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Diagnosis and Management > Seizures > Flashcards

Seizures Flashcards

1
Q

What is a seizure?

  • Episode of abnormal _____ of ______ in the brain
  • “______ ______” explanation
  • May or may not be associated with a change in ______
  • Classification
    • ____ vs. _____ Generalized
    • Focal w or wo _______ generalization
    • ______ (preserved awareness) vs. ______ (impaired awareness)
A
  • Episode of abnormal firing of neurons in the brain
  • “Electrical storm” explanation
  • May or may not be associated with a change in behavior
  • Classification
    • Focal vs. Primary Generalized
    • Focal w or wo secondary generalization (treating by how it starts, so focal w sec gen still treated as focal)
    • Simple (preserved awareness) vs. Complex (impaired awareness)
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2
Q

What are psychogenic non-epileptic seizures?

  • Episode ________ a seizure, often per______ by the patient to be a seizure
  • _____ associated with the “electrical storm” which occurs with epileptic seizures
  • _________ in origin
  • Treated with c______ and psy______ care as opposed to antiepileptic medications
A
  • Episode resembling a seizure, often perceived by the patient to be a seizure
  • Not associated with the “electrical storm” which occurs with epileptic seizures
  • Psychological in origin “similar to a panic attack”
  • Treated with counseling and psychiatric care as opposed to antiepileptic medications
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3
Q

Taking a Seizure History?

  • Seizure description (_______cally, from A____ to return to _______).
    • Frequent answer from patient: (1)
    • Your response: What have witnesses described to you?
      • a___
      • loss or impairment of _______ness
      • tongue ______
      • abnormal movements, and which ex_______ involved
      • ______ down
      • ______ incontinence
      • ______ incontinence
      • _____ open versus closed
      • pelvic th______
      • how l_____
      • p_____-ictal
A
  • Seizure description (chronologically, from AURA to return to baseline).
    • Frequent answer from patient: I don’t remember any of it.
    • Your response: What have witnesses described to you?
      • aura
      • loss or impairment of consciousness
      • tongue biting
      • abnormal movements, and which extremities involved
      • falling down
      • urinary incontinence
      • bowel incontinence
      • eyes open versus closed
      • pelvic thrusting
      • how long
      • post-ictal
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4
Q

Taking a Seizure History

  • When did they _____?
  • How f______?
  • Tr_____, ex______ factors, re______ factors, meds that ____ worked, meds that _____ worked.
  • _____ that preceded onset (head trauma, CNS infection, brain tumor, stroke, aneurysm rupture, psychologically traumatic experiences such as abuse, death of a loved one, combat, loss of a job, financial stress, or divorce).
A
  • When did they start?
  • How frequent?
  • Triggers, exacerbating factors, relieving factors, meds that have worked, meds that haven’t worked.
  • Events that preceded onset (head trauma, CNS infection, brain tumor, stroke, aneurysm rupture, psychologically traumatic experiences such as abuse, death of a loved one, combat, loss of a job, financial stress, or divorce).
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5
Q

The Work-Up

(4)

Which is the gold standard?

A
  • MRI brain WITH AND WITHOUT CONTRAST (bc also looking for stroke (doesn’t need contrast), contrast to help look for tumors/lesions), and SPECIFY SEIZURE PROTOCOL.
  • EEG
  • EMU* GOLD STANDARD to confirm diagnosis of seizures (4 day long EEG in the hospital)
  • Look for other neurological/medical problems, and check for signs of epilepsy syndromes
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6
Q

Important Causes of Seizures

(3)

A

Stroke

Brain Hemorrhage

Brain Tumor

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7
Q

(1)

Refers to irreversible tissue damage to brain, usually caused by blockage of artery by plaque or clots

  • Risk Factors: HTN, obesity, smoking, diabetes, high LDL, and triglycerids
  • Acute Treatment: (1)* within __-__ hours, clot retrieval, intra-arterial tPA
  • Secondary prevention: (2) Rx
A

Stroke

  • IV TPA within 3-4.5 hours
  • Secondary prevention: Aspirin, Statin
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8
Q

Brain Hemorrhage

  • Can be caused by brain tu_____, s____, tr_____, blood-_______ medications, blood vessel abnormalities
  • How does a brain hemorrhage cause a seizure?
A
  • Can be caused by brain tumors, stroke, trauma, blood-thinning medications, blood vessel abnormalities
  • Seizures caused by irritation of brain by blood
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9
Q

