Lactulose, a prescription laxative with a variety of brand names, draws water into the bowel to soften and loosen the stool.
  4. Miralax (polyethylene glycol)is an osmotic laxative and causes water to remain in the stool, which results in softer stools.
  5. Trulance, taken orally once daily, works locally in the upper GI tract to stimulate secretion of intestinal fluid and support regular bowel function. Trulance was approved by the FDA January 2017.
  6. Tegaserod (Zelnorm) reduces abdominal pain and improves constipation C/I: history of ischemic colitis, bowel obstruction, gallbladder disease
  7. Tenapanor (Ibsrela) ADULTS only
60
Q

Diarrhea

=

  1. Acute diarrhea usually has ab_____ onset and lasts < ___ weeks, s____-limiting
    • Most cases of acute diarrhea are _____ and occur within hours of exposure; most common etiology is (1)
  2. Chronic diarrhea lasts longer than __ to __ weeks, can be intermittent or continuous, and is classified as inf____, os____, sec____, fac_____ or related to altered intestinal motility (1)
  • Medications, particularly ch___therapeutic agents, en____ feedings, laxatives, antib____, caf____, magnesium antacids, alcohol may cause diarrhea
A

Defined as an increase liquidity and frequency of stools

  1. Acute diarrhea usually has abrupt onset and lasts < 1 week, self-limiting
    1. Most cases of acute diarrhea are infectious and occur within hours of exposure; most common etiology is viral gastroenteritis
  2. Chronic diarrhea lasts longer than 2 to 3 weeks, can be intermittent or continuous, and is classified as inflammatory, osmotic, secretory, factitious or related to altered intestinal motility (IBS)
  • Medications, particularly chemotherapeutic agents, enteral feedings, laxatives, antibiotics, caffeine, magnesium antacids, alcohol may cause diarrhea
61
Q

Diarrhea Presentation

  • ______ is the most helpful tool in determining etiology of illness
    • D_____ of illness, fr_____ and l_____ of stool, presence of b___ or m____
    • Social history including tr____, al___, emp____, residence, st_____, se____ practices
    • Similar illness in f____
  • Assoc sx’s =
A
  • History is the most helpful tool in determining etiology of illness
    • Duration of illness, frequency and liquidity of stool, presence of blood or mucus
    • Social history including travel, alcohol, employment, residence, stress, sexual practices
    • Similar illness in family
  • Assoc sx’s: N/V, abd pain or cramping, fever, malaise
    • Increase thirst, oliguria, dizziness, tenesmus, wt loss, previous or current diagnosed condition (DM, thyroid, CA), current medications, dietary supplement
62
Q

Diarrhea PE

  • VS (2)
  • CV (1)
  • HEENT (1)
  • Abdominal =
  • Rectal =
A
  • Temperature, Weight
  • Cardiovascular status- postural hypotension
  • Skin for color, turgor, rash, joint inflammation
  • HEENT: conjunctivitis (Reiter’s)
  • Abdominal exam: tenderness, distention, rigidity, tympany, bowel sounds, HSM
  • Rectal exam: tenderness, masses, ? fecal impaction, occult blood
63
Q

Diarrhea Diagnostics

  • If duration 24-48 hours =
  • Labs =
  • (1): Think inflammatory factor such as toxin producing bacteria (Campylobacter, Shigella, Salmonella, C Diff, enterohemorrhagic E coli, Yersinia, E. histolytica)
A
  • If duration 24-48 hours, no tests indicated
  • Labs = Stool culture, including occult blood, fecal leukocytes, CBC with diff, electrolytes, glucose, BUN, Scr, for fever >24 hours
  • + leukocytes: Think inflammatory factor such as toxin producing bacteria (Campylobacter, Shigella, Salmonella, C Diff, enterohemorrhagic E coli, Yersinia, E. histolytica)
64
Q

Diarrhea Management

Usually ___-limiting, treatment measures should be directed toward ______ relief

_____ fluid replacement

__ hydration for severe hydration or for young, old or immunocompromised patients

  1. Viral =
  2. Bacterial =
A

Usually self-limiting, treatment measures should be directed toward symptomatic relief

