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Pediatrics Flashcards

1
Q

Which immunization is universally recommended for all children at age 1 year (12-23 mos)

A

Hepatitis A

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2
Q

What is the hepatitis B schedule

A

3 dose series
0, 1-2 mos, 6 months after first
*must delay blood donation for 28 days

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3
Q

How do you treat pertussis

A

Macrolides

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4
Q

Which one do you get before 7 years of age

A

DTap

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5
Q

Which one do you get after 7 years

A

TDap

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6
Q

Which immunization should a pregnant woman get in the third trimester

A

TDap

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7
Q

What booster immunization does an 11-12 year old get

A

TDap

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8
Q

What immunization is recommended for healthcare workers And patients 65 years or older

A

TDap

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9
Q

Which immunization git rid of epiglottis

A

Hib

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10
Q

Which immunization creates a rash

A

MMR

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11
Q

Which vaccine is important for infants due to tiny airways

A

Pneumococcal vaccine

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12
Q

Is polio a live or dead virus

A

Dead

Ok to give in immunocompromised patient

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13
Q

Which vaccine is contraindicated in allergies to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymixin B

A

Polio IPV

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14
Q

Live attenuated vaccines equal

A

Fever & rash

Favorable response

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15
Q

What are to live attenuated vaccine examples

A

MMR and varicella

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16
Q

At what age should I live attenuated vaccine be given

MMR and Varicella

A

After the age of one years old

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17
Q

Which immunizations should not be given if a patient is allergic to neomycin or gelatin

A

MMR and varicella

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18
Q

At what age should the meningococcal conjugate vaccine be given (MCV4)

A

Age 11 to 12 years old

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19
Q

W what is a common reaction with the HPV, MC4, and TDap vaccines

A

Syncope

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20
Q

A vaccine should be given in how many days prior to the scheduled time to be considered a valid dose

A

4 days

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21
Q

In how many days given prior to the scheduled time would in a ministration be considered invalid and should be repeated

A

Five days

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22
Q

What type of medication is contra indicated in receiving a varicella or MMR live attenuated vaccination

A

Oral antivirals

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23
Q

What is the CDC’s recommendation for length of time to monitor a child after receiving an immunization

A

15 minutes

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24
Q

Which immunization is administered in order to protect the patient from pertussis

A

TDap

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25
Q

A 12 month old received the MMR immunization three weeks ago. When can the varicella vaccination be given

A

in 1 week

You must wait 4 weeks in between live attenuated vaccinations

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26
Q

What are the core symptoms of ADHD

A

Hyperactivity, impulsivity, and inattention

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27
Q

What are the names of the rating scales for ADHD assessment

A

Child behavior checklist, Connors rating scales, Vanderbilt ADHD rating scales

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28
Q

The most commonly prescribed and tested medications for a ADHD are schedule

A

II

Highly addictive and often abused. Requires urine drug screen

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29
Q

What drug is used in the treatment of childhood asthma

A

Leukotriene receptor agonist
Ex. Singular
Administered via nebulizer

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30
Q

The most common pathogen in pneumonia for children six months to five years old is

A

Viral

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31
Q

When a child has bacterial pneumonia the most common pathogen is

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

DRSP

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32
Q

What is the most sensitive sign of pneumonia in children and older adults who are not running a fever

A

Increased respirations

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33
Q

What is the gold standard of diagnostic studies for pneumonia

A

Chest x-ray

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34
Q

Besides a chest x-ray what other diagnostic studies should be given to a child with pneumonia

A

CBC with differential

WBC >15000 if bacterial

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35
Q

What antibiotic choice is first line treatment for pediatric patients who have bacterial pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin 90 mg per kilogram per day with drug resistant strep pneumo use high dose amoxicillin

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36
Q

If a pediatric patient with bacterial pneumonia is allergic to penicillin, what type of medication should you prescribe

A

Either a macrolide, or clindamycin

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37
Q

What type of infection is bronchiolitis

A

Viral

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38
Q

How is bronchiolitis treated

A

Supportive care

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39
Q

How is croup managed

A

Single dose of oral dexamethasone

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40
Q

On what basis should a child be admitted with croup symptoms

A

Retractions, stridor, respirations >=20, and history of asthma

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41
Q

What test is used to diagnose cystic fibrosis

A

Sweat test

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42
Q

What is cystic fibrosis

A

The inability to transport sodium and chloride across epithelial membranes

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43
Q

What symptoms might be present in a child with suspected cystic fibrosis

A

Recurrent pulmonary infections

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44
Q

Re-current upper respiratory infections are usually due to

A

Allergies

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45
Q

What does lead toxicity masquerade as

A

Iron deficiency anemia

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46
Q

What are the most common symptoms associated with lead toxicity

A

Stomach ache, constipation

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47
Q

If you see pan cytopenia on a CBC what is the most likely diagnosis

A

Leukemia

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48
Q

What type of cancer is failure of the bone marrow

A

Leukemia

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49
Q

What are the most common presenting signs of leukemia

A

Fever in the evening, bleeding, long bone pain in legs, lymphadenopathy

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50
Q

At what size are nodes considered to be enlarged

A

10 mm

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51
Q

Should you give ibuprofen to a child under 6 mos of age

A

No

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52
Q

At what age should the time out method of discipline be initiated

A

18 to 24 months old

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53
Q

How long should a child remain in time out

A

One minute for each year of life

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54
Q

In a 3 1/2 year-old child what percentage of speech should be intelligible by people who are not in daily contact with the child

A

Nearly 100%

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55
Q

At what age does the child have separation anxiety

A

Age 7 to 8 months

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56
Q

Went to the lower central incisor teeth start to erupt

A

6-10 mos

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57
Q

When do the upper central incisor teeth erupt

A

At 8 to 12 months

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58
Q

At what age does a baby respond to their own name and sit up without support

A

6 to 8 months old

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59
Q

At what age does a baby reach for a toy with one hand and recognize familiar people and objects at a distance

A

4 to 6 months old

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60
Q

At what age does a baby babble mama baba and transfer objects hand to hand without difficulty.

A

6 to 8 months

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61
Q

At what age does a baby vocalize AH and OH sounds, and is able to lift had briefly when positioned on the tummy and turn it from side to side.

A

6 to 8 weeks old

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62
Q

For a baby that was born prematurely, the adjusted age calculation should be used to assess their development until age

A

24 months

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63
Q

In examining a healthy two month old baby boy the foreskin cannot be retracted it is considered that

A

In most instances, the foreskin is not easily retractable until the child is about three years old

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64
Q

When do symptoms of pyloric stenosis typically begin to emerge

A

4 to 6 weeks

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65
Q

Olive shaped mass that is palpated on a baby’s stomach after projectile vomiting

A

Pyloric stenosis

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66
Q

A four week old has suspected pyloric stenosis. What imaging study is most commonly used to diagnose this?

A

Ultrasound

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67
Q

What symptom might indicate GERD instead of GER in an infant?

A

Irritability during reflux episode

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68
Q

If a baby is having GER symptoms should the mother continue to breast-feed or not?

A

Yes she should continue to breast-feed, and please baby in supine position to sleep

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69
Q

This pediatric condition is due to intestinal obstruction, and the child will cry and pull their legs up to their chest. The age of onset is usually 3 to 11 months old. In order to diagnose the distance condition a KUB, abdominal ultrasound would be done. This is a surgical emergency.

