Growth And Development Flashcards

1
Q

Fetal nutrition is best determined by assessing

A

Subcutaneous fat on the anterior thighs and gluteal region

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2
Q

White populous on nose and cheeks

A

Millia

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3
Q

Congenital with infinite borders buttocks and base of spine, predominantly an African American and Asian infants

A

Mongolian spots

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4
Q

“Stork bite”, pink red capillary on face or neck

A

Nevis Symplex

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5
Q

Port wine stain anywhere on malformation body

A

Nevus flammeus

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6
Q

Fontanelles are normally described as

A

Soft and flat

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7
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close

A

9 to 18 months

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8
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close

A

2 to 3 months

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9
Q

What is hypertelorism

A

Eyes set wide apart

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10
Q

If the baby has low-set ears what kind of indicate

A

Renal issues

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11
Q

A web snack may be associated with

A

Turner syndrome

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12
Q

What is the respiratory rate for a newborn

A

40 to 60 breaths per minute

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13
Q

What heart condition makes you check femoral pulses

A

Coartation of the aorta

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14
Q

How long should a mother breast-feed their infants

A

Up to six months of age

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15
Q

How long should you delay complementary foods or solid foods

A

4 to 6 months of age

May reduce the risk of a topic dermatitis and a topic sensitization

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16
Q

What type of food should be introduced first to an infant

A

Rice cereal

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17
Q

When can food just be given to an infant

A

Six months of age but no more than 4 to 6 ounces per day

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18
Q

At what age can cows milk be given to an infant

A

One year old

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19
Q

When can finger foods be introduced to an infant

A

8 to 10 months of age

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20
Q

When should fluoride supplementation start for an infant

A

Six months of age

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21
Q

What vitamin does breast-fed babies need

A

Vitamin D

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22
Q

What type of vitamin does exclusively breast-fed babies of strict vegetarian or vegan mothers need

A

Vitamin B 12

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23
Q

What test is the corneal light reflex called

A

Hirschberg test

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24
Q

And one week old infant does not have a red reflex in his right eye. What might this indicate?

A

Congenital cataracts

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25
Q

At what age should Eye alignment occur?

A

Two to four months of age

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26
Q

When two eyes don’t focus on the same object, the brain ignores information from one of the eyes. If this is not corrected it can result in loss of vision called

A

Amblyopia

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27
Q

The corneal light reflex and cover/uncover tests are used to assess

A

Stabiscus

Start at 6 months to 3 years

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28
Q

At what age should vision screening start with Snellen chart

A

3 to 4 years old

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29
Q

At what age does a child have 2020 vision

A

Six years old

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30
Q

When is the best time to do a vision screening

A

Periodically after a growth spurt is the best time to check Eye vision

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31
Q

What is the Moro reflex

A

Startle reflex

Checks hearing from newborn to three months of age

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32
Q

At what age does a baby stop and listen to a new sound, stops crying with hearing parents voice

A

3 to 6 months

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33
Q

At what age does a baby respond to their own name

A

6 to 12 months

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34
Q

At what age does a baby follow directions without cues

A

12 to 18 months

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35
Q

50% of speech intelligible to strangers

A

18 to 24 months

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36
Q

Pediatric hearing loss is associated with which abnormality

A

Speech delay

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37
Q

What is the purpose of pneumatic Otoscopy

A

To assess TM mobility

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38
Q

When do central incisors erupted

A

6 to 10 months

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39
Q

The best way to examine the oral cavity of a small child is

A

To lie a child on his back on an exam table

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40
Q

What is the purpose of measuring blood pressure’s in all four extremities in the newborn.

A

To assess for coarctation of the aorta

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41
Q

Higher blood pressure in the upper extremities and lower blood pressure in the lower extremities is indicative of

A

Coarctation of the aorta

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42
Q

When should routine blood pressure screening begin for children

A

Three years of age

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43
Q

What is the order of an abdominal exam

A

Inspect, auscultation, percuds, light palpation then heavy palpation

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44
Q

What is it called when Bilrubin levels increase and there is no treatment for Bilirubin so the Bilirubin goes to the brain and then leads to neurological delays and damage

A

Kernicterus

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45
Q

When does the Bilirubin level peak in a full-term neonate

A

On the third or fourth day

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46
Q

What to examinations are used to assess dysplasia of the hip in an infant

A

Barlow’s and Ortolani’s maneuvers

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47
Q

Which examination for dysplasia of the hip includes external rotation of the hip and you hear a click or a clunk

A

Ortolani’s maneuver

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48
Q

What examination for dysplasia of the hip in an infant includes the butt and flexing the hip interiorly

A

Barlow’s maneuver

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49
Q

Where should the examiner second To fifth fingers be placed to perform Ortolani’s test