Oral fluid replacement

IV hydration for severe hydration or for young, old or immunocompromised patients

  1. Viral: no specific therapy; handwashing, keep children from day care until resolved
  2. Bacterial: Treat according to organism
65
Q

Oral Rehydration Solution for Diarrhea

Pre-formulated solution such as (1) is recommended in the pediatric population

If pre-formulated solution is unavailable, you can make your own oral rehydration solution by (3)

Be sure to measure accurately because incorrect amounts can make the solution less effective or even harmful. (2)

A

Pre-formulated solution such as Pedialyte is recommended in the pediatric population

½ teaspoon salt + 6 teaspoons sugar + 1 liter of safe drinking water

Too much sugar makes diarrhea worse, Too much salt is dangerous

66
Q

Diarrhea Management Cont.

  • Follow-up if diarrhea not resolved in Supportive therapy: maintain adequate hydration status (same as vomiting); pro____ (saccharomyces boulardii lyo-Florastor)
  • Antimotility agents should be avoided in pts with ____ diarrhea, but loperamide/simethicone may improve symptoms in pts with ____ diarrhea
  • Chronic: treat _____ cause
  • Follow-up in office if diarrhea has not resolved in ___ hours
A
  • Follow-up if diarrhea not resolved in Supportive therapy: maintain adequate hydration status (same as vomiting); pro____ (saccharomyces boulardii lyo-Florastor)
  • Antimotility agents should be avoided in pts with bloody diarrhea, but loperamide/simethicone may improve symptoms in pts with watery diarrhea
  • Chronic: treat underlying cause
  • Follow-up in office if diarrhea has not resolved in 48 hours
67
Q

Pseudomembranous colitis, caused by an enterotoxin or cytotoxin that alters the patient’s normal intestinal flora after antibiotic therapy

  • Can occur up to __ months after the medication has been taken
  • Treatment of choice (1) or (1) for intolerance or no response
A

Clostridium Difficile

  • Can occur up to 3 months after the medication has been taken
  • Metronidazole (250-500mg QID in adults) or Vancomycin (125-500mg in adults) for intolerance or no response to Flagyl
68
Q

Diverticular Disease

=

  1. Prevalence <5% for age __years, increases with __
  2. Peak incidence of occurrence in (3) decades of life
  • May cause divert_____ if plugged and inflamed: 10-30% will present with this
  • D_______ usually asymptomatic
  • D________: LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis (Asian patients usually have ___ sided disease)
  • Complications (4)
A

Abnormal herniations of colonic mucosa

  1. Prevalence <5% for age < 40 years
  2. Peak incidence of occurrence in 6th, 7th and 8th decades of life
  • May cause diverticulitis if plugged and inflamed: 10-30% with disease will present with diverticulitis
  • Diverticulosis usually asymptomatic
  • Diverticulitis: LLQ pain, fever, and leukocytosis (Asian patients usually have Rt sided disease)
  • Complications: perforation, fistulas, obstruction, hemorrhage
69
Q

Diverticulosis vs. Diverticulitis

  1. D______: usually incidental finding
  2. D_______: mild f_____ (<101F, WBC ___-__)
    • bed____ and (1) diet
    • non____ analgesics for pain
    • May have abd pain, n/v/d
    • if febrile, give ___ spectrum _____
    • Diagnostic test (1)
    • Barium enema ______ performed
  • (1) If temperature > 101oF despite antibiotics, pain worsens, peritoneal signs develop or WBCs rise
  • (1) Once symptoms subside to rule out cancer
A
  1. Diverticulosis: usually incidental finding
  2. Diverticulitis: Mild (fever <101oF, WBC 13,000-15,000)
    1. bedrest and clear liquid diet
    2. nonopiate analgesics for pain
    3. May have abd pain, n/v/d
    4. if febrile, broad spectrum antibiotic
    5. CT is diagnostic tool of choice using oral, IV and rectal contrast (although oral and IV most commonly done)
    6. Barium enema NEVER performed
  • Hospitalize - If temperature > 101oF despite antibiotics, pain worsens, peritoneal signs develop or WBCs rise
  • Lower GI endoscopy- Once symptoms subside to rule out cancer
70
Q