A

Intussusception

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70
Q

What pediatric condition causes currant jelly stools

A

Interssusception

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71
Q

This pediatric condition consist of involuntary soiling of stool in a child four years old or older. It is more common in males, and the underlying problem is constipation.

A

Encopresis

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72
Q

How do you treat encopresis?

A

Laxatives for initial cleansing , then daily until normal stools . encourage child to sit on the toilet for five minutes to to three times daily after meals to establish normal bowel movements . the goal is one soft store per day .

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73
Q

What is the preferred means of oral rehydration for a child who has diarrhea?

A

Commercially prepared electrolyte solution such as Pedialyte

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74
Q

When should a patient with cryptorchidism be referred to urology?

A

6 mos. of age

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75
Q

A nine month old has hydrocele. What advice should be given to the caregiver?

A

It should resolve by 12 months of age. If not then the patient needs a referral to urology

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76
Q

A one-year-old has persistent hydrocele. What might be an underlying cause?

A

Hernia

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77
Q

A five-year-old has nocturnal enuresis. How should this be managed?

A

Allow the child and caregiver to decide when treatment should be initiated.

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78
Q

How do you treat a pediatric urinary tract infection

A

Collect a specimen and then prescribe a can a third generation cephalosporin such as Cefixime, cefdinir, and ceftibuten

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79
Q

What is the imaging of choice for pediatric urinary tract infection for all and friends ages 2 to 24 months of age with a fever

A

Renal and bladder ultrasound

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80
Q

An eight-year-old male has a sore throat and a tongue with a prominent, erythematous papillae. What should be part of the differential diagnosis

A

Kawasaki Disease

Strept throat

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81
Q

Strawberry tongue is associated with

A

Kawasaki disease

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82
Q

Acute generalized systemic vasculitis of the medium size vassals around the heart

A

Kawasaki disease

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83
Q

What pediatric condition produces conjunctivitis without exudate, macular rash, inflammation of the lips and oral cavity, cervical lymphadenopathy, and EDEMA OF THE HANDS AND FEET

A

Kawasaki disease

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84
Q

What diagnostic tests are given for a Kawasaki disease?

A

CBC, ESR, CRP, ALT/AST, UA, throat culture

Echocardiogram

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85
Q

How is Kawasaki disease treated?

A

Patient is referred to a pediatric cardiology for IV immune globulin and aspirin. Aspirin daily for two months.

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86
Q

What condition is always a result of a pole injury or twisting of the arm

A

Nursemaids elbow

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87
Q

What condition leads to knee pain in an adolescent

A

Osgood Schlatter Disease

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88
Q

At what age does Osgood Schlatter disease occur most often

A

15 years old

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89
Q

What term describes the cause of pain in a patient who has Osgood Schlatter disease?

A

Osteochondritis

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90
Q

When does Osgood Schlatter disease occur?

A

After a growth spurt

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91
Q

How do you manage a patient with Osgood Schlatter disease?

A

Continuation of activity as pain tolerates, ice, analgesics for 3 to 4 days, kneepad.

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92
Q

When a pediatric patient presents with hip pain what type of x-rays do you get

A

AP, and frog leg views

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93
Q

What pediatric condition is osteonecrosis of the capital femoral head due to lack of blood supply

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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94
Q

What is the Ann office diagnostic tool for Leggs-calves-Perthes disease

A

Trendelenburg test

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95
Q

What to pediatric hip conditions need x-rays

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis (SCFE) and Leggs-Calves-Perthes Disease

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96
Q

What pediatric hip condition starts with a history of upper respiratory infection 7 to 14 days prior.

A

Transient Synovitis of the hip
No xrays
Subsides on its own
Treat symptomatically

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97
Q

Coxsackie A virus is associated with

A

Herpangina

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98
Q

Coxsackievirus A16 is associated with

A

Hand foot mouth

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99
Q

Which viral exanthem is a maculopapular brick red rash, that starts on the head and neck and spreads to the trunk and extremities

A

Measles (Rubeola)

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100
Q

Which viral exanthem creates a slapped cheek rash, Lacy, macular rash

A

Fifth Disease (Erythema infectiosum)

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101
Q

Which viral exanthem creates a high fever for 2 to 4 days, then abrupt cessation of fever with the appearance of maculopapular rash but not on the face

A

Rose Ola (Exanthem subitum)

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102
Q

When can a child with roseola go back to school

A

24 hours after the patient is fever free

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103
Q

When can a patient with chickenpox go back to school

A

24 hours fever free and after all vesicles have crusted over

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104
Q

Which viral exanthem is an exotoxin rash secondary to group A strep infection, sandpaper like rash that ultimately desquamates

A

Scarlet fever

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105
Q

What disease manifests as vesicles that rupture and produce painful alterations on the soft palate in the mouth

A

Herpangina

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106
Q

Do all viral exanthem rashes blanche

A

Yes

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107
Q

Does petechiae and purpura Blanche

A

No

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108
Q

A three-year old is diagnosed with fifth disease. Her mother is pregnant in the first trimester and has had significant exposure to the sick child. If her mother is not immune, what is the risk of the fetus?

A

Intrauterine fetal death

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109
Q

At what age is roseola usually diagnosed

A

7 to 13 months

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110
Q

Koplik spots are associated with

A

Measles

Resembles grains of sand of the oral mucosa and precedes rash

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111
Q

Cough, runny nose, and conjunctivitis are findings of

A

Measles

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112
Q

A bulging and cloudy TM is associated with

A

acute otitis media

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113
Q

How do you treat otitis media for a child that is under six months of age

A

Antibiotics

Amoxicillin

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114
Q

How do you treat otitis media in a child six months to two years of age

A

Antibiotics if severe, observe if not severe

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115
Q

How do you treat otitis media in a child that is greater than two years of age

A

Antibiotics if severely ill otherwise observation only

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116
Q

A two-year-old is diagnosed with otitis media and an antibiotic is prescribed. When should her fever resolve after receiving the antibiotic?

A

48 to 72 hours

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117
Q

How do you treat a patient who has had recent antibiotic exposure for otitis media

A

Amoxicillin clavulanate or Augmentin

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118
Q

If a patient is allergic to pcn, what should be prescribed for otitis media?

A

2nd or 3rd generation cephalosporins

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119
Q

Pyloric stenosis usually occurs in

A

The first born male

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120
Q

A mild fever may occur after which vaccination

A

Pneumococcal conjugate 13 valent vaccine
Prevnar
PCV13

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121
Q

When is screening for autism recommended

A

18 to 24 months

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122
Q

What tanner stage is pre-puberty

A

Stage one

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123
Q

What tanner stage has breast butts and the popular elevated, Downey pigmented pubic hair along the labia majora. Testes enlarge, scrotal skin reddening with change in texture, sparse growth of long slightly pigmented pubic hair at base of penis.

A

Stage two

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124
Q

What Tanner stage is consistent with breast mound enlargements, darker, courser, curly pubic hair on mons, labia majora, onset of growth spurt. Increase in penile length but minimal change in width, sometimes called the pencil penis stage. Further scrotal enlargement, pubic hair darker, courser, covers great area, onset of growth spurt

A

Stage three

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125
Q

What tanner stage is consistent with having an areola and papilla elevated to form a second mound above level of rest of breast, adult type pubic hair with no spread to medial surface of thighs, menarche. Increase in penile length and width with development of glans, further darkening of scrotal skin, adult type pubic hair with no spread to medial surface of thighs.

