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IVMI Spinal Manipulation > Workbook Quizzes > Flashcards

Workbook Quizzes Flashcards

1
Q

A restriction is:

A) The same as a subluxation
B) A loss of range of motion with the articular contact disrupted
C) Covers several motion segments
D) A loss of range of motion with the joint surfaces still in contact

A

D) A loss of range of motion with the joint surfaces still in contact

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2
Q

Restrictions are diagnosed by _________.

A

Motion palpation

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3
Q

T/F: Restrictions involve only bone and cartilage.

A

False

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4
Q

The paraphysiologic range of motion is:

A) Very large
B) Between the active and passive range
C) Small and just before the anatomical limits

A

C) Small and just before the anatomical limits

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5
Q

A correct manipulation:

A) uses a high amplitude low velocity thrust
B) Needs strength to be effective
C) Takes place within the passive range of motion
D) Needs speed and specificity

A

D) Needs speed and specificity

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6
Q

The listing includes:

A) The segment or joint and the reference point
B) The reference point, signalment and direction
C) The segment, reference point and direction
D) Reference point, the set-up and the primary complaint

A

C) The segment, reference point and direction

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7
Q

Cartilage is affected by restriction due to:

A) Lack of imbibition
B) Increased imbibition
C) Change in weight bearing causing increased pressure
D) Increased circulation

A

A) Lack of imbibition

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8
Q

T/F: Adhesions form within the joint after a few days of immobilization.

A

True

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9
Q

Joints adjacent to a restricted joint:

A) Become restricted
B) Are not affected
C) Are restricted in the opposite direction
D) Become hypermobile

A

D) Become hypermobile

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10
Q

T/F: When the muscular part of the musculotendonious unit is in spasm it aids tendon function.

A

False

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11
Q

How is the nervous system affected by restrictions? Choose all that apply

A) Direct pain
B) It can sever the nerve fiber
C) Decrease inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system
D) Indirect pain
E) Decreases frequency of firing to the cortex
F) Increases frequency of firing to the cortex
G) Interferes with peripheral nerve function

A

A) Direct pain
C) Decrease inhibition of the sympathetic nervous system
D) Indirect pain
E) Decreases frequency of firing to the cortex
G) Interferes with peripheral nerve function

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12
Q

What is the relationship between the sympathetic nervous system and movement?

A) Movement stimulates Ia afferent fibers, which help to inhibit the sympathetics
B) Sympathetic stimulation inhibits movement
C) Movement and the sympathetic nervous system stimulate each other
D) Sympathetic nervous system and movement inhibit each other

A

A) Movement stimulates Ia afferent fibers, which help to inhibit the sympathetics

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13
Q

T/F: Movement is necessary for a healthy cortex.

A

True

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14
Q

T/F: A restriction cannot affect peripheral nerve function.

A

False

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15
Q

How do restrictions affect the FOF?

A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) No affect

A

B) Decrease

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16
Q

What four things do neurons need to be healthy?

A

1) Stimulation (FOF)
2) Oxygen
3) Glucose
4) Neurotrophic factors

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17
Q

How does movement affect FOF?

A) Increase
B) Decrease
C) No affect

A

A) Increase

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18
Q

Exercise is important to the nervous system because it provides: (choose all that apply)

A) Oxygen
B) Lactate
C) FOF
D) Glucose
E) CO2
A

A) Oxygen
C) FOF
D) Glucose

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19
Q

Commonly used Dr. contact points include (choose all that apply):

A) Calcaneal
B) Elbow
C) Pisiform
D) Metacarpals
E) V-trough
A

A) Calcaneal
C) Pisiform
E) V-trough

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20
Q

T/F: The only important parts of the set-up are the patient contact point and the line of drive.