Diverticulosis Management

  • Inc risk of symptomatic diverticular disease: ___ fiber, ____ fat and red meat
  • ____ laxatives, enemas, and opiates
  • Anti_______ may help but constipate
  • Pt ____: report fever, tenderness, bleeding ASAP
  • ______ research on avoiding seeds, nuts, popcorn, cucumbers, tomatoes, figs, corns, strawberries, caraway seeds to prevent diverticular complications
  • JAMA 2008 large prospective study: __ associations were seen between nut, corn, popcorn consumption
A
  • low fiber, high fat and red meat assoc with inc risk of symptomatic diverticular disease
  • avoid laxatives, enemas, and opiates
  • anticholinergics may help but constipate
  • Pt Ed: report fever, tenderness, bleeding ASA
  • Conflicting research on avoiding seeds, nuts, popcorn, cucumbers, tomatoes, figs, corns, strawberries, caraway seeds to prevent diverticular complications
  • JAMA 2008 large prospective study: no associations were seen between nut, corn, popcorn consumption
71
Q

Diverticulitis Management

Diverticulitis: Mild ____ ( - __

  • bed____ and (1) diet
  • (1) for pain
  • monitor temp, a____, ___ cells
  • if febrile (1)
  • (1) If temperature > 101oF despite antibiotics, symptoms worsens, intolerance to oral fluids, peritoneal signs develop or WBCs rise
  • If treating as outpatient re assess _-_ days after _____ of abx and ____ thereafter until resolution of all symptoms
A

Diverticulitis: Mild fever (<101F), WBC 13,000-15,000

  • bedrest and clear liquid diet
  • Non opiate analgesics for pain
  • monitor temp, abd, WBCs
  • if febrile, broad spectrum antibiotic
  • If temperature > 101oF despite antibiotics, symptoms worsens, intolerance to oral fluids, peritoneal signs develop or WBCs rise: hospitalize
  • If treating as outpatient re assess 2-3 days after initiation of abx and weekly thereafter until resolution of all symptoms
72
Q

Broad Spectrum Antibiotics in Diverticulitis

(1) + (1) OR
(1) + (1) OR
(1) + (1) OR
(1) OR

(1)

A

Cipro + Flagyl

Levofloxacin + Flagyl

Bactrim + Flagyl

Augmentin

Moxifloxacin

73
Q

Diverticulitis seen on CT

(4) Complications
* Diverticulitis. CT scan obtained with oral and intravenous contrast material shows wall _____ in the sigmoid colon (arrows) with adjacent inflammatory changes in the pericolic ____.*

A

Perforation, Abscess, Fistula, Obstruction

Diverticulitis. CT scan obtained with oral and intravenous contrast material shows wall thickening in the sigmoid colon (arrows) with adjacent inflammatory changes in the pericolic fat.

74
Q

Masses of vascular tissue that, along with connective and muscular tissue, form a cushion in the submucosal layer of the anal canal

One of their functions is to maintain ____ of the anus

They are part of _____ human anatomy and therefore symptomatic hemorrhoids can potentially develop in all adults

A

Hemorrhoids

One of their functions is to maintain closure of the anus

They are part of normal human anatomy and therefore symptomatic hemorrhoids can potentially develop in all adults

75
Q

Hemorrhoids Presentation

  • (1) bleeding
  • anal dis_____
  • pr_____
  • pro_____ or p____
A
  • painless bleeding
  • anal discomfort
  • pruritis
  • protrusion or pain
76
Q

Hemorrhoids Differentials

  • Anal f____
  • C_____ disease
  • Anal skin ____
  • Con_____
  • Rectal pro_____ (more common elderly)
  • Anorectal ab_____
  • Perianal t____/rectal po____
A
  • Anal fissure
  • Crohn’s disease
  • Anal skin tags
  • Condyloma
  • Rectal prolapse (more common elderly)
  • Anorectal abscess
  • Perianal tumors/rectal polyps
77
Q