Brain Tumor

  1. How do brain tumors cause seizures?
  2. What is often the first sign of a brain tumor?
  3. What type of brain tumors are more likely to cause seizures?
A
  1. Can cause seizures via edema and mass effect on surrounding brain tissue
  2. A first seizure is often the first sign of a brain tumor
  3. Slow-growing brain tumors are more likely to cause seizures than rapidly-growing brain tumors
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10
Q

Treatment of Seizures

  1. M________
  2. _____ nerve stimulation (like a brain ICD)
  3. ________ diet – not easy/common
  4. Corpus _______ – doesn’t stop seizure but stops seizure from spreading between hemispheres
  5. Multiple subpial transection
  6. Surgical re______
  7. Trigeminal nerve stimulation (investigational)
  8. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (investigational)
  9. Responsive neurostimulation
A
  1. Medications
  2. Vagal nerve stimulation (like a brain ICD)
  3. Ketogenic diet – not easy/common
  4. Corpus callosotomy – doesn’t stop seizure but stops seizure from spreading between hemispheres
  5. Multiple subpial transection
  6. Surgical resection
  7. Trigeminal nerve stimulation (investigational)
  8. Transcranial magnetic stimulation (investigational)
  9. Responsive neurostimulation
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11
Q

Treatment of PNES

(psychogenic non-epileptic seizures)

  • ________ to patient – sometimes explaining it to the pt/reassurance will reduce their stress and less likely to have PNES
  • Re_____
  • C_______
  • P______ care
A
  • Explanation to patient – sometimes explaining it to the pt/reassurance will reduce their stress and less likely to have PNES
  • Reassurance
  • Counseling
  • Psychiatric care
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12
Q

Summary of Agents Used to Treat Epilepsy

A
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13
Q

SPECT Scan

Shows what during a seizure?

A

Region of the brain in a person with epilepsy showing increased blood flow during a seizure

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14
Q

Classification of Epilepsy

  • (1) Consciousness is preserved​
    • (2) Types
  • (1) Consiousness is lost/no memory ​
    • ​​​​(5) Types
  • (2) types of Status Epilepticus
A
  • Partial (consciousness is preserved)
    • Simple Partial (consciousness normal)
    • Complex Partial (consiousness altered/no memory)
  • Generalized
    • ​Tonic Clonic
    • Absence
    • Myoclonic
    • Infantile spasm
    • Status epilepticus
  • Generalized Status Epilepticus (convulsive or non-convulsive)
  • Partial Status Epilepticus (consciousness lost/no memory)
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15
Q

Epilepsy Notes

  • Status epilepticus =*
  • Can use narrow and broad spectrum for (1) seizures, must use broad spectrum for (1) seizures*
  • Most childhood epilepsies are (1), most adult onset are (1) but will probably start on broad spectrum incase its actually generalized, and in the meantime while gathering further diagnostics*
A
  • Status epilepticus >5min bc that’s the point where it gets harder to treat*
  • Can use narrow and broad spectrum for partial (focal) seizures, must use broad spectrum for generalized seizures*
  • Most childhood epilepsies are generalized, most adult onset are focal but will probably start on broad spectrum incase its actually generalized, and in the meantime while gathering further diagnostics*
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16
Q

Therapeutic Strategies for Managing Newly Diagnosed Epilepsy

First Choice

*_____ out first med before starting a second med*

A

*Max out first med before starting a second med*

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17
Q

Therapeutic Strateiges for Managing Newly Diagnosed Epilepsy

Second Choice

A
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18
Q

Epilepsy definition

=

A

2 or more UNPROVOKED seizures

2/3 ppl will not have another seizure after the first (get out of jail free card) - these people usually experience a seizure due to something acute/provoked

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19
Q

Therapeutic Indications for Anticonvulsants

  1. What are common first line agents (4) used for both focal and generalized epilepsy?
  2. What is the first line drug for status epilepticus?
  3. Avoid _____ spectrum in primary generalized epilepsy such as what drugs?
  4. What is treatment should be considered when adherence, drug interactions, or adverse effects limit drug therapy?
A
  1. Lamotrigine, Levetiracetam, Topiramate, Divalproex
  2. Benzodiazepines
  3. Avoid narrow spectrum in primary generalized epilepsy (X Carbamazepine, Phenytoing, Gabapentin, Tiagabine, Vigabatrin)
  4. Vagal stimulator
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20
Q

Summary of Pharmacokinetics of Antiepilepsy Meds used as Chronic Therapy

A
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21
Q

CYP Metabolism of Antiepileptic Drugs

A lot of seizure medications can cause birth control failure, what is the preferred birth control method for someone who also has epilepsy?

