Womens health Flashcards

1
Q

What T score reflects a patient who has osteopenia?

A

Between -1.0 and -2.5

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2
Q

What T-score reflects a patient with osteoporosis?

A

-2.5 or less

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3
Q

When and what test screens for osteoporosis?

A

Age 65, DXA scan and if negative, repeat in 2-5 years. If positive, then repeat in 1-2 years.

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4
Q

What tanner stage does breast development (breast buds) start?

A

Tanner stage II

It ends at stage V

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5
Q

At what age do you start Pap smear?

A

21 years old and repeat every 3 years

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6
Q

When is Pap smear and HPV co testing started?

A

Age 30 through 65 and repeat every 5 years.

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7
Q

What is normal vaginal pH?

A

4.0-4.5

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8
Q

What medication treats BV?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl) BID for 7 days

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9
Q

Strawberry cervix is indicative of?

A

Trichomonas

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10
Q

What medication treats trichomonas?

A

Metronidazole (Flagyl) 2g POx 1 dose or 500mg BID for 7 days

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11
Q

What is dyspareunia?

A

Pain during intercourse

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12
Q

A disease of the skin in which white spots appear on the skin and change over time. This is usually found in the vaginal area.

A

Linchen sclerosis

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13
Q

Sexually active female who has not had a period in 6 to 7 weeks complains of lower abdominal/pelvic pain or cramping. Pain worsens when supine or with jarring. If ruptured, pain worsens and can be referred to the right shoulder. Medical history of pelvic inflammatory disease, tubal ligation, or previous a topic pregnancy. Leading cause of death for women in the US in the first trimester of pregnancy.

A

Ectopic pregnancy

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14
Q

Middle aged to older female with a dominant mass on one breast that feels hard and is irregular in shape. The mass is attached to the skin, surrounding breast tissue or is immobile. Among the most common locations are the upper outer quadrant of the breast i.e. the tail of Spence. Skin changes maybe seen such as Peau d’orange, dimpling, and retraction. Mass is painless or maybe accompanied by serous or bloody discharge. The nipple may be displaced or become fixed.

A

Dominant breast mass/breast cancer

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15
Q

Older female reports a history of chronic scaly red colored rash resembling eczema on the nipple that does not heal. Some women complaining of itching. The skin lesion slowly enlarges and evolves to include crusting, alteration, and or bleeding on the nipple.

A

Paget’s Disease of the breast (ductal carcinoma in situ)

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16
Q

Recent or acute onset of red, swollen, and warm area in the breast of a younger woman. Can mimic mastitis. Often there is no distinct lump on the affected breast. Symptoms develop quickly. The skin maybe pitted or appear bruised. More common and African-Americans. A rare but very aggressive form of breast cancer.

A

Inflammatory breast cancer

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17
Q

Older woman with complaints of vague symptoms such as abdominal bloating and discomfort, low back pain, pelvic pain, urinary frequency, and constipation. By the time it is diagnosed, the cancer has already metastasized. If metastasis, symptoms depend on area affected. Symptoms maybe bone pain, abdominal pain, headache, blurred vision, others.

A

Ovarian cancer

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18
Q

In what Tanner are stage does breast development start

A

Tanner stage two and ends at stage five

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19
Q

Where is the majority of breast cancer located

A

The upper outer quadrant of the breasts called the tail of Spence

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20
Q

What is the diagnostic test for breast cancer

A

Tissue biopsy

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21
Q

Is a cervical ectropion benign

A

Yes. Adolescence have a large ectropion which is an immature cervix

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22
Q

Patients with what condition have high androgen levels and multiple cysts on their ovaries which causes acne, hirsutism, and ogliomenorrhea

A

PCOS

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23
Q

What is the diagnostic test for cervical cancer

A

Biopsy of the cervix

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24
Q

When is the best time to perform a Pap test

A

Between 10 and 20 days after the last Menses

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25
Q

What should the patient avoid about two days before the pap test

A

Douching and vaginal foams/medication

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26
Q

When should a baseline Pap smear be done

A

Age 21 and repeat every three years

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27
Q

If a patient age to 20 or younger had an abnormal Pap smear of undetermined significance when should the pap be repeated

A

12 months

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28
Q

If the patient has an abnormal Pap of undetermined significance that is 21 years or older what should be done next

A

Order Pap smear with reflex HPVDNA testing. If Pap is abnormal, HPV strain testing is done automatically by the lab.