Mild Hemorrhoids Management

  • high ____ diet, b____-forming agents, stool softener
  • (1) pads or baby wipes
  • _____ baths 1-2x/day
  • Rx (2) QID x7days
A
  • high fiber diet, bulk-forming agents, stool softener
  • witch hazel pads (Tucks) or baby wipes
  • sitz baths 1-2x/day
  • Anusol or PrepH QID x7days
78
Q

Moderate Hemorrhoids Management

  • ____Cream-HC 2.5% cream or A_____-HC 2.5% cream
  • Anal____-HC/ pram____ 1%/1% or 2.5%/1% supp
  • Severe: refer for ______
A
  • ProctoCream-HC 2.5% cream or Anusol-HC 2.5% cream
  • Analpram-HC/ pramoxine 1%/1% or 2.5%/1% supp
  • Severe: refer for surgery
79
Q

Colorectal Cancer

  • Colon cancer is the ___ leading cause of cancer related deaths men and women (2nd most common cause of death gender combined)
  • B_____ and His____ are less likely to present with ____ stages and have a 50% greater chance of ____ from the disease
A
  • Colon cancer is the 3rd leading cause of cancer related deaths men and women (2nd most common cause of death gender combined)
  • Blacks and Hispanics are less likely to present with early stages and have a 50% greater chance of dying from the disease
80
Q

Colorectal Cancer Risk Factors

  • Prior C_ _
  • Inflammatory ___ ___
  • Hereditary and G_____ factors, familial _____posis syn
  • Hx of br____ or female g_____ cancer
  • high ___, low ____ diet

Lifetime risk of developing is 2.5% in the general population, and 5 to 10% in persons who have a first-degree relative with ad______ colon p____ or colon ca____

A
  • Prior CRC
  • IBD
  • Hereditary and Genetic factors, familial polyposis syn
  • Hx of breast or female genital cancer
  • High fat, low bulk diet

Lifetime risk of developing is 2.5% in the general population, and 5 to 10% in persons who have a first-degree relative with adenomatous colon polyp or colon cancer

81
Q

Polyps and Colorectal CA

  • Between 70 to 90% of colorectal cancers arise from (1) (tubular adenoma, tubular villious, or villous adenoma).
  • Polyps greater than __ cm make the possibility of malignancy greater
  • Those with ___ ___ ____ (FAP) syndrome have an almost 100% chance of developing cancer by age __
  • The adenomatous polyposis ___ (APC) increases susceptibility to the development of adenomatous polyps
A
  • Between 70 to 90% of colorectal cancers arise from adenomatous polyps (tubular adenoma, tubular villious, or villous adenoma).
  • Polyps greater than 1 cm make the possibility of malignancy greaterThose with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) syndrome have an almost 100% chance of developing cancer by age 40
  • The adenomatous polyposis gene (APC) increases susceptibility to the development of adenomatous polyps

The average time from onset of a polyp to onset of carcinoma is 10 to 15 years

82
Q

Colorectal CA Screening

Normal population =

Family history =

FAP syndrome =

New USPSTF guidelines =

For those with IBD (risk of carcinoma) =

A

Start at 50-75, 76-85 individual decision, dc at 85

Start at 40 or 10 years younger than diagnosis

Start at 10 years old

Offer screening starting at 45, continue from 50-75

Annual colonoscopy for IBD

83
Q

Colorectal CA Screening Frequency

FOBT =

Colonoscopy =

Flex sigmoidoscopy =

Virtual colonoscopy =

A

Q 1-3 years depending on test

Q 10 years

Q 5-10 years (with FIT?)