A

Stage 4

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126
Q

What tanner stage is consistent with the recession of areola to mound of breast, extension of pubic hair to medial thigh. Full adult genitalia, adult type pubic hair with spread to medial surface of thighs, possibly abdomen

A

Stage five

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127
Q

What Tanner stage can gynecomastia be found

A

Tanner stage III

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128
Q

Symptoms of this condition include macroorchidism, large body habitus, history of learning differences.

A

Fragile X syndrome

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129
Q

What is the most common known cause of autism in either gender, occurring in all racial and ethnic groups.

A

Fragile X syndrome

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130
Q

Which condition only affects males and has a low testicular volume, hip and breast enlargement, and infertility.

A

Klinefelter syndrome

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131
Q

What syndrome is characterized by a short stature, usually evident by age 5, white, webbed neck, Brad, shield shaped chest, absent menses, infertility.

A

Turner syndrome

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132
Q

What medication is indicated for cystic acne that does not respond to other therapies such as oral antibiotics and topical retinoids

A

Accutane

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133
Q

Anabolic steroid use is consistent with which type of acne

A

Cystic acne

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134
Q

In the USA which of the following is the most common cause of adolescent death

A

Accidental injury

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135
Q

Do the majority of states require either a parental consent or notification for teenagers younger than 18 to have a pregnancy termination

A

Yes

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136
Q

If a child with a BMI of 40 presents with a lipid profile that reveals low HDL, elevated triglycerides, and an acceptable A1c what is the best treatment option

A

Weight loss

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137
Q

A full-time newborn is diagnosed with hyperbilirubinemia. When would his Billirubin be expected to peak

A

3 to 4 days

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138
Q

At what age should initial blood pressure screening take place

A

Three years

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139
Q

Which reflex would not be expected in a one month old

A

Parachute

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140
Q

Cafe au lait spots are associated with

A

Neurofibromatosis and Von Recklinghausens Disease

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141
Q

For patients with down syndrome what are they at risk for with high-risk sports

A

Contact sports such as football, soccer, trampoline, or gymnastics can be a risk of spinal cord injury. Especially after the age of six years. These patients are also at risk for early onset of Alzheimer’s disease

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142
Q

Microcephaly with shortened palebral fissures (narrow eyes) with epicanthal folds and a flat nasal bridge. There is a thin upper lip with no vertical groove above upper lip (smooth philtrum). Ears are underdeveloped. Can range from severe Disease with mental retardation to mild developmental defects that may not be obvious until adolescence (ADD).

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

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143
Q

Any neonates with acute conjunctivitis presenting within 30 days or less from birth should be tested for

A

Chlamydia, gonorrhea, herpes Symplex, and bacterial infection. Order GC culture (Thayer-Martin), heroes simplex culture, and chlamydial PCR with Gram stain of eye exudate. Hospitalize and treat with high dose IV or IM ceftriaxone. Preferred prophylaxis is with topical 0.5% erythromycin ointment (1cm ribbon per eye). Test and treat mother and sexual partner for sexually transmitted diseases.

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144
Q

Symptoms of this will show within 4 to 10 days after birth. Eyelids become edematous and red with Profuse watery discharge initially that later becomes purulent. When obtaining a sample, collect not only the exudate, but also conjunctival cells as well. Treat with systemic antibiotics such as azithromycin IM or oral erythromycin QID for 14 days. Treatment only 80% effective. Many need second course. Use only systemic antibiotics. Prophylaxis is with topical 0.5% erythromycin or tetracycline ointment 1m ribbon per eye. Reportable Disease. Test and treat mother and sexual partner for STDs.

A

Chlamydial Opthalmia Neonatorum (trachoma)

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145
Q

In infants with opthalmia neonatorum, what else needs to be ruled out

A

Chlamydial pneumonia. Obtain nasopharyngeal culture for chlamydia. Infant will have frequent cough with by bibasilar rails, tachypnea, hyperinflation, and diffused infiltrates on chest x-ray. Treated with erythromycin QID times two weeks. Daily follow up as this is a reported disease

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146
Q

What place is an infant at a higher risk for sudden infant death syndrome

A

Prematurity, low birth weight, maternal smoking and or drug use, and poverty. Cause is unknown. Theories range from central nervous system abnormalities, cardiac arrhythmias, suffocation from soft, thick bedding, and so on. To decrease risk, position infants 👶🏻 on their back or supine only. Avoid the side lying and prone position. Avoid overheating infant and use of thick quilts, soft beds, pillows, And so on.

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147
Q

Weight loss of up to 7% of birth weight should be regained by how many days

A

10 to 14 days

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148
Q

Small pustules that are whitish to yellow color that are 1 to 3 mm in size and surrounded by a red base. Erupts during the second to the third day of life. Located on the face, chest, back, and extremities. Last from 1 to 2 weeks and resolves spontaneously.

A

Erythema Toxicum Neonatorum

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149
Q

Tufts of hair overlying spinal column usually at lumbosacral area. Maybe a sign of spina bifida occulta. Order an ultrasound of the lesion to rule out a occult spina bifida.

A

Faun Tail Nevus

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150
Q

Flat, light brown to dark brown spots greater than 5 mm. If six or more spots larger than 5 mm in diameter are seen rule out Nuro fibromatosis or von Recklinghausen’s disease which is a neurological disorder marked by seizures, learning disorders. Referred to pediatric neurologist if the spots me the same criteria to rule out neurofibromatosis

A

Cafe au lait spots

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151
Q

Neonates with pink to red flat skin like lesions on the skin located on the upper and lower eyelids or on the V1 and V2 branches of the trigeminal nerve should be referred to a pediatric ophthalmologist to rule out congenital glaucoma. Blanches to pressure. Irregular in size and shape. Large lesion is located on half the facial area may be a sign of trigeminal nerve involvement and Sturg-Weber Syndrome which is a rare neurological disorder. The lesions and do not regress and grow with the child. These lesions can be treated with the PDL laser.

A

Port wine stain (Nevus flammeus)

152
Q

At what distance can a newborn focus their vision

A

8 to 10 inches

153
Q

What is amblyopia

A

Lazy eye

154
Q

What is esotropia

A

Misalignment of one or both eyes. Cross eyed.

155
Q

If there is a presence of a white reflects on funduscopic exam what must be ruled out

A

Retinal blastoma

156
Q

What is the screening test for cataracts and retinal blastoma

A

Red reflex

157
Q

What does it mean if there are opacities in the red reflex

A

Cataracts

158
Q

What does it mean if there are white spots in the red reflex

A

Leukokoria

159
Q

What is the screening test for strabismus

A

Hirschberg test or light reflex test or corneal light reflex. Abnormal if corneal light reflex is not clear or if it’s off-center.

160
Q

What are high-risk factors for hearing loss

A 
HEARS
H hyperbilirubinemia
E ear infections that are frequent
A apgar scores low at birth
R rubella, CMV, toxoplasmosis infections
S seizures
161
Q

When should high-risk children be screened for lead poisoning

A

1 to 2 years

162
Q

If a mother chooses to use formula what type of formula should she use

A

One that is fortified with iron

163
Q

What do you breast-fed infants need to be given to them within the first few days of life

A

Vitamin D drops

164
Q

Does breast-feeding reduce the risk of otitis media

A

Yes

165
Q

Why must cows milk be avoided for the first year of life

A

Because it causes G.I. bleeding. It is also a common cause of iron deficiency anemia in babies younger than 12 months.