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29
Q

What types of HPV are oncogenic

A

Types 16 and 18. Referral for colposcopy and cervical biopsy

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30
Q

If A patient Pap smear had atypical glandular cells of undetermined significance what should be done next

A

Refer for endometrial biopsy

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31
Q

If a patient’s Pap results was a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion and high grade squamous epithelium lesion what should be done next

A

HPV Testing and refer for Colposcopy and biopsy

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32
Q

What are the two FDA approved vaccines that are very effective in preventing persistent infection with the oncogenic HPV strain

A

Gardasil & Cervarix

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33
Q

What is used to help with a diagnosis of fungal infection of the hair skin and nails

A

Potassium hydroxide slide

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34
Q

A test for BV. A positive result occurs when a strong fishlike owner is released after 1 to 2 drops of KOH are added to the slide

A

Whiff test

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35
Q

Used as an adjunct for evaluating herpatic infections i.e. oral, genital, skin. A positive smear will show large amounts of abnormal nuclei in the squamous epithelium cells not commonly used

A

Tzanck smear

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36
Q

What type of birth control pills are used for acne

A

Triphasic pills such as ortho Tri-Cyclen

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37
Q

What type of birth control pill is safe for breast-feeding women

A

Progesterone only pills. Use on day one of menstrual cycle.

Micronor

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38
Q

What are absolute contraindications to birth-control pills

A

Any condition that increases the risk of blood clotting such as history of thrombophlebitis or thromboembolic disorders such as DVT, genetic coagulation defects such as factor V Leiden disease, major surgery with prolonged immobilization, smoker over the age of 35. Any condition that increases the risk of strokes such as headaches with focal neurological symptoms, history of CVA and TIA, hypertension, migraine headache with aura. Inflammation and or acute infections of the liver with elevated liver function test, and hepatic adenomas or carcinoma, cholestatic jaundice of pregnancy. Known or suspected cardiovascular disease such as coronary artery disease, diabetes with vascular component. Some reproductive condition or cancers, known or suspected pregnancy, undiagnosed genital bleeding, breast, real, or ovarian cancer.

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39
Q

Mnuemonic for absolute contraindications for oral contraceptives

A
My CUPLETS
My: migraines with aura
C: CAD or CVA
U: undiagnosed genital bleeding 
P: pregnant or suspect pregnancy 🤰 
L: liver tumor or active liver disease 
E: estrogen dependent tumor 
T: thrombus or emboli
S: smoker age 35 or older
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40
Q

Advantages of oral contraceptives and after five or more years of use

A

Decreased incidence of dysmenorrhea and cramps, PID, iron deficiency anemia, acne and hirsutism, ovarian cyst, heavy and or
Irregular period.

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41
Q

Before starting oral contraceptives what must be ruled out

A

Pregnancy

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42
Q

All patients must be instructed to use what during the first two weeks after starting the pill

A

Back up condoms

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43
Q

Does a patient that takes an oral contraceptive need to follow up

A

Yes within 2 to 3 months to check blood pressure and for side effects and patients questions

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44
Q

How do you treat menstrual cramps

A

NSAIDs such as Alleve, naprosyn

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45
Q

What are possible causes of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Endometriosis, PID, fibroids

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46
Q

What constitutes primary amenorrhea

A

Absence of menses by age 15, often secondary to dysfunction of the hypothalamus, pituitary, ovaries, uterus, or vagina. Refer to reproductive endocrinology.