A

False

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21
Q

The HVLA thrust uses:

A) Pectoral and triceps muscles
B) Biceps and latissimus dorsi muscles
C) Quadriceps and epaxial muscles

A

A) Pectoral and triceps muscles

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22
Q

The best way to lower your episternal notch is to:

A) Bend at the waist
B) Round your back
C) Use a fencer’s stance

A

C) Use a fencer’s stance

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23
Q

Which type of manipulation is safer for the patient, long lever or short lever?

A

Short lever

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24
Q

T/F: Because a long lever contact point is farther from the joint we are adjusting, we need to use a strong HVLA.

A

False

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25
Q

(Choose all that apply) For an effective HVLA we should:

A) Engage our core muscles
B) Bring the joint to tension, then pull our hands back to get a running start at the HVLA
C) Extend our wrists as much as possible
D) Be specific in both the Dr. contact point and the patient contact point
E) Use our body weight to help with the HVLA because horses are big animals and we need strength to adjust them
F) Use just a quick twitch of our triceps and pectoral muscles to create the HVLA
G) A good manipulation is slow to allow the nervous system time to respond
H) Our shoulders should be lower than our hands
I) The correct line of drive is in the plane of the joint

A

A) Engage our core muscles
D) Be specific in both the Dr. contact point and the patient contact point
F) Use just a quick twitch of our triceps and pectoral muscles to create the HVLA
I) The correct line of drive is in the plane of the joint

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26
Q

A patient with ataxia is presented to you for spinal manipulation. You should:

A) Motion palpate all joints and adjust any restrictions found
B) Do a neurologic exam
C) Adjust everything except the neck
D) Recommend a neurologic exam and if the client declines then go ahead and adjust the patient

A

B) Do a neurologic exam

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27
Q

T/F: Patients with severe degenerative joint disease or arthritis should never be adjusted.

A

False

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28
Q

A patient has hyper mobility at C3-C4. Should you manipulate this joint?

A

No

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29
Q

A patient has hyper mobility at C3-C4. Where would you expect to find a restriction in this patient?

A) C0-C1
B) C4-C5
C) C5-C6
D) C6-C7

A

B) C4-C5

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30
Q

A dog presents with a history of falling 3 days prior and since then he is very painful, won’t bend his neck and stumbles. What is your main concern?

A

Rule out fracture

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31
Q

The autonomic nervous system (choose all that apply):

A) Reacts to stress
B) Stimulates alpha motor neurons
C) Maintains homeostasis
D) Is involved with TND (transneuronal degeneration)
E) Carries only sensory information
A

A) Reacts to stress
C) Maintains homeostasis
D) Is involved with TND

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32
Q

Alpha motor neurons:

A) Are large and unmyelinated
B) Are small and unmyelinated
C) Are large and myelinated

A

C) Are large and myelinated

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33
Q

Signs of TND include (choose all that apply)

A) Panting
B) Pawing
C) Yawning
D) Piloerection

A

A) Panting
C) Yawning
D) Piloerection

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34
Q

When a patient shows signs of TND you should:

A) Continue–TND is a sign that your manipulations are working
B) Stop treatment for the day

A

B) Stop treatment for the day

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35
Q

Which cranial nerves are tested with the Doll’s eye?

A

3, 4, 6, 8

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36
Q

Which cranial nerves are tested with the blink reflex?

A

5, 7

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37
Q

Which cranial nerves are motor and can be tested by observing muscle mass, tone, or function?

A

3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12

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38
Q

What are the cranial nerves/corresponding numbers?

A

1) Olfactory
2) Optic
3) Oculomotor
4) Trochlear
5) Trigeminal
6) Abducens
7) Facial
8) Vestibulocochlear
9) Glossopharyngeal
10) Vagus
11) Accessory
12) Hypoglossal

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39
Q

Which motion decreases the diameter of the spinal canal and the IVF?

A

Extension

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40
Q

What are the borders of the IVF?