Q 5 years

84
Q

Colon CA Screening Details

(3) types of stool tests approved by FDA

  • (1) exam has low sensitivity
  • Fecal occult testing: must do pt ed re: (1) x 3 days
  • (1) is preferred test if fecal occult blood is positive
  • Can also do air contrast (1)every 5-10 years, but not as sensitive as colonoscopy
A
  1. gFOBT (Guaiac FOBT)
  2. FIT, also known as iFOBT (Fecal immunochemical or immunohistochemical test)
  3. FIT-DNA (Multitargeted stool DNA testing)
  • Digital rectal exam has low sensitivity
  • Fecal occult testing: must do pt ed re: restricted diet x 3 days
  • colonoscopy is preferred test if fecal occult blood is positive
  • Can also do air contrast barium enema every 5-10 years, but not as sensitive as colonoscopy
85
Q

GI Disorders seen in Pediatrics

  1. Abdominal p____
  2. C_____ disease
  3. Col___
  4. D_____/C_______
  5. Failure to _____
  6. F______ aversion/disorder
  7. G_ _ _
  8. (1) infection
  9. L_____ Intolerance
  10. V_______
A
  1. Abdominal pain
  2. Celiac disease
  3. Colic
  4. Diarrhea/Constipation
  5. Failure to thrive
  6. Feeding aversion/disorder
  7. GERD
  8. H. pylori
  9. Lactose Intolerance
  10. Vomiting
86
Q

Constipation in Peds

Defined as a de___ or di______ in defecation, present for > __ or more weeks and responsible for ~ 3-5 % of visits

  1. Constipation in children usually is _____ and the result of stool ______
  2. Constipation often causes more distress to (1) than to the affected child
A

Defined as a delay or difficulty in defecation, present for > 2 or more weeks and responsible for ~ 3-5 % of visits

  1. Constipation in children usually is functional and the result of stool retention
  2. Constipation often causes more distress to parents and other caregivers than to the affected child
87
Q

Constipation in Peds Red Flags

Organic causes

  • Hirs______ disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon)
  • Pseudo______
  • S_____ cord abnormality
  • H___thyroidism
  • Diabetes in_____
  • C_____ Fi_____
  • Glu____ enteropathy
  • Con_____ anorectal mal_____
A
  • Hirschsprung’s disease (congenital aganglionic megacolon)
  • Pseudoobstruction
  • Spinal cord abnormality
  • Hypothyroidism
  • Diabetes insipidus
  • Cystic fibrosis
  • Gluten enteropathy
  • Congenital anorectal malformation
88
Q

Normal Frequency of BM’s in Infants and Children

Mean # BMs/week, BMs/day

  1. 0-3m
  2. 6-12m
  3. 1-3y
  4. >3y
A
  1. 5-40, 2.9
  2. 5-28, 2
  3. 4-21, 1.4
  4. 3-14, 1.0
89
Q

Functional Constipation

95% of cases (in peds)

  • Continence is maintained by (2) muscle contractions.
    • (1) anal sphincter has an involuntary resting tone that decreases when stool enters the rectum.
    • (1) anal sphincter is under voluntary control.
  • If a child does not wish to defecate, he or she ______ the external anal sphincter and squeezes the gluteal muscles. These actions can push feces _____ in the rectal _____ and reduce the ____ to defecate. If a child frequently avoids defecating, the rectum eventually ______ to accommodate the retained fecal mass, and the pro_____ power of the rectum is diminished.
    • The longer that feces remains in the rectum, the _____ it becomes
A
  • Continence is maintained by involuntary and voluntary muscle contractions.
    • internal anal sphincter has an involuntary resting tone that decreases when stool enters the rectum
    • External anal sphincter is under voluntary control.
  • If a child does not wish to defecate, he or she tightens the external anal sphincter and squeezes the gluteal muscles. These actions can push feces higher in the rectal vault and reduce the urge to defecate. If a child frequently avoids defecating, the rectum eventually stretches to accommodate the retained fecal mass, and the propulsive power of the rectum is diminished.
  • The longer that feces remains in the rectum, the harder it becomes
90
Q