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47
Q

What are the variables of secondary dysmenorrhea

A

Onset usually after age 25, abnormal uterine bleeding and, variable symptoms such as nausea, Vomiting, diarrhea, and back pain. Dyspareunia (pain during intercourse), symptoms often worsen over time. Causes are endometriosis, fibroids, PID or infection, adenomyosis

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48
Q

How do you manage dysmenorrhea

A

Get a good history both medical and menstrual. Physical exam to identify a cause. Pelvic exam may differ if young, not sexually active adolescents with mild symptoms. Consider a pelvic ultrasound to look for adnexal masses, fibroids, other pelvic pathology. If secondary, address underlying cause

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49
Q

Can intrauterine contraception help with dysmenorrhea symptoms

A

Yes

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50
Q

How long does Mirena last

A

Five years

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51
Q

How long does Skyla last

A

3 years because skyla=smaller

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52
Q

If a patient comes in with abnormal uterine bleeding and how is this constituted

A

Any bleeding beyond 12 months since last menstrual period in a post menopausal woman. Even one drop of blood is concerning. Referred to OB/GYN to rule out cancer

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53
Q

How do you define a post menopausal woman

A

A woman that did not have her period for more than one year

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54
Q

What is the mnuemonic for abnormal uterine bleeding

A
P: polyps greater than 30 years
A: adenomyosis greater than 30 years
L: leiomyoma/fibroids greater than 30 years 
M: malignancy/hyperplasia greater than 40 years, obesity, DM, PCOS greater than 50 years
C: coagulopathy any age
O: ovulatory dysfunction any age
E: endometrial disorders any age
I: iatrogenic medications any age
N: not classified
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55
Q

If a patient misses one day of birth control what must They do next

A

Take two pills for the next two days to catch up and finish the birth control pill pack. Use condoms for the current pill cycle.

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56
Q

What should a patient do if they miss two consecutive days of birth control

A

Take two pills the next two days to catch up and finish the birth control pill pack. Use condoms for the current pill cycle.

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57
Q

What drugs interact with oral contraceptives and will cause the patient to use an alternative form of birth control such as condoms when taking these drugs and for one pill cycle afterwards

A

Anticonvulsants such as phenobarbital and phenytoin, antifungal, certain antibiotics such as ampicillin, tetracycline, and rifampin. Saint Johns wort which may cause a breakthrough bleeding

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58
Q

When should emergency contraception such as the morning after pill be taken

A

Most effective if taken within the first 24 hours. Rule out pre-existing pregnancy first. Effective up to 72 hours after unprotected sex.

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59
Q

what is the mnuemonic for pill danger signs

A
ACHES
A: abdominal pain 
C: chest pain 
H: headache 
E: eye problems change in vision 
S: severe leg pain
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60
Q

What type of contraception results in higher levels of estrogen which increases the risk of blood clots and DVT

A

Contraceptive patch i.e. Ortho Evra

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61
Q

What are contraindications for intrauterine device

A

Active PID or history of PID within the last year, suspected or with STD or pregnant, uterine or cervical abnormality, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding or uterine/cervical cancer, history of ectopic pregnancy

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62
Q

How long does a dose of Depo-Provera last

A

Each dose by injection lasts three months. Check for pregnancy before starting dose. Start in first five days of cycle because females are less likely to ovulate at these times. Women on Depo-Provera for at least one year or longer will have amenorrhea because of severe uterine atrophy from lack of estrogen. Do not recommend to women who want to become pregnant within 12 to 18 months. Causes the late return to fertility. It takes up to one year from most women to start ovulating.

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63
Q

What is the black box warning for Depo-Provera

A

Avoid long term use i.e. more than two years. Increases risk of osteopenia/osteoporosis that may not be fully reversible. Using Depo-Provera for more than two years is discouraged.