A 
Facets
Bodies
Pedicles 
Ligamentum flavum
Disc
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41
Q

Contents of the IVF include (choose all that apply):

A) Dorsal root ganglion
B) Spinal nerve
C) Blood vessels
D) Muscle
E) Lymphatics
F) Muscle spindle cells
A

A) Dorsal root ganglion
B) Spinal nerve
C) Blood vessels
E) Lymphatics

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42
Q

What are three reasons that walking a patient with the head elevated changes the gait, even in normal patients?

A

1) Decreases the diameter of the canal/IVF (extension)
2) Alter visual inputs
3) Alter vestibular inputs

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43
Q

Which motor neurons are larger, alpha or gamma?

A

Alpha

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44
Q

Which motor neurons go to the extrafusal fibers?

A

Alpha

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45
Q

Muscle spindle cells monitor:

A) Electrolyte balance within the muscle
B) Muscle stretch
C) Muscle contraction
D) Muscle pH

A

B) Muscle stretch

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46
Q

Which type of motor neuron innervates the muscle spindle cell?

A) Alpha
B) Beta
C) Gamma
D) Ia

A

C) Gamma

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47
Q

Our manipulations should stimulate:

A) Extrafusal muscle fibers
B) GTO
C) MSC
D) Nociceptors

A

B) GTO

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48
Q

Which mechanoreceptors inhibit or cause relaxation to the muscle that they are in?

A) Muscle spindle cells
B) Golgi tendon organs

A

B) Golgi tendon organs

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49
Q

Interneurons are usually _______.

A) Inhibitory
B) Excitatory
C) Are not used in motor pathways
D) Are not used in sensory pathways

A

A) Inhibitory

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50
Q

Why do we need to bring the joint to tension before the HVLA?

A

Stimulate the GTOs to cause muscle relaxation

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51
Q

One GTO monitors tension/contraction of:

A) All the extrafusal fibers
B) Approximately half the extrafusal fibers
C) Approximately 30% of the exxtrafusal fibers
D) Approximately 10-20 extrafusal fibers

A

D) Approximately 10-20 extrafusal fibers

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52
Q

What do GTOs monitor?

A) Gamma neurons
B) Stretch
C) Ib neurons
D) Tension/contraction

A

D) Tension/contraction

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53
Q

Where are the MSs located?

A

Muscle belly inside fusiform shaped capsule

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54
Q

What do muscle spindles monitor?

A) Gamma neurons
B) Stretch
C) Ia neurons
D) Tension/contraction

A

B) Stretch

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55
Q

How many neurons are in between the Ia afferent neuron and the alpha motor neuron?

A

Zero

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56
Q

The Ia afferent neuron goes to (choose all that apply):

A) The same muscle
B) Synergistic muscles
C) Antagonistic muscles
D) Gamma motor neurons

A

A) The same muscle
B) Synergistic muscles
C) Antagonistic muscles
D) Gamma motor neurons

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57
Q

Gamma motor neurons regulate:

A) Contraction of extrafusal fibers
B) MS size
C) Muscle mass
D) MS sensitivity

A

D) MS sensitivity

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58
Q

It is desirable to have _______ gamma gain.

A

High

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59
Q

Why is it important to keep the intrafusal fibers taut?

A) To improve blood flow
B) So it is sensitive at all muscle lengths
C) To stimulate the Ib fibers
D) So that it takes more stretch to stimulate the MS

A

B) So it is sensitive at all muscle lengths

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60
Q

A fit athlete:

A) Should have clear muscle definition
B) Should have muscles with smooth contours
C) Should have tight, tense muscles

A

B) Should have muscles with smooth contours

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61
Q

What are the four functions of gamma gain?

A

1) Stay upright against gravity
2) Keep center of gravity within the base of support
3) Store energy
4) Allow smooth movement

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62
Q

To compensate for poor muscle tone:

A) Strength is used
B) Movement is slower
C) Tension is used
D) Less energy is expended

A

C) Tension is used

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63
Q

Tense muscles make movement more or less accurate?