166
Q

Failure for an infant to pass meconium within the first 24 hours at birth may be a sign of

A

Intestinal obstruction

167
Q

When can an infant start eating solid foods

A

4 to 6 months. Start with rice cereal fortified with iron before other types of cereal or food groups. Introduce one food at a time for 4 to 5 days.

168
Q

Defused edema of the scalp that crosses the midline. Caused by intrauterine and vaginal pressure from prolonged or difficult vaginal labor. The scalp becomes molded and cone shaped. Self-limited and resolves spontaneously.

A

Caput Succedaneum

169
Q

Trumatic subperiosteal hemorrhage. Rule out skull fracture and order Radiographs of the skull. Swelling does not cross the midline or suture lines.

A

Cephalohematoma

170
Q

When should Infants 👶🏻 regain their body weight that was lost after birth

A

The weight should be we gained by two weeks of age. Newborns double their weight by six months and triple their weight by 12 months

171
Q

How often is head circumference measured

A

At each wellness visit until the age of 36 months or three years

172
Q

In newborns is the chest less in size than the head circumference

A

Yes it is about 1 to 2 cm less in size

173
Q

When do the lower central incisors erupt

A

6 to 10 months of age

174
Q

When does an infant have their complete set of primary teeth which is 20 teeth

A

2 1/2 years of age

175
Q

When does the child have their first permanent tooth or deciduous teeth

A

Six years of age: central incisors and the first molars

176
Q

Urethral meatus located on the ventral aspect of the penis. Location may be at the glands or at the shaft. Some have two urethral opening’s, one opening is normal and the other opening is lower on the glass or shaft. Referral to pediatric urology.

A

Hydro spa Dias

177
Q

Urethral meatus is located on the dorsal aspect of the penis or upper side

A

Epispadias

178
Q

If a newborn female has a small amount of blood in the vagina is this normal

A

Caused by maternal hormones and will disappear within a few days

179
Q

What increases the risk of testicular cancer

A

Cryptoorchidism

Order inguinal and abdominal ultrasound

180
Q

Head circumference close by how much in the first 12 months

A

12 cm

181
Q

An abscence of an anal wink in a patient can indicate

A

Spina bifida

182
Q

When does the Moro reflex disappear

A

3 to 4 months

183
Q

If an older infant aged six months or older has a strong Moro reflex, what does that mean

A

Abnormal and indicates brain damage

184
Q

White papules found on the gumline that resembles errupting tooth

A

Epstein’s pearls

185
Q

If a patient has a symmetry of the thigh or gluteal folds what must be ruled out

A

Hip dysplasia or hip fracture

186
Q

Urethral opening under the glans/shaft

A

Hypospadias

187
Q

Urethral opening on top of glans/shaft

A

Episadias

188
Q

At what age is hepatitis A immunization universally recommended

A 
Age 1 (12-23 months)
The two doses should be administered at least six months apart. Delay vaccine in moderately or severely ill 😷
189
Q

When is the hepatitis B vaccine given

A

Three does series: zero, 1 to 2 months, six months after the first. Delay blood donation for 28 days as screening test could mistake vaccine for hepatitis B infection

190
Q

When is D tap given

A

You get a lot of them. Age less than 7 years old. Five Dose series starting at two months old. Minimum age for initial dose is six weeks.

191
Q

When is Tdap given

A

Age 11 to 12 years get T Dap booster. T Dap can be administered regardless of the last interval since the TD immunization. After T Dap, patients should receive TD booster every 10 years routine.

192
Q

What adults need TDap

A

Age 65 and over and pregnant women in the third trimester.

193
Q

When is Hib given

A

You get a lot of them. Starting at two months old. For unvaccinated children aged 15 months or older, administer only one dose.

194
Q

What vaccine got rid of epiglottitis

A

Hib

195
Q

When is HPV-Gardasil given

A

Three dose series: zero, 1 to 2, and six months. Avoid in pregnant women. OK if breast-feeding to receive vaccine.

196
Q

Can the MMR vaccine cause a rash

A

Yes

197
Q

When is the HPV 9 vaccine given

A

Minimum age is nine years old. Administer the first dose to females at age 11-12 years (HPV2, Ceravix)

198
Q

When is the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine given

A

PCV13: 4 Dose series starting at 2 months of age. Infants have tiny airways

199
Q

Can you give the IPV or polio vaccine in the immunocompromised

A

Yes

200
Q

What vaccine is contra indicated for patients that have allergies to neomycin, streptomycin, or polymyxin B

A

Polio IPV

201
Q

What are two examples of live attenuated immunizations

A

MMR and varicella. May cause rash or fever which is a favorable response. Do not give to a patient under the age of 1 year old

202
Q

If a patient is allergic to neomycin or gelatin what vaccines are contraindicated

A

MMR and Varicella

203
Q

When is the influenza vaccine given

A

Recommended annually age is greater than six months old. If a child is eight years old or younger and receiving the flu vaccine for the first time they need 2 doses separated by four weeks.

204
Q

A vaccine has to be given how many days prior to the scheduled time in order for it to be considered a valid dose

A

Four days

205
Q

When should the meningococcal conjugate vaccine be given

A

Late high school and early college are at risk so administer to all children age 11 to 12 years old. Or 13 to 18 years if not previously vaccinated, booster at age 16. If administered at age 16, no booster needed

206
Q

What are some adverse reactions to vaccines

A

Local redness, systematic fever, allergic

207
Q

What is the most common reaction among adolescents to HPV, MCV four, and TDap

A

Syncope

208
Q

What is the CDC is recommendation for length of time to monitor a child after receiving an immunization

A

15 minutes

209
Q

When is the rash from an MMR immunization most likely to occur

A

About seven days after immunization

210
Q

If a mother has Hepatitis B, what should be given to her baby at birth

A

Hepatitis B immunoglobulin and hepatitis B vaccine

211
Q

If Jaundice is found in a full-time infant after two weeks of age what should be done

A

Check Bilirubin level. Use noninvasive method first such as Billirubinometers. If suspect pathologic, order Serum fractionated BiliRubin level, Coombs test, CBC, reticulocyte count, and peripheral smear. Treatment is usually not needed. Keep baby well hydrated with breast milk or formula. Feed baby every 2 to 3 hours. First line treatment is phototherapy. Light used in the blue spectrum is the most effective wavelength. The skin converts BiliRubin into a non-toxic water soluble form so that it is excreted in the urine. All newborns 👶🏻 should be seen for follow up within the first 5 days of life to check for jaundice.

212
Q

A neurological disorder caused by high levels of unbound BiliRubin in circulation that damaged the infants central nervous system. Associated with severe mental retardation and seizures.

A

Kernicterus

213
Q

An infants mother reports persistent tearing and crusting in the morning on one or both eyes. When the lacrimal duct is palpated, reflux of mucoid discharge or tears maybe seen. Yellow to green colored purulent Eye discharge is abnormal and is due to secondary bacterial infection.

A

Congenital lacrimal duct obstruction (dacrostenosis)

214
Q

Look for redness, warmth, tenderness, and swelling on one of the lacrimal duct. Culture discharge and treat with systemic antibiotics for 7 to 10 days. Usually caused by strep or staph organisms.. Severe cases may spread and cause orbital cellulitis.