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64
Q

What contraceptive should be avoided in anorexia nervosa patients

A

Avoid using Depo-Provera in this population because it will further increase their risk of osteopenia/osteoporosis. Recommend calcium with vitamin D and weight-bearing exercises for patients on this medication. Consider testing for osteopenia/osteoporosis using a DXA scan

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65
Q

What are the rules for using a diaphragm with contraceptive gel and cervical cap

A

The diaphragm must be used with spermicidal gel. After intercourse leave diaphragm inside vagina for at least 6 to 8 hours. Can remain inside vagina for up to 24 hours. Need additional spermicide before every act of intercourse.

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66
Q

Patients that use diaphragm are at Increased risk of

A

UTIs and toxic shock syndrome

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67
Q

Monthly hormonal cycle induces breast tissue to become engorged and painful. Symptoms occur two weeks before the onset of menses and are at their worst right before the menstrual cycle. Resolves after menses start. Commonly starts in women in their 30s.

A

Fibrocystic breast

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68
Q

Adults to middle aged woman complains of the cyclic onset of bilateral breast tenderness and breast lumps that start from a few days before her period For many years. Once menstruation starts, the tenderness disappears and the size of the breast lumps decrease. During breast examination, the breast lumps are tender and feel rubbery, and are mobile to touch. Denies dominant mass, skin changes, nipple discharge, or enlarged nodes

A

Fibrocystic breast

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69
Q

What is the treatment plan for fibrocystic breast

A

Stop caffeine intake. Vitamin E and evening prime rose capsules daily. Wear bras with good support. Must refer if the patient has a dominant mass, skin changes, or fixed mass

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70
Q

What are some risks and complications of PCOS

A

Endometrial cancer, infertility, diabetes, metabolic syndrome, obesity, cardiovascular disease, and hyperlipidemia.

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71
Q

Signs and symptoms include ogliomenorrhea, amenorrhea, hyperandrogenism i.e. acne, hirsutism, cystic ovaries, infertility, mental health issues. Patient Can skip months of period. It takes two years to have a solid, healthy menstrual period established. These patients need to have babies earlier in life.

A

PCOS

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72
Q

Insulin resistance is the pathophysiology of

A

PCOS

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73
Q

How do you diagnose polycystic ovarian syndrome

A

Rotterdam criteria which is two of three:
Oligomenorrhea
Hyperandrogenism
Cystic ovaries

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74
Q

Complications associated with PCOS include

A

Uterine/endometrial cancer, diabetes, cardiovascular disease, infertility

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75
Q

Acne, hirsutism, alopecia, acanthosis nigricans, amenorrhea, oligomenorrhea, infertility, hyperinsulinemia and mood disorders in adults are all symptoms of

A

PCOS

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76
Q

What is the PCOS diagnostic work up and differential

A

Bodyweight, BMI greater than 30, waste greater than 35 inches, blood pressure, ultrasound of ovaries/uterus hyperplasia greater than 10 mm, CBC, lipid’s low HDL, high trigs/LDL, LFTs, TSH, oral glucose tolerance hemoglobin A-1 C DM=>6.4 at risk => or equal to 5.6-6.4, total testosterone for PCOS =>60, tumor > 200, free T for PCOS = 2-3, pregnancy 🤰 test hcg, prolactin 3-27ng/ml consider DHEA-S, LH/FSH ratio >3, but may be normal in PCOS

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77
Q

How do you manage a patient with PCOS

A

Discuss fertility planning, FastTrack fertility, letrozole preferred, not clomid,

78
Q

What are problems associated with PCOS

A

Infertility and 40% of females, spontaneous abortion, gestational diabetes, preeclampsia/hypertension

79
Q

What are lifestyle modifications for PCOS patients

A

Weight loss greater than 5%, exercise and stress reduction

80
Q

If a patient with PCOS does not desire pregnancy how are they managed

A

Combination hormonal contraceptives, low androgen progestins are safer i.e. Levonorgestrel, Norethindrone, Norgestimate which helps androgen symptoms and prevents uterine cancer. Metformin

81
Q

For most women HPV clears spontaneously within how many months if the patient is less than 24 years old