A

Less accurate

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64
Q

Tense muscles can lead to tendon injury–

A) With intense work
B) With slow work
C) Within the normal range of motion
D) Outside the normal range of motion

A

C) Within the normal range of motion

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65
Q

Low gamma gain can lead to tendon injury–

A) With intense work
B) With slow work
C) Within the normal range of motion
D) Outside the normal range of motion

A

D) Outside the normal range of motion

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66
Q

Describer the ideal stance and posture for a canine athlete:

A

Stand square, place feet with confidence; relaxed posture and good muscle tone

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67
Q

A patient present with a deficit of blink reflex on the left medial canthus, atrophy of the left temporalis and masseter.

This indicates a deficit of which cranial nerve?

A

CN V (Trigeminal nerve)

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68
Q

A patient present with a deficit of blink reflex on the left medial canthus, atrophy of the left temporalis and masseter.

This reflects a deficit on which side of the brain?

A

Left

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69
Q

A patient present with a deficit of blink reflex on the left medial canthus, atrophy of the left temporalis and masseter.

How can we address this deficit?

A

Stimulate proprioceptors on the right side

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70
Q

What is the definition of dysafferentation?

A

A decrease in Ia afferent activity coupled with an increase in nociceptive fiber activity, often due to a restriction

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71
Q

What are 3 ways a restriction can adversely affect nerve function?

A

(1) Direct effect on dorsal root ganglion (DRG), nerve root, or peripheral nerve
(2) Inflammation defusing into the nerve
(3) Decreased circulation to the nerve

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72
Q

A dog that walks slowly and carefully is more likely to have a _____ problem.

Neurologic or Musculoskeletal?

A

Neurologic

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73
Q

Why do neurologic signs improve as speed is increased?

A

Neuro deficits are a lack of communication between the nervous system and the muscle. As speed increases the animal relies more on stored energy to maintain gait instead of muscle strength.

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74
Q

T/F: The basic rhythmic pattern of gait is generated in the spinal cord and doesn’t depend on the brain.

A

TRUE

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75
Q

What are central pattern generators? Where are they located?

A

Neural networks that generate rhythmic motor activity without sensory feedback; located in the spinal cord

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76
Q

What is the primary goal of the vestibular system?

A

Maintain correct orientation of the head and neck

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77
Q

What is phase dependent reflex reversal?

A

The same stimulus causes a different response depending on the phase of stride

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78
Q

Where are the second order sympathetic cell bodies located? What joints are they near?

A

Located in the sympathetic trunk that lies just outside the vertebrae in the thoracolumbar region;
2 are near the 1st rib, 1 near the TMJ

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79
Q

How can a restriction cause local patchy sweating?

A

Restrictions stimulate sympathetic nervous system

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80
Q

What are 4 effects of chronic sympathetic stimulation?

A

(1) Immune depression
(2) Adrenal fatigue
(3) GI problems
(4) Chronic pain

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81
Q

What effect does nociception have on the sympathetics?

A

Nociception stimulates the sympathetics

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82
Q

Which is faster, feed-forward or feed-back? Why?

A

Feed-forward is faster–it starts before the intended movement

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83
Q

Effective feed-back is dependent on high _______.

A

Gamma gain

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84
Q

Which mechanism compares the intended movement to the actual movement? (Feed-forward or feed-back)

A

Feed-back

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85
Q

When are injuries likely to occur with feed-back mechanisms? How can we protect athletes against this type of injury?

A

Injuries are likely to occur with unexpected disruptions of balance; for prevention the athlete should train controlled disruptions of balance

86
Q

What happens before a voluntary movement begins?

A

Motor planning

87
Q

What is motor planning?

A

The brain “sees” the desired outcome before the movement begins

88
Q

What are 2 things that affect the speed of voluntary movement?

A

(1) Number of neurons

(2) Amount of information processed

89
Q

What are 2 things that affect the accuracy of a movement? What is their affect, to increase or decrease accuracy?