A

Copper IUD

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22
Q

Summary of Older Agents used to treat Epilespsy

CDDELPPP

A
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23
Q

Phenytoin

MOA

A

Blocks Na+ Channels

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24
Q

Phenytoin

SE

(3)*

A

Hirsuitism, Gingival hyperplasia, Osteopenia/osteoporosis

Ataxia, nystagmus, cognitive impairment

Coarsening of facial features, cholesterol abnormalities, carotid artery stenosis

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25
Q

Phenytoin Indications

  1. What type of seizures can it treat?
  2. Effects of dosage on plasma concentration?
  3. ____ order kinetics
A
  1. Narrow spectrum, can worsen primary generalized seizures!
  2. Nonlinear effect - small increases in dosage can cause large increases in drug concentration
  3. Zero order kinetics = a constant amount of drug is eliminated per unit time but the rate is independent of the concentration of the drug.
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26
Q

Phenobarbital

MOA

A

Increases the amount of time for which GABA-gated-Cl- channels stay open (increases Cl coming in)

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27
Q

Phenobarbital

SE

  • CNS _______*
  • D_______ contractures
  • ______ potential (bc is a barbiturate)
  • Ataxia
  • O______/O________
A
  • CNS depression*
  • Depuytren’s contractures
  • Abuse potential (bc is a barbiturate)
  • Ataxia
  • Osteopenia/osteoporosis
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28
Q

Phenobarbital Indications

When do we use this drug?

A

Not a good choice for first line maintenance drug in most cases.

Can be used in IV form for status epilepticus.

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29
Q

Valproate

MOA (3)

A

Blocks sodium channels

Blocks T type calcium channels, and

Inhibits GABA transaminase (which breaks down GABA)

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30
Q

Valproate

SE (1)*

Bad in (1)*!

A
  • Weight gain* Elevated liver enzymes
  • Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain
  • Tremor, Alopecia,Thrombocytopenia, osteopenia/osteoporosis, Carotid artery stenosis

BAD IN PREGNANCY!

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31
Q

Valproate Indications

  1. Good for what types of seizures?
  2. Works ______ with Rx (1)
  3. Also good for other conditions such as (2)
A
  1. Multiple seizure types including ABSENCE seizures
  2. Synergistically with lamotrigine
  3. Migraines, good mood stabilizer
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32
Q

Benzodiazepines

MOA

Rx (2)

A

Increase the frequency of GABA -gated Cl-channels being open

Lorazepam, Diazepam

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33
Q

Benzodiazepines

SE

A

CNS depression, ataxia, abuse potential, tolerance

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34
Q

Benzodiazepines

  1. When do we use Benzodiazepines?
  2. Not indicated for?
A
  1. Good for short term control during seizure clusters, or buy time for other AEDs to take effect, IV benzos good for status epilepticus
  2. Try to avoid using for long-term seizure maintenance
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35
Q

Primidone

  1. Metabolized into? (2)
  2. SE (1)
  3. Can also be used for (1)
A
  1. Metabolized into phenobarbital and phenylethylmalonamide (PEMA)
  2. CNS depression
  3. Also used for tremor
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36
Q

Ethosuximide

MOA

A

Blocks T-type calcium channels

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37
Q

Ethosuximide

SE

A

Gastric distress (nausea, pain, vomiting), lethargy, fatigue, hiccups, headaches, skin rashes

Psychiatric disturbances (including hyperactivity, agitation, depression, suicidal ideation and suicidal attempts)

38
Q

Ethosuximide Indications

What type of seizures does it treat?

A

Only works for absence seizures

Not used for other types of epilepsies

39
Q

Carbamazepine

MOA

A

Blocks sodium channels

40
Q

Carbamazepine

SE

(4)*

A

Aplastic anemia*, nausea, visual disturbances, hyponatremia*, agranulocytosis*, autoinduction of metabolism*, osteopenia/osteoporosis, cholesterol abnormalities, carotid artery stenosis

41
Q

Carbamazepine Indications

  1. Good for what types of seizures?
  2. Can also be used for what condition?
A
  1. Very good for parital epilepsies, narrow spectrum so may worsen primary generalized epilepsies
  2. Mood stabilizer
42
Q

Oxcarbazepine

MOA

A

Blocks sodium channels

43
Q

Oxcarbazepine

SE

(1)* but overall?