Organic Causes of Constipation in Peds

Match the symptoms to the diagnosis

  1. (1) Passage of meconium more than 48 hours after delivery, small-caliber stools, failure to thrive, fever, bloody diarrhea, bilious vomiting, tight anal sphincter, and empty rectum with palpable abdominal fecal mass
  2. (1) Abdominal distention, bilious vomiting, ileus
  3. (1) Decrease in lower extremity reflexes or muscular tone, absence of anal wink, presence of pilonidal dimple or hair tuft
  4. (1) Abnormal position or appearance of anus
  5. (1) Fatigue, cold intolerance, bradycardia, poor growth
  6. (1) Polyuria, polydipsia
  7. (1) Diarrhea, rash, failure to thrive, fever, recurrent pneumonia
  8. (1) Diarrhea after wheat is introduced into diet
A
  1. Hirschsprung’s disease
  2. Pseudo-obstruction
  3. Spinal cord abnormalities
  4. Congenital anorectal malformations
  5. Hypothyroidism
  6. Diabetes insipidus
  7. Cystic Fibrosis
  8. Gluten enteropathy
91
Q

Constipation PE

  • (1) should be performed to assess rectal tone and determine presence of rectal distension or impaction
  • (2) findings that suggest diagnosis of functional constipation
A
  • Digital rectal exam
  • Rectal impaction, anal fissures (or papillae indicative of chronic anal fissures)
92
Q

Constipation Diagnostics

If the rectal exam reveals fecal impaction?

If a rectal exam is not possible or is too traumatic for the child?

A

No imaging needed

Abdominal radiography may be considered

93
Q

Disimpaction

  1. Rx (1) for infant
  2. Rx (3) for child
    1. Rx (1) may also be required, caution dt SE of abdominal cramping
A
  1. Glycerin Suppository or Enema
  2. Saline, Mineral Oil, or 1:1 Milk Molasses enema
    1. Oral laxative
94
Q

Constipation Management (>1yo)

Rx (3)

A

Lactulose

Senna

Polethylene Gylcol

95
Q

Miralax Dosing Peds

___-___ g/kg/day

Higher initial dose of __ g/kg

Max ___ g/day

Once daily BM’s achieved, ____ dose

Educate patient that once stool occurs?

A

0.2-0.8 g/kg/day

Higher initial dose of 1 g/kg

Max 17 g/day

Once daily BM’s achieved, titrate dose

DO NOT stop med once stooling occurs

96
Q

Differentials for Acute Pain in Children

  1. M______ diverticulum (congenital abnormality, occurs in 2% of the population. Diverticulae of atresia, usually found 2 feet from ileocecal valve)
  2. Incarcerated h_____ or intestinal ob_____
  3. T______ torsion
  4. Hir_____ disease
  5. Con_______
  6. App_____
  7. Int_______
  8. _____ common: pancreatitis, pneumonia, IBD, diabetic ketoacidosis, GYN, UTI, trauma
A
  1. Meckel’s diverticulum (congenital abnormality, occurs in 2% of the population. Diverticulae of atresia, usually found 2 feet from ileocecal valve)
  2. Incarcerated hernia or intestinal obstruction
  3. Testicular torsion
  4. Hirschsprung’s disease
  5. Constipation
  6. Appendicitis
  7. Intussusception
  8. Less common: pancreatitis, pneumonia, IBD, diabetic ketoacidosis, GYN, UTI, trauma
97
Q

When one portion of the bowel slides into the next, much like the pieces of a telescope.

  • Can result in (1) with the walls of the intestines pressing against one another
  • This in turn leads to sw_____, in_____, and decreased ____ flow to the intestines involved
A

Intussusception

  • Can result in obstruction with the walls of the intestines pressing against one another
  • This in turn leads to swelling, inflammation, and decreased blood flow to the intestines involved
98
Q

Intussusception Prevalence

  • _____ cause of pain & obstruction in infancy and childhood-up to age , ___ 80% occur before a child is ___ months old
  • 3 to 4 times more common in what gender?
A
  • Common cause of pain & obstruction in infancy and childhood-up to age 6, 80% occur before a child is 24 months old
  • 3 to 4 times more common in boys than girls
99
Q

Intussusception Symptoms

Classic symptom =

  • Pain onset, severity, quality =
    • Periods of ____ alternating with _____
  • May have v_____
A

Currant Jelly Stools (blood and mucus)

  • Sudden onset of severe, colicky pain
    • Periods of screaming alternating with quiet
  • May have vomiting
100
Q

Intussusception Treatment

(2)

Untreated can lead to?