A

8 to 24 months

82
Q

How is cervical cancer develops

A

Persistent HPV infection over many years

83
Q

What are high-risk subtypes for cervical cancer

A

16, 18, 45, 31, 33, 52, 58, 35

84
Q

When should HPV vaccination be given

A

Give prior to onset of sexual activity i.e. coitarche. This is the age of first penile vaginal sex. Give routinely at 9 to 12 years for boys and girls in three injections spaced out at the first month, then second month, then six months.If Series is incomplete, finished with new vaccine. May benefit if greater than 26 years old but no recommendations yet

85
Q

What are the screening guidelines for cervical cancer screening for ages 21 to 29

A

First Pap at age 21 and repeat every three years up to age 30

86
Q

What are the screening guidelines for cervical cancer screening age greater than 30

A

Pap and HPV is the primary screening. Repeat every five years if both negative. Pap only every three years.

87
Q

What is the cervical cancer screening guidelines for age 65 and over

A

May stop if negative history times 10 years

88
Q

What are the cervical cancer screening guidelines after a hysterectomy

A

For benign disease it can be discontinued. If not benign, three annual negative tests then discontinue ACS. Ongoing screening for 20 years even if older than 65

89
Q

What are the guidelines for ASC (atypical squamous cells) for ages 21-24

A

Watch and wait. Repeat pap at 12 mos. if negative, routine screening. If positive then refer for colposcopy.

90
Q

What are the guidelines of ASC-US age over 24

A

Reflex HPV and if positive refer for colposcopy

91
Q

What are the guidelines if a patient is found to have ASC-H

A

Colposcopy for all

92
Q

What are risk factors for bacterial vaginosis

A

New sexual partner, not using condoms, douching, copper are you see which can throw off the vaginal flora

93
Q

Itching, burning, dysuria, vaginal pH of 4.0 to 4.6, negative with test, and buds and pseudohyphae on KOH

A

VV Candidiasis

94
Q

Malodorous discharge, pH of the vagina is greater than 4.6 with a positive whiff test

A

BV

95
Q

Malodorous discharge, dysuria, vaginal pH of 5.0 to 6.0, positive or negative with test

A

Trich

96
Q

If a patient has recurrent used infections what should they be screened for

A

Diabetes, pregnancy test, HIV

97
Q

If a patient is on Diflucan or vaginal medication, what must they do for precaution

A

Delay sexual intercourse until symptoms improve

98
Q

What treatment for Vulvovaginal candidiasis relieve symptoms most rapidly

A

Topical antifungal

99
Q

What is a male yeast infection

A

Balanitis

100
Q

If a patient is on an antibiotic and is prone to yeast infections what should be recommended

A

daily yogurt or lactobacillus pills

101
Q

Does a sexual partner need to be treated for BV

A

No because it’s not a sexually transmitted disease

102
Q

What population with BV are at a higher risk for injury uterine infection and premature labor

A

Pregnant women

103
Q

If a what’s near shows clue cells and very few white blood cells what must be considered

A

BV

104
Q

What is the normal vaginal pH

A

4.0 to 4.5

105
Q

What is considered an alkaline vaginal pH

A

Greater than 4.5

106
Q

How do you treat BV

A

Flagyl or metronidazole b.i.d. for seven days. Do not drink alcohol while on this medication. Abstain from sexual intercourse until treatment is done

107
Q

Uni cellular protozoan parasite with flagella that infects genitourinary tissue in both males and females. Infection causes inflammation, itching, burning of the vagina/urethra

A

Trichomonas

108
Q

Adult female complains of very pruitic, reddened Vulvovaginal vaginal area. May complain of dysuria. Copious grayish green and bubbly vaginal discharge. Most males and sex partners may have symptoms urethritis or maybe asymptomatic

A

Trichomonas

109
Q

When strawberry cervix is found from small points of bleeding on cervical surface with a swollen and vulvar and vaginal area with a vaginal pH of greater than 5.0 what must be considered

A

Trichomonas

110
Q

Microscopic shows mobile Uni cellular organisms with flagella and large amount of white blood cells

A

Trichomonas

111
Q

How do you treat trichomonas

A

Flagyl or metronidazole to grams PO or 500 mg b.i.d. for seven days. Treat sexual partner. Avoid sex until both partners complete treatment.