A

Acute dacrocystitis

215
Q

What does the Ortolani maneuver test for

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip. Hold each knee and place your middle finger over the greater trochanter. Rotate the hips in a frog leg position. During abduction resistance maybe felt at 30 to 40°. The test is positive if A click or clunk sound and or if examiner palpate the trochanter becoming displaced temporarily from the hip socket.

216
Q

What does the Barlow maneuver test for

A

Developmental dysplasia of the hip. Place your index finger and middle finger over the greater trochanter. Gently push both knees together at midline downwards. Test is positive if clunk sound or palpating trochanter being displaced by the index/middle finger. If either exam is positive, refer to a pediatric orthopedist. Order an ultrasound of the hips.

217
Q

If an infant makes a clicking noises while breast-feeding what does this mean

A

Poor latch. Remedy is to push more of the Areola inside the infants mouth. Most of the Areola should be inside the infants mouth.

218
Q

What are the core symptoms of ADHD

A

Hyperactivity, impulsivity, in attention

219
Q

Does hyperactivity and impulsivity always occur together

A

Yes. This is characterized by the inability to sit still and inhibit behavior. Examples are excessive talking, fidgetiness, restlessness, constantly on the go difficulty remaining seated, difficulty waiting turns, interrupts others. Observed by age 4 with Peak in symptoms over the next 3 to 4 years. Hyper active symptoms begin to decline after eight years or second grade. Not usually observable my adolescence.

220
Q

What is the DSM-V diagnostic criteria for ADHD

A

For children greater than or equal to 12 years old, greater than or equal to six symptoms of inattention, and six symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity. And children greater than or equal to 17 years old, greater than or equal to five symptoms of inattention, and greater than or equal to 5 symptoms of hyperactivity and impulsivity. Symptoms must present before the age of 12 years old. Symptoms last greater than six months. Be evident in different settings such as school and home. Need feedback from caregiver and teacher.

221
Q

What is the physical examination or evaluation for ADHD

A

Medical exam will include hyperthyroidism, pinworms, allergies, and medication reconciliation. Developmental, educational, and psychosocial.

222
Q

What is the rating scale for ADHD assessment

A

Child behavior checklist and Connors rating scales and Vanderbilt ADHD rating scales

223
Q

When do you refer a patient with ADHD

A

Coexisting psychological disorders such as oppositional defiant disorder and emotional problems, coexisting neurologic or medical disorders such as tics, autism spectrum disorder, and sleep disorder
Lack of response to stimulant therapy

224
Q

The most commonly prescribed and tested medications for ADD are drug schedule

A

II

Highly addictive and often abused. Requires urine drug screen as needed

225
Q

What medications are used for ADHD

A

Stimulants are first line. Consider methylphenidate in preschoolers.
Atomoxetine (strattera)
SNRI

226
Q

How was asthma treated in children

A

Lukotriene receptor agonist such as Singulair, and the drug is administered via nebulizer

227
Q

-lukast
Montelukast (Singulair)
Zafirlukast (Accolate) are examples of

A

Leukotriene Blockers

Recommend for ages 12 and up

228
Q

When should a leukotriene blocker be considered

A

For a child patient with mild asthma if the patient can’t or won’t use an inhaled steroid. Steroids are preferred for any form of persistent asthma. Steroids prevent remodeling.

229
Q

When can prevnar 23 be given to children at high-risk for an ammonia

A

Greater than two years of age

230
Q

What is the most sensitive sign of confirmed pneumonia in children and adults

A

Increased respirations

231
Q

What is the diagnostic study for a child with pneumonia

A

Chest x-ray: shows infiltrates, but may be a normal x-ray in early Pneumonia especially if dehydrated. CBC with differential, left shift if bacterial, usually white blood cell count is greater than 15,000 is bacterial. No need for follow-up chest X-ray if resolves as expected.

232
Q

What antibiotic choice is first line treatment for pediatric patients who have bacterial pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin 90 mg per kilogram per day. Treats DRSP with high dose amoxicillin. This dose is also for otitis media. We are killing strep

233
Q

For weight based doses Of pediatric antibiotics, at what weight is a child most often dosed as an adult, no longer by weight

A

65 pounds

234
Q

If the child patient has bacterial pneumonia what should be given

A

High dose amoxicillin 90-100 mg per kilogram per day, Augmentin, or third generation cephalosporin. If patient has a type one reaction to Penicillin, get a macrolide like clindamycin

235
Q 
Paroxysmal wheezing 
Increased RR (40-60/min)
Fever
Cough
Thick purulent nasal secretions

These are assessment findings for

A

Bronchiolitis

236
Q

Is croup viral or bacterial

A

Viral

237
Q

A 3 year-old child presents with mild croup symptoms. How might they be relieved

A

Single dose of oral dexamethasone 0.6 mg per kilogram’s. Long half-life last for 72 hours and can also be used for asthma exacerbations

238
Q

It’s three-year-old child presents with croup symptoms. What symptoms indicate a need for admission

A

Retractions, Strider, respiratory rate greater than or equal to 20, history of asthma.

239
Q

Multi system disease that affects the pulmonary, G.I., and sweat glands. Autosomal recessive genetic disorder that causes excess loss of sodium through sweat. It is a mutation on chromosome seven. Abnormal transport of sodium and chloride across epithelial membrane’s.

A

Cystic fibrosis

240
Q

How is cystic fibrosis most commonly diagnosed in the US

A

Newborn screening

241
Q

What symptoms might be present with a child with suspected cystic fibrosis

A

Recurrent pulmonary infections. Infections of the lower airways.

242
Q

Mucus thickens and there are frequent sinus and lower respiratory tract infections. Mucus can block ducts of the pancreas. Weight loss and greasy stools.

A

Cystic fibrosis

243
Q

What does it mean when all of the cells are low on the CBC

A

Pancytopenia

244
Q

Which cancer is due to the failure of the bone marrow. Related to white blood cells, red blood cells, and platelets. Pancytopenia is seen.

A

Leukemia

245
Q

What are you presenting signs of leukemia

A

Evening fevers, bleeding, platelet count less than 100,000, bone pain especially in the long bones of the leg, lymphadenopathy but not painful

246
Q

If a node is greater than how many mm is if enlarged

A

10

247
Q

If a lymph node is nontender, firm, rubbery and matted what must be considered

A

Malignancy

248
Q

What are common findings associated with leukemia

A

Bruising, bleeding, frequent nosebleeds, thrombocytopenia, bone pain in the long bones, recurrent infections, fever, low white blood cell count, swollen lymph nodes, fatigue, poor appetite, anemia, hepatosplenomegaly

249
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for leukemia

A

CBC with differential, thrombocytopenia, white blood cells, peripheral smear, bone marrow

250
Q

Most common neurologic disorder of infants and young children. Mostly age-dependent, but occurs before age 5. Occurs during fever, viral infection, immunization such as DTaP and MMR, and genetic susceptibility

A

Febrile seizures

251
Q

What characteristics must be present for a diagnosis of febrile seizures

A

It does not reoccur in 24 hours and it occurs in the setting of illness

252
Q

This occurs with a rapid rise and fall of body temperature. Often first clue that a child is ill and could happen on the first day of illness.