A

Refer for surgery immediately

Barium enema may reduce if done within 24 hours of onset

Untreated, can lead to loss of bowel dt ischemia

100
Q

Intussusception Treatment

(2)

Untreated can lead to?

A

Refer for surgery immediately

Barium enema may reduce if done within 24 hours of onset

Untreated, can lead to loss of bowel dt ischemia

101
Q

A congenital pouch (diverticulum) located about 2 ft from the end of the small intestine. It is about 2 inches in length, occurs in about 2% of the population, is twice as common in males as females, and can contain two types of ectopic tissue—stomach or pancreas

  • Many never have trouble but those that do present do so in the?
  • Three possible complications: In_____, B_____, O______
A

Meckel’s Diverticulum

  • First 2 years - first 2 decades of life
  • Infection, Bleeding, Obstruction
102
Q

Recurrent Pain in Children

  • Usually occurs ages __ to __; more in what gender (1)
  • Over 14 suggests diagnosis of (1)
  • Pain usually d___, co____, generalized or peri______ pain
  • Occurs daily with complete ______ between episodes
  • May have low grade fever, pallor, HA, vomiting or constipation (_____somatic-bodily symptoms caused by emotional disturbances)
A
103
Q

Failure to Thrive

FTT in childhood is a state of _______ dt inadequate caloric (2) or excessive caloric (1)

Defined as a weight for age that falls below the ___ percentile on multiple occasions or weight deceleration that crosses two major percentile lines on a growth chart

  • In the US, it is seen in 5-10% of children in primary care settings
  • Most cases involve inadequate caloric intake caused by be_____ or psy_____ issues
  • The most important part of the outpatient eval is obtaining accurate amount of a child’s eating _____ and (1)
A

FTT in childhood is a state of malnutrition dt inadequate caloric intake or absorption or excessive caloric expenditure

Defined as a weight for age that falls below the 5th percentile on multiple occasions or weight deceleration that crosses two major percentile lines on a growth chart

  • In the US, it is seen in 5-10% of children in primary care settings
  • Most cases involve inadequate caloric intake caused by behavioral or psychosocial issues
  • The most important part of the outpatient eval is obtaining accurate amount of a child’s eating habits and caloric intake
104
Q

Failure to Thrive Management

  • Routine laboratory testing?
  • Reasons to hospitalize a child for further evaluation include ____ of outpatient management, suspicion of a____ or n_____, or severe psychosocial impairment of the _____.
  • A ______ approach to treatment, including home nursing visits and nutritional counseling, has been shown to improve weight gain, parent-child relationships, and cognitive development.
  • The long-term effects of failure to thrive on cognitive development and future academic performance are ______.
A
  • Routine laboratory testing rarely identifies a cause and is not generally recommended.
  • Reasons to hospitalize a child for further evaluation include failure of outpatient management, suspicion of abuse or neglect, or severe psychosocial impairment of the caregiver.
  • A multidisciplinary approach to treatment, including home nursing visits and nutritional counseling, has been shown to improve weight gain, parent-child relationships, and cognitive development.
  • The long-term effects of failure to thrive on cognitive development and future academic performance are unclear.
105
Q

Bariatric Surgery Types

  1. (1) - restricts amt of food ingested
    • Dec a_____, Early s____, Slows di_____
    • (3)
  2. (1) - limits digestion and absorption
    • Decreases ____ of intestine exposed to digested food
    • 25% of ___ is absorbed
    • Biliopancreatic Diversion/ duodenal Switch (least commonly performed)
    • All operations can be performed open or laparoscopically
A
  1. Restrictive - restricts amt of food ingested
    • Dec appetite, Early satiety, Slows digestion
    • Sleeve gastrectomy, Adjustable gastric banding, Roux-en Y gastric bypass
  2. Malabsorptive - limits digestion and absorption
    • Decreases length of intestine exposed to digested food
    • 25% of fat is absorbed
    • Biliopancreatic Diversion/ duodenal Switch (least commonly performed)
    • All operations can be performed open or laparoscopically
106
Q