112
Q

This occurs in postmenopausal women and they show nonspecific signs and symptoms such as watery, yellow or white, malodorous vaginal discharge

A

Atrophic vaginitis

113
Q

Vaginal irritation or burning, dyspareunia or pain with intercourse, urinary tract symptoms, thinning of vaginal epithelium, loss of elasticity, loss of Rugae, vaginal pH greater than or equal to five is consistent with

A

Atrophic vaginitis

114
Q

What is the treatment for atrophic vaginitis

A

Estrogen PV, Osphena as an alternative to estrogen, DHEA PV

115
Q

A 60-year-old woman has begun to have a small amount of blood escaping from the vagina. What is the most common cause of malignancy when is One found?

A

Endometrial cancer

116
Q

Atrophic vaginitis occurs due to

A

Lack of estrogen and estrogen dependent tissue of the urogenital tract and results in atrophic changes in the vulva and vagina of menopausal women.

117
Q

Disease of low bone mass with micro architectural disruption

A

Osteoporosis

118
Q

What are risk factors for osteoporosis

A

Caucasian/Asian, family history, advanced age, previous fracture, long-term glucocorticoid therapy, low bodyweight less than 127 pounds, cigarette smoking, excess alcohol and

119
Q

What is a T score reflects osteoporosis

A

-2.5 or less

120
Q

What is a T score that reflects osteopenia

A

Between -1.0 & -2.5

121
Q

How do you screen for osteoporosis and at what age

A

Screening starts at age 65 and the screening choice is a DEXA scan. Screening that recommended pre-menopause unless risk factors present

122
Q

How do you manage osteoporosis

A

Weight bearing exercise, stop cigarette smoking, stop excess alcohol, avoid cortical steroids and anti-convulsant is one possible, take calcium daily at 1200 mg a day plus if vitamin D deficient replace with vitamin D3. The preferred calcium choice is food

123
Q

What medications can be prescribed for osteoporosis

A

Oral by phosphonate’s are considered first line for most patients because they inhibit bone resolution and it remains active in the bone for weeks, months and maybe years. It also increases bone mass and reduces risk of fracture.
Alendronate (Fosamax) weekly
Risendronate (Actonel) weekly
Ibandronate (Bonita) monthly. Does not avoid hip fracture risk
These medications need to be taken for 5 years to prevent fracture.

124
Q

What are the most common breast masses

A

Fibroadenomas and cysts. Benign complaints can mimic breast cancer. Refer to breast specialist

125
Q

What are the diagnostic studies for breast masses

A

Ultrasound for any female/male less than 30 years, with focal mass or symptom. First line in pregnancy or less than 30 years. To assess mass identified on mammogram

126
Q

What is a diagnostic test for any female or male greater than 30 with a breast complaint

A

Mammogram

127
Q

What is the value of a breast ultrasound

A

Differentiates fluid filled cyst from solid mass

128
Q

85% of breast cancer occurs in women that are what age

A

Greater than 50 years

129
Q

What are risk factors for breast cancer

A

Gender and age especially greater than 65 years, genetic predisposition BRCA one, to genetic mutation, obesity, family history, reproductive history of low parity, estrogen exposure with early menarche less than 12 years, late menopause greater than 55 years, estrogen medications

130
Q

What is screening for average risk patients for breast cancer

A

Mammogram start at age 45. May begin aged 40-44. Then yearly. At age 55+, screen every 2 years. Yearly screening may be offered. Clinical and self breast exam not recommended

131
Q

What is a great option for contraception for all ages with fewer contra indications

A

Long acting reversible contraceptives such as ParaGard, Mirena, Skyla

132
Q

Patients with gastric bypass, celiac disease, hyperthyroidism, ankylosing spondylitis, rheumatoid arthritis and others are at risk for