A

Febrile seizure

253
Q

What is the criteria for febrile seizures

A

Seizure with the temperature greater than 38°C.
Age < or equal to 6 years
Absence of CNS infection
Absence of an acute metabolic abnormality
No history of febrile seizures

254
Q

How do you treat febrile seizures

A

Conservative management as long as simple and associated with fever and no other indication that there is underlying pathology.
Treat underlying fever

255
Q

How do you manage fevers

A

Fever is a response. Ibuprofen or acetaminophen. Dose based on weight not age 10 mg per kilogram per dose. Ibuprofen not recommended less than six months of age. If the temperature remains elevated 3 to 4 hours after administration, switch to agent not used. Do not combine or alternate treatments. Increased risk for medication error, toxicity, and temperature reduction and not clinically significant.

256
Q

Why are patients with sickle cell anemia susceptible to infection

A

Asplenia

257
Q

Most common presentation is a painful abdominal mass that is fixed, firm, irregular, and frequently crosses the midline. The most common site is the adrenal medulla that sits on top of the kidneys. About half of patients present with metastatic disease. Maybe accompanied by weight loss, fever, Horner’s syndrome, Periorbital ecchymoses, bone pain, hypertension, others. Most are diagnosed in children between the ages of one and four. Elevated urinary catecholamines and anemia. Initial imaging test is the ultrasound. Refer to nephrologist.

A

Neuroblastoma

258
Q

Asymptomatic abdominal mass that extends from the flank toward the midline. The nontender and smooth mass rarely crosses the midline of the abdomen. Some patients have abdominal pain and hematuria. One fourth of patients have hypertension. Higher incidence in black, female children 👶🏻 While performing the abdominal exam, palpate gently to avoid rupturing the renal capsule as it causes bleeding and seating of abdomen with cancer cells. Initial imaging test is an abdominal ultrasound.

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

259
Q

Acute and rapid onset of high fever, chills, and toxicity. Child complains of severe sore throat and drooling saliva. Won’t eat or drink, Muffled hot potato voice, and anxious. Characteristics sitting posture with hyperextended neck with open mouth breathing. Strider, tachycardia, and tachypnia. Usually occurs between ages 2-6. Now rare due to Hib vaccine. Prophylaxis with Rifampin for four days and for close contacts. Reportable disease. Medical emergency. Call 911

A

Epiglottitis

260
Q

More common in infants and children. Infected bone or joint is red, swollen, warm, and tender to touch. Patient is febrile and irritable. If patient walks with a limp, may have infection on the hip, knee, or leg. If infection involves the upper extremities, well favor infected limb. Growth plate infection results in growth stunting of the affected limb. Referral for hospitalization and high-dose antibiotics.

A

Osteomyelitis

261
Q

Young child complains of abrupt onset of deep Eye pain that is aggravated by Eye movements and is accompanied by a high fever and chills. Affected Eye will appear to be bulging. Extra ocular Eye movements exam will be abnormal due to ophthalmoplegia form infection of the ocular fat pads and muscles. More common in younger children. Ethmoid sinus -itis is more likely to cause this condition with frontal and maxillary sinus -itis. Can be life-threatening. A serious complication of rhinosinusitis, Acute or otitis media, or dental infections. Refer to ED. CT scan or MRI is done in the ED.

A

Orbital cellulitis

262
Q

More common than orbital cellulitis. An infection of the anterior portion of the eyelid that does not involve the orbit/globe or the eyes 👀 Rarely causes serious complications compared with orbital cellulitis. Younger children are most likely affected. Young child complains of the new onset of red swollen eyelids and Eye pain. Eye movements do not cause pain and extraocular movements exam is normal. No visual impairment. Maybe hard to distinguish from orbital cellulitis. Refer to the ED.

A

Preseptal cellulitis

263
Q

How do you know that a child is ready for toilet training

A

Child is walking, indicates when diaper is dirty, child can pull down his own pants, can stay dry for up to two hours at a time, interested about the toilet or potty seats. Most children are ready for potty training from 18 to 24 months. Some children may not be ready until three years of age. By age five most achieve both daytime and nighttime control. Daytime control is achieved first before night time control. Some infants are trained in as early as 3 to 6 months, but each child is different.

264
Q

When do signs of autism spectrum disorder appear

A

18 months. Usually autism becomes more apparent in early childhood from ages 2 to 6 years. Five behaviors to look for: patient does not point, wave, or grasp by 12 months. No babbling or cooing by 12 months. Does not say single words by 16 months. Does not say two word phrases on his own by 24 months. Any loss of language or social skills by 24 months. Does not gesture by waving, grasping, or pointing at 24 months.

265
Q

What are some safety indications for toddlers

A

Use rare burners. Turn pot handles away from Reach. Child should be supervised at all times. Hold child’s hand when crossing the street or when shopping. Keep tools and sharp objects out of reach. Inspect toys for loose parts or breakage. Water safety education. Fences around pools. Never leave a child alone in the pool.

266
Q

Does Wilms tumor cross the midline

A

Yes. Congenital tumor of the kidneys. More common in African-American girls.

267
Q

What disease presents with sitting posture with hyper extended neck with open mouth breathing

A

Epiglottitis

268
Q

Is pyloric stenosis most common in males or females

A

First born males. Symptoms begin 3 to 5 weeks of age and worsen.

269
Q

What is the classic presentation of pyloric stenosis

A

3 to 6 week old male with projectile, non-bilious vomiting. Olive like mass better palpated immediately after vomiting.

270
Q

A four week old has suspected pyloric stenosis. What imaging study is most commonly used to diagnose this

A

Ultrasound

271
Q

What should be included in the differential diagnosis of pyloric stenosis

A

Gerd, milk protein intolerance, intestinal obstruction

272
Q

How do you manage pyloric stenosis

A

Referral for surgical correction (laparoscopic pyloromyotomy). Allows normal passage from stomach into duodenum

273
Q

Frequent regurgitation in the abscence of anything pathological.
Occurs 30+ times daily in healthy infant

A

GER

274
Q

What are red flags to look out for with GER in infants

A

Choking with eating, coughing with eating, forceful vomiting, G.I. bleeding, poor weight gain, refusal to feed, constipation or diarrhea, abdominal tenderness, fever. Any complications secondary to reflux such as esophagitis and failure to thrive

275
Q

Before giving acid suppressants for Gerd, what must be done

A

Assess feeding, sleep habits, maternal child interaction. Assess exposure to cows milk and soy. Thickened formula, tobacco, smoke avoidance are needed. Trial of acid suppresants for two weeks, if improvement consider used for 2 to 3 months.

276
Q

What symptom might indicate GERD instead of GER in an infant

A

Irritability during reflux episode with cough and irritable esophagus

277
Q

How do you manage GER

A

Usually no interventions. Continue to breast-feed, place supine to sleep. Small frequent thickened feedings (with rice cereal) Consider non-cows milk protein formula for 1 to 2 week trial. Avoid soy-based formula. 1 to 2 week trial of hypoallergenic formula.

278
Q

Does GER resolve

A

Usually resolves by one year of age.

279
Q

Intestinal obstruction. Common pediatric abdominal emergency. 80 to 90% in less than two years of age. Usually idiopathic but has been associated with the rotavirus vaccine.

A

Interssusception

280
Q

Sudden onset of intermittent, crampy, progressive abdominal pain. Normal behavior in between episodes. Classic: child 👶🏻 3 to 11 months that cries and pulls legs up to the chest. Diagnosis by KUB and abdominal ultrasound. Surgical emergency. Invagination of bowel. Classic triad: intermittent colicky abdominal pain, vomiting, bloody mucousy stools. Currant jelly stools.