Surgical wt loss in which the stomach is reduced to 25% of its original size, by surgical removal of a large portion of the stomach along the greater curvature (most common)

  • Limits amount of food eaten and reduces hunger sensation because portion of stomach that produces ______, hunger stimulating hormone, is removed
  • Fastest growing wt loss sugery in North America and Asia
  • May be converted to gastric bypass or duodenal switch for ____ wt loss
  • Quicker wt loss than lap band
  • Reversible?
A

Gastric Sleeve

  • Limits amount of food eaten and reduces hunger sensation because portion of stomach that produces Ghrelin, hunger stimulating hormone, is removed
  • Fastest growing wt loss sugery in North America and Asia
  • May be converted to gastric bypass or duodenal switch for additional wt loss
  • Quicker wt loss than lap band
  • Not reversible
107
Q

A silicone band is placed around the upper part of the stomach, a small pouch is created; slows down gastric pouch emptying

  • Early feeling of satiety/ surgical appetite suppressant; requires more patient effort for initial (1) than with gastric bypass or duodenal switch
  • Purely restrictve
  • Ad______ restriction through mediport
  • Reversible?
  • Complications: sl_____, er_____, tubing dis______ – outdated
A

Lap Band System

  • Early feeling of satiety/ surgical appetite suppressant; requires more patient effort for initial wt loss than with gastric bypass or duodenal switch
  • Purely restrictve
  • Adjustable restriction through mediport
  • Reversible (if necessary)
  • Complications: slippage, erosion, tubing disconnect – outdated
108
Q

Roux-en Y Gastric Bypass

=

  • Inacc______ gastric remnant
  • Requires life long (1) supplements
  • Complications: d____ing, stomal str_____, per_____
  • Reversible?
A

A Gastric pouch of 15-20ml and 2 anastomoses are created to bypass 95% of the stomach an duodenum

  • Inaccessible gastric remnant
  • Requires life long vitamin supplements
  • Complications: dumping, stomal stricture, peritonitis
  • Theoretically reversible, but very difficult
109
Q

Which of the following is NOT a considered red flag when it comes to patients with acid reflex and dyspepsia?

  1. Weight loss
  2. Trouble swallowing liquids
  3. Trouble swallowing solids
  4. Reflux after meals
  5. Nocturnal symptoms
A
  1. Reflux after meals
110
Q

All of the following are TRUE regarding Barrett Esophagus EXCEPT:

  1. Males are more likely to have Barrett esophagus than females
  2. Barrett esophagus occurs in 10-15% of pts with erosive esophagitis
  3. Barrett esophagus is due to a change in the esophageal mucosa from columnar to squamous epithelium
  4. Patients with Barrett esophagus should undergo periodic endoscopy
  5. Barrett esophagus increases the risk of adenocarcinoma by up to 30 fold
A
  1. Barrett esophagus is due to a change in the esophageal mucosa from columnar to squamous epithelium

Changes from squamous to columnar

111
Q

Pollev Question

A

Insect/bee stings

112
Q

Pollev Question

A

Peaks in 6th, 7th, 8th decade

Also true is D

113
Q

Pollev Question

A

Viral gastroenteritis

114
Q

Pollev Question

A

Serum IgG antibody titers

115
Q

Pollev Question

A

Alopecia

116
Q

Pollev Question

A

UC appears as transmural, whereas Chrons disease involves only the mucosal and submucosal layers

117
Q

Pollev Question

A

TTG antibodies

118
Q

Pollev Question

A

Endoscopy (EGD) looking for evidence of food after a restaurant meal is a good test for diagnosing gastroparesis

(not a restaurant meal)