A

Osteoporosis

133
Q

Low calcium intake, vitamin D deficiency, in adequate physical activity, alcoholic, high caffeine intake, and smoking are lifestyle risk factors for

A

Osteoporosis

134
Q

When should a DEXA scan be repeated

A

You do a baseline scan and repeat in 1 to 2 years if on a treatment regimen in order to assess the efficacy of the medication. It’s not on treatment, repeat DEXA into 2-five years

135
Q

What can biphosphonates cause as an adverse reaction

A

Esophagitis, esophageal perforation, gastric ulcers, reactivation/bleeding peptic ulcer disease. Patients need to report sore throat, dysphasia, or Midsternal pain immediately

136
Q

When is the best time to take a biphosphonate

A

Take immediately upon awakening in the morning with a full glass of plain water. Take tablet sitting or standing and wait at least 30 minutes before laying down. Do not crash, split, or two tablets. Swallow the tablets whole. Never take these drugs with other medications such as juice, coffee, antacids, vitamins.

137
Q

what are contraindications for biphosphonates

A

Inability to sit upright, esophageal motility disorder’s, history of peptic ulcer disease or history of gastrointestinal bleeding

138
Q

If I doses of biphosphonate are given what can happen

A

Osteonecrosis of the jaw more likely if on IM dose. Watch for complaints of Jaw heaviness, pain, swelling, and loose teeth

139
Q

Estrogen replacement therapy increases the risk of

A

Heart disease, DVT, breast and endometrial cancer

140
Q

What type of birth control pill contains iron during the last seven days of the pill cycle instead of a placebo pill

A

Loestrin FE

141
Q

Low-dose birth-control pills contain how much of ethinyl estradiol

A

20-25 mcg

142
Q

What type of birth control pill is indicated for the treatment of acne

A

Desogen ortho-tricyclin and Yaz

143
Q

What type of birth control needs to be avoided in anorexic or bulimic patience because of a very high-risk of osteoporosis

A

Depo-Provera

144
Q

Women taking Seasonale will have how many periods per year

A

Four

145
Q

What is considered a relative contraindication of birth control

A

Migraine

146
Q

What is considered an absolute contraindication of birth control

A

A history of a blood clot that resolved

147
Q

Squamous epithelium cells that have blurred edges due to the number of bacteria on the cell surface is consistent with what

A

Clue cells in BV

148
Q

If an ovary is palpable but must be ordered

A

Intravaginal ultrasound

149
Q

If a patient has a hard irregular mass that is not mobile on the breast what must be for what must be ruled out

A

Breast cancer

150
Q

Which NSAID is effective for menstrual pain

A

Mefenamic acid (ponstel)

151
Q

What type of medication can elevate total T4 levels and triglycerides/lipids

A

Birth control pills

152
Q

What is not the best birth control method for a woman who wants to become pregnant in 12 to 18 months

A

Depo-Provera

153
Q

In reproductive aged teens and women who present with acute pelvic pain or Lower abdominal pain what test must always be performed

A

Pregnancy test

154
Q

A 28 year-old female presents with a slightly tender 1.5 cm lump in her right breast. She noticed it 2 today’s ago. She has no associated lymphadenopathy and there is no nipple discharge. How should she be managed

A

Re-examination after her next menses

155
Q

A patient asks the NPs advice about an herb to help with her hot flashes. The NP knows that these

A

May be a contraindication in patients with a history of breast cancer

156
Q

A 22-year-old female has been diagnosed with PCOS. What is a common finding

A

Elevated insulin levels

157
Q

A 22-year-old female states that she has multiple sexual partners and in consistently uses barrier protection. Which form of birth control should the nurse practitioner avoid prescribing in this patient

A

Intrauterine device because when a patient has multiple sexual partners they are at an increased risk for PID

158
Q

What hormone increases during menopause

A

Follicle-stimulating hormone

159
Q

A female should be told to take her oral contraceptive pill at bedtime if she experiences