A

Interssusception

281
Q

How is interssusception managed

A

Non-operative reduction by enema under fluoroscopy: possible treatment in a stable child. Surgical correction if episodes long duration or suspected perforation

282
Q

Involuntary soiling of stool in a child 4!years or older. Usually boys or males. Underlining problem is constipation.

A

Encopresis

283
Q

As stool accumulates in the rectum, enlargement can result in loss of sensation. Loss of urge to defecate, then internal anal sphincter relaxes and stool leaks out

A

Encopresis

284
Q

how do you manage encopresis

A

Laxatives for initial cleansing such as MiraLAX then daily until normal stools. Behavior changes: sit for five minutes, 2 to 3 times daily after meals to establish normal bowel movements. Dietary changes: fiber, fluids. Reward system. Goal is one soft stool daily. Tapering laxative gradually after daily bowel movements several months of normal stools.

285
Q

What is the preferred means of oral hydration for a child who has diarrhea

A

Commercially prepared electrolyte solution such as Pedialyte

Goal is to correct the fluid deficit and prevent electrolyte imbalance. Oral rehydration from mild to moderate dehydration. Age appropriate diet as soon as rehydration is complete.

286
Q

When do you refer a patient who is testicles have not descended

A

Six months

287
Q

What kind of hydrocele is fluid from the peritoneal area

A

Communicating hydrocele

288
Q

What kind of hydrocele does the fluid have no connection to the peritoneum

A

Non communicating hydrocele

289
Q

A nine month old has hydrocele. What advice should be given to the caregiver

A

This should resolve by 12 months of age. Then referred to urology.

290
Q

A one-year-old has persistent hydrocele. What might be an underlying cause

A

Hernia

291
Q

Why are you in urinary tract infections aggressively treated in infants

A

Treatment is needed within 72 hours in order to prevent renal scarring. Collect specimens and treat empirically. Consider third-generation cephalosporin such as Cefixime, Ceftdinir, ceftibuten if no GU abnormalities. Gram negative bacteria. Duration 3 to 5 days if afebrile and 10 days if febrile.

292
Q

What is the imaging study of choice for pediatric UTI

A

Renal and bladder ultrasound for all infants 2 to 24 months for first febrile UTI.

293
Q

What disease might manifest itself with a strawberry tongue.

A

Kawasaki disease and strep throat. Prominent papilla on tongue

294
Q

Acute generalized systemic vascular -itis of the medium sized vessels: coronary artery‘s; self-limited. Inflammatory reaction to an unknown etiology. Fever for five days +4 of five criteria or coronary vessel involvement.
Bilateral conjunctival injection without exudate
polymorphous, macular rash Urticarial or pruitic Inflammatory changes of lips and oral cavity
cervical lymphadenopathy (unilateral, anterior cervical)
changes in extremities: edema or desquamation of hands and feet.
CBC, ESR, or CRP, ALT/AST, UA, throat culture for strep
Echo (coronary aneurysm)
Refer for IV immune globulin and ASA
ASA daily for 2 months

A

Kawasaki disease

295
Q

Symptoms that include swollen hands and feet with fever, elevated ESR, and elevated PLT are consistent with what disease

A

Kawasaki disease

296
Q

What are some innocent murmur clues in children

A

Grade less than or equal to two, softer intensity when sitting compared to supine, not holosystolic, minimal radiation of murmur, musical or vibratory quality

297
Q

If a patient presents with a greater than or equal to three grade murmur what must be done

A

Palpate for thrill

298
Q

If a child presents with knee pain what must be ruled out

A

Osgood Schlatter Disease

299
Q

At what age does Osgood Schlatter dose occur most often

A

15-year-old or adolescent

300
Q

Osteochondritis of the tibial tubercle
common cause of adolescent knee pain between 6 to 18 months
more common in athletes; especially if recently had growth spurt.

A

Osgood Schlatter Disease

301
Q

What is the management for Osgood Schlatter Disease

A

Continuation of activity as pain tolerance, ice, analgesics for 3 to 4 days, protective pad over tubercle or Knee pad

302
Q

What lab studies are indicated for a patient that presents with hip pain

A

CBC, CRP, sed rate
Blood culture
AP and frog leg views X-ray

303
Q

Osteonecrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis due to interrupted vascular supply.
Ages 3-12
Males > females
Pain to hip or referral to medial aspect of knee (usually present for 2-3 weeks before child complains)
Limp

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes Disease

304
Q

What is the test for Legg-Calves-Perthes Disease

A

Positive Trendelenburg sign: asking Childs to stand on affected side causes a pelvic tilt with the unaffected side lower. This test is positive in Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis, Legg-Calves-Perthes, and developmental dysphasia

305
Q

What type of x-rays are indicated for Legg-Calves-Perthes Disease

A

AP, Frogleg. Be careful for gonadal radiation. Limit x-rays to suspected tumors, trauma, Legg-Calves-Perthes, Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

306
Q

History of several weeks or months of hip/knee pain with an intermittent limp. Common in adolescents .
Diagnosis often missed because 50% have hip pain and 25% have knee pain.
Positive Trendelenburg test.

A

Slipped Capital Femoral Epiphysis

Refer for X-ray or OR

307
Q

Most common cause of hip pain. Benign condition causing acute limp and hip pain in children. Evidence of small effusion on ultrasound. Absence of systemic symptoms. History of upper respiratory infection 7 to 14 days prior is common. Usually results in 7 to 14 days. No x-rays. Treat symptomatically. Negative trendelenburg test.

A

Transient Synovitis of the hip

308
Q

What virus causes roseola

A

Human herpesvirus six

309
Q

What virus causes fifth disease

A

Parvovirus B 19

310
Q

What virus causes Rubella

A

Rubella virus

311
Q

What virus causes rubeola or measles

A

Rubeola virus

312
Q

What virus causes the chickenpox

A

Herpes virus

313
Q

What virus causes herpangina

A

Coxsackie a virus

314
Q

What virus causes hand foot mouth

A

Coxsackie virus a 16

315
Q

Maculopapular brick red rash, starts on head and neck, spreads to trunk and extremities

A

Measles or Rubeola

316
Q

Slapped cheek rash, lacy macular rash

A

Fifth disease or erythema and infectiosum

317
Q

Maculopapular rash, looks like measles rash, remarkable lymphadenopathy, macules on soft palate

A

Rubella

318
Q

High fever for 2 to 4 days then abrupt cessation of fever with appearance of maculopapular rash but not on the face

A

Roseola or exanthem subitum

319
Q

Vesicular lesions On erythematous base appearing in crops

A

Chickenpox

320
Q

Exotoxin rash secondary to Group A strep infection. Sandpaper like rash that ultimately desquamates.

A

Scarlet fever

321
Q

When can a child go back to school after chickenpox

A

24 hours after fever free and after all that vesicles have crusted over

322
Q

What symptoms most typically characterize the lips/oral cavity of a patient who has herpangina

A

Painful vesicles on the soft palate and mouth. Increased risk for dehydration.