A

Hyponatremia, but otherwise better tolerated than carbamazepine

44
Q

Oxcarbazepine Indications

  1. Good for what types of seizures?
  2. Why is it better tolerated than carbazepine?
  3. Can also be used for what condition?
A
  1. Very good for partial epilepsy
  2. Metabolism does not create the epoxide that carbamazepine metabolism creates which is responsible for some of its SE
  3. Mood stabilizer
45
Q

Vigabatrin

MOA

A

Inhibits GABA transaminase (transaminase breaks down GABA which is inhibitory)

46
Q

Vigabatrin

SE

(2)*

A

CNS depression, HA, weight gain, visual field defects

v for visual*

47
Q

Vigabatrin Indications

  1. Used for (2) conditions, can worsen (1) seizures
  2. Can cause irreversible?!*
A
  1. Used for tuberous sclerosis and infantile spasms, can worsen myoclonic seizures
  2. Visual field defects* (concentric with relative temporal sparing) - can be irreversible so watch out for them!!
48
Q

Tiagabine

MOA

SE

A

GABA reuptake inhibitor

Dizziness, tremor, difficulty concentrating, depression

49
Q

Tiagabine Indications

  1. May cause ______ status!!
  2. Can worsen ______ seizures
A
  1. May cause absence status!!
  2. Can worsen myoclonic seizures
50
Q

Levetiracetam

MOA

A

Not fully clear

Binds to synaptic vesicle protein (SV2A), and may block N-type calcium channels and inhibit delayed rectifier potassium current.

51
Q

Levetiracetam

SE (1)*

A

Grumpiness

52
Q

Levetiracetam

How is it tolerated?

Indicated for patients who are?

A

Generally very safe and well tolerated. Wide therapeutic window, relatively low chance of interacting with other medications.

Safer in pregnancy than most AEDs

53
Q

Lamotrigine

MOA

A

Blocks sodium channels

54
Q

Lamotrigine

SE

(1)*

A

Dizziness, Headache, Diplopia, nausea, somnolence, rash*, Steven-Johnson syndrome* (rare)

55
Q

Lamotrigine Indications

  1. Good for what type of seizures?
  2. Has to be titrated up _____ (which can be a disadvantage)
  3. Works ____ with _____
  4. Good for what other condition?
A
  1. Very good for Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy
  2. titrated up SLOWLY
  3. Works synergistically with valproate
  4. Good mood stabilizer
56
Q

Felbamate

MOA

SE (2)*

A

Blocks sodium channels and acts as NMDA and GABA receptors

  • Severe aplastic anemia* Hepatic failure*
  • Lethargy, anorexia, N/V, HA, dizziness, insomnia, weight loss
57
Q

Felbamate Indications

Indication for clinical use?

A

NOT A FIRST LINE DRUG!!

BLACK BOX WARNING FOR APLASTIC ANEMIA AND HEPATIC FAILURE!!

58
Q

Topiramate

MOA

A

Blocks sodium channels, acts on non-NMDA glutamate receptors

Enhances Cl- currents through GABA A receptors

59
Q

Topiramate

SE

(3)*

A

Somnolence, fatigue, dizziness, decreased appetite

Cognitive slowing, Altered verbal fluency bc given in much higher doses when tx for seizures vs. migraines, kidney stones*

60
Q

Topiramate Indications

  1. ____ ____ inhibitor (_____ effects -> important to stay hydrated)
  2. Good for what other conditions? (4)
A
  1. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor (diuretic effects)
  2. Good for migraine, tremors, mood stabilization, pseudotumor cerebri
61
Q

Zonisamide

MOA

SE

Is a ____ drug

A

Blocks sodium channels and T-type calcium channels

Similar to topiramate (carbonic anhydrase inhibitor), but generally better tolerated than topiramate

Sulfa drug

62
Q

Gabapentin

MOA

A

GABA-like molecule that binds to the alpha-2 delta-1 subunit of presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channels, thereby inhibiting the release of excitatory neurotransmitters which participate in epileptogenesis and nociception

63
Q

Gabapentin

SE

(2)*

A

Somnolence

Dizziness

Ataxia

Weight gain*

Behavioral changes*

64
Q

Gabapentin Indications

  1. For what type of seizures?
  2. Also used for (2)
A
  1. Narrow spectrum, can worsen primary generalized seizures
  2. Neuropathic pain, headaches
65
Q

Pregabalin

MOA

A

Related to gabapentin. Binds to alpha2-delta subunit of voltage-gated calcium channels within the CNS, inhibiting excitatory neurotransmitter release. Modulates P/Q type voltage-gated calcium channels.