A

(1) Prior experience–increases accuracy

(2) Speed–decreases accuracy

90
Q

Why are reflexes so fast?

A

They travel through only two neurons

91
Q

Activation of flexor muscles reflexively ______ the extensors.

A

Inhibits

92
Q

What 3 types of action make up complex movements?

A

(1) Reflexes
(2) Rhythmic
(3) Voluntary

93
Q

T/F: One example of burst neurons that regulate gait is the central pattern generators (CPG’s)

A

TRUE

94
Q

Adaptive pain includes _______ and _______ pain.

A

Nociceptive; inflammatory

95
Q

How is neurogenic pain related to injury?

A

Neurogenic pain is UNrelated to injury

96
Q

Why do we pull away, yell and get hot when we hit our thumb with a hammer?

A

Nocicpetors stimulate signals to the thalamus (aware of pain–pull away), limbic system (emotional response), and hypothalamus (autonomic response–flush/hot/sweat)

97
Q

What stimulus causes pain in all individuals in all situations?

A

There is none

98
Q

Rank these neurons from fastest to slowest:

A-delta
Ia afferent
C fibers

A

1) Ia afferent
2) A-delta
3) C fibers

99
Q

Which neurons are responsible for dull throbbing or burning pain?

A

C fibers

100
Q

Why does GI pain cause elevated heart rate?

A

C fibers carrying GI pain travel with sympathetic nerves

101
Q

How can stomach ulcers cause pain over the sternum?

A

Somatic and visceral nociceptive neurons synapse in the same part of the dorsal horn so stimulation of one can give the sensation of pain in both places

102
Q

What is neuronal windup?

A

Chronic C fiber stimulation causes dorsal horn cells to become more sensitive and have a larger response to the same stimulus

103
Q

Define neurogenic inflammation.

A

Inflammation due to release of inflammatory factors from the neurons themselves

104
Q

How do neuropeptides differ from neurotransmitters?

A

Neurotransmitters remain in the synaptic cleft and are quickly removed from the environment;
Neuropeptides don’t have a re-uptake system, travel farther and stimulate many neurons

105
Q

How do nociceptors contribute to the swelling, heat and redness of inflammation?

A

Nociceptors can release substance P that causes vasodilation and causes mast cells to release histamine

106
Q

What affect does nociceptor stimulation have on the sympathetics?

A

Nociceptor firing stimulates the sympathetic nervous system

107
Q

What parts of the vertebra surround the spinal canal?

A

Lamina, pedicles, body

108
Q

What is the contact point for C3 thru C7?

A

Lamina-pedicle junction

109
Q 
Which of the following are borders of the IVF? (Choose all that apply):
A. Facets
B. Pedicles
C. Transverse process
D. Ligamentum flavum
A

A. Facets
B. Pedicles
D. Ligamentum flavum

110
Q 
Which of these vertebrae has long, delicate transverse processes?
A. C1
B. C3
C. C5
D. C7
A

B. C3

111
Q

Within the spinal canal the ventral plate carries ____ information while the dorsal plate carries ____ information.

A

motor; sensory

112
Q

Where do the denticulate ligaments run from?

A

The pia mater to the dura

113
Q 
How can vertebral restrictions change the tension on the dura?
A. Through its attachment at the IVF
B. Through the ligamentum flavum
C. Through the transverse process
D. Through the vertebral body
A

A. Through its attachment at the IVF

114
Q

The dorsal root ganglion (DRG) is:
A. Made up of motor neuron cell bodies located in the ventral plate
B. Made of both motor and sensory neuron cell bodies in the IVF
C. Made up of sensory neuron cell bodies in the dorsal plate
D. Made up of sensory neuron cell bodies in the IVF

A

D. Made up of sensory neuron cell bodies in the IVF

115
Q

How can inflammation of the ligamentum flavum affect the spinal nerve?