323
Q

Do viral exanthem rashes Blanche

A

Yes

324
Q

Does petechiae and Pupura Blanche

A

No

325
Q

A three-year old is diagnosed with fifths disease. Her mother is pregnant in the first trimester and has had significant exposure to the sick child. If her mother is not immune, what is the risk to the fetus

A

Intrauterine fetal death

326
Q

What is the usual age at which roseola is diagnosed

A

7-13 months

327
Q

What age does hand 🤚 foot mouth disease manifest

A

3-5 years old. Affects children in spring and early summer.

328
Q

What disease presents with fever, oral vesicles on oral mucous membranes, cutaneous vesicles that ulcerate and crust and resolves in 2 to 3 days. Lesions in hands and feet are very blister like

A

Hand, foot, mouth disease

329
Q

Measles is characterized by what clinical findings

A

Cough, runny nose, conjunctivitis and Koplick’s spots

330
Q

Rubeola is

A

Measles

331
Q

Fever, malaise, and the three C’s such as conjunctivitis, coryza (runny nose, congestion) and cough
Develop Kolpick’s spots: 1-3 mm whitish, bluish, or gray elevations on the buccal mucosa, hard and soft palate.

A

Measles or Rubeola

332
Q

What is the best predictor of acute otits media

A

Cloudy, bulging TM with impaired mobility

333
Q

What vaccine has decrease the incidence of a cute otitis media

A

Pneumococcal vaccine

334
Q

How do you treat acute a tightest media in a child less than six months of age

A

Antibiotics

335
Q

How do you treat otitis media that is severe in a child that is six months to two years of age

A

Antibiotics if severe and observe if not severe

336
Q

How do you treat otitis media and a child that is greater than two years old

A

Antibiotics of severe if not observation

337
Q

A two-year-old is diagnosed with otitis media and an antibiotic is prescribed. When should her fever resolve after the medication

A

48 to 72 hours

338
Q

History of febrile illness such as chickenpox or influenza and aspirin or salicylate intake such as Pepto-Bismol and a child. Abrupt onset with quick progression. DEF can occur within a few hours to a few days.

A

Reye’s syndrome

339
Q

Children are at risk for reye’s syndrome after which vaccine

A

Varicella. Avoid using aspirin before, during, and after immunization.

340
Q

A condition in which downs syndrome patients have an increased distance between the C1 and C2 joints. Medical Clearance is necessary for sports participation. Patient needs cervical x-rays with lateral view before playing sports

A

Down’s syndrome atlantoaxial instability

341
Q

Large head circumference. Mental retardation. Delayed physical developmental milestones such as crawling and walking. autism common. Hyperactive behavior. Tends to avoid eye contact. Patient has a long face with prominent forehead, jaw, and large ears. Large body with flatfeet.

A

Fragile X syndrome

342
Q

What is the treatment plan for a patient with fragile X syndrome

A

Refer patient for genetic testing. Refer a patient to psychiatrist or psychologist for psychosocial, behavior, and mental evaluation.

343
Q

When is the patient with hand foot mouth disease most contagious

A

During the first week of illness

344
Q

Smooth wax like round papules 5 mm size. Central umbilication with white plug.

A

Molluscum contagiosum

345
Q

What immunizations are needed at age 11 to 12 years old

A

Tdap, HPV, MCV four

346
Q

What stage what an 11-year-old be at by Piaget standards

A

Early abstract thinking

347
Q

What is molluscum caused by

A

Pox virus

348
Q

What is the youngest age group for Gardasil

A

Nine years old

349
Q

Turner’s syndrome presents exclusively in

A

Female infants

350
Q

A hoarse cry in a newborn may indicate

A

Hypothyroidism

351
Q

A high-pitched cry in an infant is associated with

A

Cri du chat

352
Q

A four-year-old presents to the clinic with Circumoral pallor and an intense red eruptions on both cheeks which appeared last night. The child has low-grade fever but no other symptoms. What is most likely the diagnosis

A

Fifth disease

353
Q

What is least likely to cause ophthalmia Neonatorum

A

Haemophilus influenza

354
Q

Do children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis achieve remission

A

Most children with juvenile rheumatoid arthritis achieve complete remission by adulthood, but it’s affects might cause lifelong limitations.

355
Q

An important measure to prevent complications in children with sickle cell anemia is

A

Staying well hydrated

356
Q

The mother of a two week old infant with hypospadia’s requests circumcision for her infant. The nurse practitioners best response to this mother should be to

A

Explain why the infant with hypospadias should not be circumcised

357
Q

How should a newborn infant with fracture of the clavicle be treated

A

Instructions must be given to the patient to handle the Neo Nate gently. This will be for 3 to 5 weeks.

358
Q

Infants with celiac disease are at high risk for multiple complications. The most urgent complication of this disease is

A

Intussusception or volvulus

359
Q

A 12 month old has conjunctivitis in his right eye with mucopurulent discharge. The mother asks if the child can forgo the antibiotic eyedrops because he doesn’t like to put eyedrops in his eyes. The nurse practitioner replies that

A

If untreated, conjunctivitis may permanently damage the cornea

360
Q

Does kyphosis in an adolescent indicate scoliosis

A

No

361
Q

If there is a concern about labial adhesions and urinary obstruction in a female infant what is the most appropriate intervention

A

Local application of conjugate estrogen cream

362
Q

Which of the following is the current recommendation for cholesterol screening in children using fasting lipid profile by the AAP

A

Children should be screened between nine and 11 years and between 18 and 21 years

363
Q

A two week old African-American male infant has ecchymotic like marks over his lower back and upper body buttocks. The most appropriate intervention is to

A

Reassure the infant mother that this is a normal finding. Mongolian spots

364
Q

A four-year-old female complains of leg pain at night which resolved by morning. This has lasted for the past four months. The nurse practitioner should tell the patient’s mother that

A

These are growing pains that last from 1 to 2 years. This is a common complaint in this age group.

365
Q

A three day old infant is brought into the clinic with a history of failure to pass meconium, poor feeding, vomiting, and excessive flatulence. The infant was diagnosed in the nursery with trisomy 21. Which of the following would be included in the differential diagnosis

A

Hirschsprung’s disease

366
Q

What is the most common complication and cause of most pertussis related deaths

A

Secondary bacterial pneumonia

367
Q

Which age group is at the greatest risk of developing lead poisoning

A

6 to 36 months

368
Q

The posterior fontanelle should be completely closed by

A

Three months

369
Q

At what age should an infant be expected to triple his birthweight

A

12 months

370
Q

A two-year-old has several discreet, shiny, flesh colored papules with the domed shaped tops and firm waxy centers. The area surrounding them is erythematous and the child scratches them frequently. The mother asks what should be done for my child?

A

This is molluscum contagiosum and it may regress spontaneously in 6 to 9 months, but cryosurgery will eliminate them

371
Q

Is coarctation of the aorta assessed during systole or diastole

A

Systole

372
Q

The mother of a six month old infant asks about the use of an infant walker. What is the most appropriate response

A

Discourage the use of walkers and encourage parental holding and floor play

373
Q

Hand foot and mouth disease can be distinguished from herpangina by the presence of

A

Exanthem on the hands and the feet

374
Q

You are examining a five-year-old child who has been diagnosed with Kawasaki disease. Which of the following skin conditions would be most indicative of this disease?

A

Bright red and swollen skin palms and soles

375
Q

When examining a six week old female you understand that which of the following would be a developmental warning sign for a six week old infant

A

Lack of visual fixation (focusing)

NP Prep (20 decks)

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