66
Q

Pregabalin

SE

A

Peripheral edema

Ataxia, somnolence, dizziness, weight gain

67
Q

Pregabalin

Also used for _____ pain, however it is ______

A

neuropathic pain, expensive

68
Q

Rufinamide

MOA

A

Prolongs the inactive state of the Na+ channels, thereby limiting repetitive firing of sodium-dependent action potentials

(broad spectrum)

69
Q

Rufinamide

SE

A

QT shortening, HA, dizziness, somnolence, fatigue, nausea, vomiting

2k/month

70
Q

Rufinamide Indications

  1. Good for what type of seizures?
  2. _____ asborption of food intake
  3. FDA approved for L____ G_____ Syndrome
A
  1. Both generalized and partial epilepsies
  2. Increased absorption of food intake
  3. FDA approved for Lennox Gestaut Syndrome
71
Q

Lacosimide

MOA

A

Stabilizes hyperexcitable neuronal membranes and inhibits repetitive neuronal firing by enhancing the slow inactivation of sodium channels (with no effects on fast inactivation of sodium channels)

72
Q

Lacosamide

SE

(1)*

A

Dizziness, headache, nausea, diplopia

Cardiac conduction problems, PR prolongation* (get ECG before starting and again at steady state)

73
Q

Lacosamide Indications

  1. Very effective for what type of seizures?
  2. Can also be given in IV form for (1)
A
  1. partial epilepsies
  2. IV form effective for status epilepticus
74
Q

AEDs and Fetal Exposure

In utero, exposure to (1) compared to other AEDs is associated with an increased risk of impaired cognitive function at 3 years of age.

A

DO NOT USE VALPROATE in childbearing/pregnant women

75
Q

AE of AEDs

(8)*

A
76
Q

Summary of AEDs

A
77
Q

**VERY IMORTANT**

When starting an AED, (1) of the dose SIGNIFICANTLY reduces the chance of (1)

A

Gradual Titration -> Reduces the chance of Side Effects

78
Q

AEDs that can worsen primary generalized seizures?

(5)

A

Carbamazepine

Phenytoin

Gabapentin

Tiagabine

Vigabatrin

Try aVoiding Clinical Practice Guidelines

79
Q

AEDs that stabilize moods

(5)

A

Carbamazepine

Oxcarbazepine

Valproate

Lamotrigine

Topiramate

CLOV-T

80
Q

AEDs that cause weight loss

(3)

A

Felbamate

Topiramate*

Zonisamide

81
Q

AEDs that cause weight gain

(4)

A

Gabapentin

Pregabalin

Valproate*

Lamotrigine?

82
Q

AEDs that can prevent migraines

(3)

A

Gabapentin

Topiramate*

Valproate

83
Q

AEDs used for tremor

(2)

A

Primidone

Topiramate

Prevent Tremor

84
Q

AEDs eliminated almost entirely by the kidneys

(3)

A

Gabapentin

Levitiracetam

Vigabatrin

Neurontin -> Nephrontin, Keppra - K for kidneys, V for Void

85
Q

AEDs that induce Metabolism of Medications

(3)

A

Phenytoin

Carbamazepine

Phenobarbital

PCP

86
Q

AEDs that inhibit metabolism of medications

(2)

A

Valproate

Felbamate

Valproate + lamotrigine can cause steven johnsons bc the valproate inhibits metab of lamotrigine

87
Q

AEDs with high protein binding (>75%)

(4)

A

Phenytoin

Valproate

Tiagabine

Carbamazepine

Check the free albumin (unbound)

88
Q

ARS Question 1

Which of the following medications is safest in pregnancy?

A) Levetiracetam (Keppra)

B) Phenytoin (Dilatin)

C) Topiramate (Topamax)

D) Valproic acid (Depakote)

A

A) Levetiracetam (Keppra)

89
Q

ARS Question 2

Which of the following medications can cause irreversible visual field defects?

A) Gabapentin (Neurontin)

B) Pregabalin (Lyrica)

C) Tiagabine (Gabitril)

D) Vigabatrin (Sabril)

A

D) Vigabatrin (Sabril)

90
Q

ARS Question 3

Which of the following medications is not effective for absence epilepsy?

A) Ethosuximide (Zarontin)

B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

C) Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

D) Valproic Acid (Depakote)

A

B) Phenytoin (Dilantin)

Diagnosis and Management (36 decks)

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