A

Swelling and inflammation products

116
Q 
The contents of the IVF can be affected by (choose all that apply): 
A. Arthritis or DJD of the facets
B. Restrictions
C. Spondylitis
D. Synovitis of facet joints
A

A, B, D

117
Q

True or False: Restrictions involve the motion unit and have no effect on the IVF.

A

FALSE

118
Q

Name 9 things that lie within the IVF

A 
DRG
Spinal nerve
Recurrent meningeal nerve
CSF
Dura
Blood vessels
Lymphatics
Ligaments
Fat
119
Q

How can cervical restrictions have an affect on distal limb lameness?

A

Motor function and blood flow

120
Q 
Which of these ligaments runs within the spinal canal?
A. Supraspinous
B. Dorsal longitudinal 
C. Ventral longitudinal
D. Lamina-pedicle ligament
A

B. Dorsal longitudinal

121
Q

Why is there no ventral longitudinal ligament in the lower cervical region?

A

To allow for greater extension

122
Q 
Injury or inflammation of which ligament can affect the spinal cord?
A. Ventral longitudinal
B. Dorsal longitudinal
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Nuchal ligament
A

B. Dorsal longitudinal

123
Q 
Injury or inflammation of which ligament can affect the contents of the IVF?
A. Ventral longitudinal
B. Dorsal longitudinal
C. Ligamentum flavum
D. Nuchal ligament
A

C. Ligamentum flavum

124
Q

The atlanto-occipital joint moves only in flexion and extension (TRUE/FALSE)

A

FALSE

125
Q

The capitis muscle is located where?

A

Over the dorsal arch of the atlas

126
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The atlanto-occipital joint is shallow and appears very close to the nuchal crest on radiographs.

A

FALSE

127
Q

What behavior problems can be associated with restrictions of C0-C1?

A

Fear, aggression, depression

128
Q

Which joint is responsible for most of the rotation of the neck?

A

C1-C2

129
Q

Some patients will rotate when asked for even a slight lateral bend of the neck; what can this mean?

A

Restrictions in lower neck

130
Q

In the cervical vertebrae what foramen is mainly for blood vessels?

A

Transverse foramen

131
Q

What are the angle(s) of the facets at C2-C3?

A

45 degrees

132
Q

What are 3 ways that C7 differs from the other cervical vertebrae?

A

C7 has: demi-facets, no transverse foramen, and 8 articular surfaces

133
Q

What is the contact point for C3-C7?

A

Lamina-pedicle junction

134
Q

What are 2 ways a lower cervical restriction can affect the distal limbs?

A

Decreased blood flow, via brachial plexus (in addition to local and compensatory effects)

135
Q

What shoulder flexors attach to the deltoid tuberosity of the humerus?

A

Deltoid; teres minor

136
Q

Which shoulder flexor attaches to the olecranon?

A

Long head of triceps

137
Q

What shoulder flexors attach to the medial side of the humerus?

A

Latissimus dorsi, teres major

138
Q

Which head of the triceps flexes the shoulder and extends the elbow?

A

Long head

139
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The biceps brachia, coracobrachialis, and the subscapularis all insert on the medial side of the leg.

A

TRUE

140
Q

Which muscle runs from the coracoid process of the scapula to the medial humerus?

A

Coracobrachialis

141
Q

Which shoulder extensor inserts on the radius?

A

Biceps brachii

142
Q

Which shoulder extensor has a huge and distinctly shaped tendon that curves over the proximal humerus?

A

Biceps brachii

143
Q

Which shoulder muscle is multipennate and acts like a medial collateral ligament?

A

Subscapularis

144
Q

The two elbow flexors are innervated by the ______ nerve while the extensors are innervated by the _____ nerve.

A

Musculocutaneous; radial

145
Q

Name the elbow flexors:

A

Biceps brachii, brachialis

146
Q

Which muscle wraps around the humerus?

A

Brachialis

147
Q

All elbow extensors insert on the ______.

A

Olecranon

148
Q

Which head of the triceps has an action in addition to elbow extension?