A

Nausea

160
Q

A patient who takes oral contraceptive pills is at an increased risk of

A

Gallbladder disease

161
Q

Hot flashes that occurred during menopause are thought to be related to

A

Fluctuating estrogen levels

162
Q

Does ovarian cancer present with postmenopausal bleeding

A

No

163
Q

At what age are Pap smears discontinued in women

A

After the age of 65

164
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice to differentiate a solid from a fluid filled breast mass

A

Ultrasound

165
Q

To palpate an indirect inguinal hernia in a woman, have her stand and palpate in the labia majora and

A

Palpate upward to just lateral to the pubic tubercle’s

166
Q

The most common causes of sexual problems in females are related to

A

Psychosocial factors

167
Q

When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the upper blade as of a tractor could expose a

A

Rectocele

168
Q

Upon examination of the cervix, and an irregular Cauliflower like growth was noted around the cervical os.This finding is most suggestive of

A

Carcinoma of the cervix

169
Q

A female patient presents with a profuse, yellowish, green discharge that is malodorous. The vaginal discharge is most consistent with

A

Trichomonas

170
Q

If urethritis or inflammation of the para urethral glands is expected in a female patient, the index finger should be inserted into the vagina and

A

Milk the urethra gently from the inside outward

171
Q

Upon examination of the vagina, a small, red, benign tumor is noted at the posterior part of the urethral meatus. This finding is consistent with a

A

Urethral caruncle

172
Q

Upon examination of the vagina, the entire anterior vaginal wall, together with the bladder and urethra create a bulge. This condition is most consistent with a

A

Cystourethrocele

173
Q

Chronic pelvic pain refers to pain that does not respond to therapy and lasts more than how many months

A

Six months

174
Q

When examining the cervix, a translucent nodule is noted on the cervical surface. This finding is consistent with

A

A retention cyst

175
Q

When performing a rectal exam on a female, a hard nodular rectal shelf is palpable at the tip of the examiners finger. This finding is suggestive of

A

Metastatic tissue in the rectouterine pouch

176
Q

Examination of a female patients right breast reveals a retraction of the nipple and areola. This finding is consistent with

A

Breast cancer

177
Q

If performed correctly and in a timely fashion, what is the most it definitive for the diagnosis of breast cancer. Diagnostic test

A

Breast tissue sample

178
Q

The vaginal mucosa lies in transverse folds called the

A

Rugae

179
Q

When performing a vaginal exam with a speculum, the use of the lower blade as a retractor during bearing down could expose an anterior wall defect such as a

A

Cystocele

180
Q

Can a female diagnosed with a 2nd° uterine prolapse, the cervix is located

A

In the introit us

181
Q

Retraction of the nipple and areola suggest

A

An underlying breast mass

182
Q

Postcoital bleeding suggests

A

Cervical cancer

183
Q

The deep red area located around the cervical os is known as

A

The columnnar epithelium

184
Q

Uterine enlargement may suggest

A

Pregnancy, uterine myoma’s or fibroids, or malignancy

185
Q

The most common type of hernia in a woman is the

A

Indirect inguinal hernia

186
Q

A 22-year-old patient has a single, nontender, freely movable lump in her right breast. She denies any nipple discharge. Which of the following diagnoses is the clinical presentation most consistent with

A

Fibroadenoma

187
Q

In comparing sensitivity to specificity, sensitivity refers to a

A

True positive

188
Q

Can a woman taking calcium take it with milk

A

No

189
Q

Does weight loss reduce osteoporosis risk

A

No

190
Q

Why is it important that a post menopausal woman with an intact uterus receive combined estrogen – progestin hormone replacement therapy rather than estrogen alone

A

Prolonged use of unopposed estrogen’s increases the risk of endometrial cancer

191
Q

A 50-year-old patient has abnormal vaginal bleeding with heavy periods and intermenstrual watery discharge with a small amount of blood. What is the most likely diagnosis

A

Endometrial cancer

192
Q

Hormone replacement therapy is related to an increased risk of

A

Stroke