A

Long head

149
Q

Which two muscles extend the elbow?

A

Triceps, tensor fascia antebrachii

150
Q

When a dog’s balance, proprioceptive and nervous systems are working properly, the dog will stand ______.

A

Square/stacked

151
Q

What are 3 biomechanics reasons that a dog should stand stacked?

A

Uses less energy, avoid muscle strain, allows quick movement in any direction

152
Q

Define shunt stability.

A

Engagement of core muscles prior to limb movement

153
Q

TRUE/FALSE: A loss of sensation from peripheral receptors can adversely affect balance.

A

TRUE

154
Q

What are the 3 main goals of the postural system?

A

Maintain steady state against gravity, anticipate voluntary movement, be adaptive

155
Q

How can you determine if a dog leans left or right?

A

Pectoral muscle tension + paw size

156
Q

What is the difference between muscle tension and muscle tone?

A

Muscle tension–Steady state of contraction

Muscle tone–Gamma gain (i.e. sensitivity of muscle to stretch)

157
Q

Which muscles are innervated by cranial nerve XI?

A

Brachiocephalic, trapezius, omotransverarius, sternocephalicus

158
Q

Tendons are viscoelastic. What does this mean?

A

Tendon properties change after repeated cyclical loading

159
Q

How does 10-20 minutes of warm-up before training help prevent injury?

A

Uses the viscoelastic properties of tendons to make them better able to withstand higher loads

160
Q

Why don’t athletes spend a lot of time stretching before training?

A

It decreases support to joints by resetting the muscles to new longer lengths

161
Q

How does chronic stretching affect the muscle to increase ROM?

A

By increasing the number of sarcomeres

162
Q

What are the 2 basic forms of muscle? Which is best at creating a large ROM?

A

Parallel and pennate; parallel is best at creating large ROM

163
Q

Isometric action is often used to _____.

A

Stabilize joints

164
Q

Which type of action can quickly generate the most force?

A

Eccentric

165
Q

What is eccentric action commonly used for?

A

Decelerate joint motion at the end of a movement

166
Q

Muscles can generate the most force at:
A. Full extension
B. Full flexion
C. Resting length

A

C. Resting length

167
Q

What is the benefit of starting with a counter-movement?

A

Generate more force

168
Q

What is reflex potentiation?

A

Stretch on muscle stimulates muscle spindle cells to cause reflex muscle contraction

169
Q

Which muscle action generates more force when loaded slowly?

A

Concentric

170
Q

What are 4 ways the stretch-shortening cycle helps generate more force?

A

Contractile potentiation
Reflex potentiation
Storage of energy
Increased time to apply force

171
Q

What is the force-motion principle?

A

Increasing the ROM increases force

172
Q

What is the Force-time principle?

A

Applying force over a longer period of tie increases the force

173
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The tensor fascia late and internal abdominal oblique both attach to the tuber coxa

A

TRUE

174
Q

What are the centers of rotation of the pelvis?

A

Coxofemoral joint; sacroiliac joint

175
Q

Which muscles attach at the tuber ischium?

A

Biceps femoris, semitendinosus, semimembranosus

176
Q

A PI ilium is restricted in which directions?

A

Caudal and dorsal (posterior and inferior)

177
Q

What are the attachments of the longissimus?

A

Sacrum, ilium and DSPs to the transverse processes of preceding vertebrae

178
Q

What can focal atrophy of the longissimus indicate?

A

Vertebral issues in that area

179
Q

Why is the multifidus an important postural muscle?

A

It has a very high concentration of muscle spindle cells

180
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The multifidus and transversospinalis down and forward while the longissimus runs up and forward.

A

FALSE

The multifidus and transversospinalis run up and forward while the longissimus runs down and forward

181
Q

Which muscles flex the hip?

A

Iliopsoas, Rectus femoris, sartorius, tensor fascia lata

182
Q

Which hip flexor muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur?

A

Iliopsoas

183
Q

Which two hip flexor muscles originate on the tuber coxae?

A

Tensor fascia lata, sartorius

184
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The cranial gluteal nerve innervates the tensor fascia lata

A

TRUE

185
Q

Which hip flexor assists in adduction of the hind limb?

A

Sartorius

186
Q

The semitendinosus originates on the _____ and inserts on the _____.

A

tuber ischium; calcaneus

187
Q

To run faster or jump higher the dog needs to generate ____ ground reaction force (low or high).

A

High

188
Q

How many articular surfaces exist on a thoracic vertebra? What are they?

A

12;

4 facets, 2 body, 2 costotransverse (costal facets), 4 costovertebral (demi-facets)

189
Q

Describe the path of the inter capital ligament.

A

Runs from the neck of one rib, through the intervertebral foramen, across the top of the intervertebral disc (but UNDER the dorsal longitudinal ligament), through the opposite IVF, to the neck of the opposite rib

190
Q

Why do the ribs have a double curve?

A

For flexibility, strength, and to be capable of increasing thoracic volume during inspiration

191
Q

What are the three muscles of inspiration?

A

Rectus thoracis, external intercostal, serrates dorsalis cranialis

192
Q

What is the role of the first rib?

A

To act as a post, pulling the other ribs toward it

193
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The external intercostal muscle has fibers that run cranioventrally and fill in the space between rib bodies.

A

FALSE: The fibers run CAUDOventrally

194
Q

Which muscle of inspiration is on the dorsal aspect of the rib?

A

Serratus dorsalis cranialis

195
Q

Describe the movement of the ribs during inspiration.

A

The ribs move dorsal, cranial, and lateral

196
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The transverses thoracis and internal intercostal muscles are muscles of expiration

A

TRUE

197
Q

Which muscle attaches to the deep aspect of the sternum and the ventral and medial aspects of the first ribs?

A

Transverse thoracis

198
Q

Describe the internal intercostal muscle.

A

Lies between the rib bodies just deep to the external intercostal muscle; fibers run in a cranioventral direction

199
Q

What is the movement of the ribs during expiration?

A

Caudal, ventral, and medial

200
Q

Which abdominal muscle has fibers that run caudoventral?

A

External abdominal oblique

201
Q

What are the attachments for the rectus abdominis muscle?

A

Lateral aspect of ribs 4-9 and prepubic tendon and head of the femur

202
Q

Why is it important for the abdominal muscles to be strong and have good tone?

A

To provide proper stabilization and support the back

203
Q

Which 2 abdominal muscles attach to the tuber coxa (either insertion or origin)?

A

Internal and external abdominal obliques

204
Q

Which abdominal muscle originates at the lumbar transverse processes and medial surface of the last ribs?

A

Transverse abdominal oblique

205
Q

Name 3 muscles that attach the thoracic limb to the trunk and are innervated by Cranial nerve 11/XI

A

Brachiocephalicus, omotransversarius, trapezius

206
Q

What are 2 muscles that lift the scapula?

A

Trapezius, rhomboideus

207
Q

The brachiocephalicus and the _______ are closely associated.

A

Omotransversarius

208
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The brachiocephalicus muscle helps advance the limb and the latissimus dorsi helps to flex the shoulder joint.

A

TRUE

209
Q

What muscle runs from the dorsomedial scapula to the transverse processes of C3 caudal and the first several ribs? What is the action of this muscle?

A

Serratus ventralis;

“Sling”–supports the trunk, flatten lower cranial curvature, lifts cranial thoracics

210
Q

What are the attachments of the superficial pectoral?

A

Craniul sternum to lateral proximal humerus

211
Q

TRUE/FALSE: The latissimus dorsi attaches the thoracic limb to the trunk and also flexes the shoulder.

A

TRUE

212
Q

What muscles extend the hip?

A

Middle gluteal
Biceps femoris
Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus

IVMI Spinal Manipulation (11 decks)

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