A

On the greater trochanter

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50
Q

Which test for hip dysplasia produces unequal knee height

A

Positive Galeazzi test

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51
Q

What is talipes equinovarus

A

Club foot

Urgent ortho referal

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52
Q

What is the test for scoliosis

A

Adams forward bend test

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53
Q

What type of x-ray do you order for scoliosis

A

Full length PA and lateral standing views C7 to the sacrum and iliac crest

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54
Q

If you find CVA tenderness upon examination of an infant it is indicative of

A

Pylonephritis

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55
Q

The correct order of maturation of Nails in Tanner staging is

A

Pubic, axillary, and then facial hair

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56
Q

People growth occurs in what tanner stages in girls

A

Stages two through three

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57
Q

Pubertal growth occurs in which tanner stages in boys

A

Stages three through four

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58
Q

The earliest secondary sexual characteristics characteristic in girls is

A

The onset of breast development, thelarche

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59
Q

The earliest stage of male maturation is

A

Testicular volume

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60
Q

Female visits the NP because she has a symmetry of her breasts. She is in tanner stage III. The NP knows that this

A

Will probably resolve by tanner stage five

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61
Q

What causes gynecomastia

A

Obesity, pot, Tagamet, aldactone

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62
Q

What finding is abnormal in a two month old child

A

A closed anterior fontanelle

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63
Q

In most children the primary teeth have completely erupted by

A

24 months or two years old

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64
Q

Normal vision in a child is expected by

A

Six years of age or first grade

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65
Q

At what age can infant Focus on her face, grasp a rattle if placed in hand, smiles, Coos, able to lift head 45°

A

Two months

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66
Q

At what age can an infant hold and control their head while held up right, no head lag when pulled up right, raises body on hands, rolls prone to supine, follows like 180°

A

Four months

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67
Q

At what age can an infant place an object in the opposite hand and in mouth, sit with support maybe unassisted, rolls supine to prone, bears weight, recognize his parents, says dada or baba, babbles, smiles squeals, laughs, imitate sounds

A

Six months

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68
Q

At what age can an infant pull to stand, bangs, shakes, drops, and throws objects, able to feed self with finger foods, response to own name and understands a few words, stranger anxiety, Crawls, creeps, and scoots

A

Nine months

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69
Q

At what age does an infant pull to stand, may take a few steps, uses pincer grasp and able to point, says 2 to 4 words, looks for dropped or hidden objects, response to own name and understands a few words, feed self and drinks from Cup, waves and says bye-bye, dada, mama, imitates vocalizations

A

12 months

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70
Q

At what age does an infant walk well and is able to stoop, Can point To a body part, says 3 to 6 words, stacks two blocks, follow simple commands, points, grunts, pull off to show what he wants, listens to a story

A

15 months

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71
Q

At what age does an infant walk backwards, can throw a ball, says 15 to 20 words, imitate words, uses two word phrases, points to multiple body parts

A

18 months

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72
Q

At what age does an infant walk up and down stairs one step at a time, can kick a ball, says at least 20 words, imitates adults, follow two-step commands, Stacks five blocks

A

Two years

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73
Q

At what age can a child jump, stand on 1 foot, able to ride a tricycle, says name, age, and gender, knows gender of others, able to copy a circle, Cross, able to recognize colors

A

Three years

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74
Q

At what age can a child sing a song, hop on 1 foot, able to throw a ball overhand, able to draw a person with three parts, able to cut and paste, able to build a tower with 10 blocks, counts to five, able to copy a square, able to dress self with supervision

A

Four years

75
Q

At what age can a child draw a person with body, head, arms, legs, able to recognize most letters and can print some, plays make believe, learns address and phone number, can define at least one word

A

Five years

76
Q

At what age do you childproof a home, introduce solid foods, cereal first, then puréed vegetables, fruits, have syrup of ipecac available

A

Four months

77
Q

At what age do you introduce a cop to an infant and check on fluoride supplements

A

Six months

78
Q

At what age do you introduce mashed foods and finger foods, start with start with table foods, discuss weaning from bottle, and brush teeth

A

Nine months

79
Q

At what age do you start implementing whole milk and allowing the child to feed them self

80
Q

What age do you allow the toddler to feed them self with a spoon and hands, and assess the child’s readiness for toilet training

81
Q

At what age do you start using time out as an acceptable behavior and how long should timeout be

A

Three years of age, and one minute for each year of age

82
Q

What are you looking for at the one-week visit of a newborn

A
Weight gain
illumination patterns
sleep wake cycle 
continuation of breast-feeding 
parent infant interaction
review hearing test and metabolic screening’s
83
Q

Fetal nutrition is best determined by assessing

A

Subcutaneous fat on the anterior thighs and gluteal region

84
Q

Stork bite. Pink red capillary on face or neck

A

Nevus simplex

85
Q

Port wine stain anywhere on malformation body

A

Nevus flammeus

86
Q

Fontanelles are normally described as

A

Soft and flat

87
Q

When does the anterior fontanelle close

A

9 to 18 months

88
Q

When does the posterior fontanelle close

A

2-3 months

89
Q

What is hypertelorism

A

Eyes set wide apart

90
Q

What does cornea enlargement suggest

91
Q

What does it mean if a baby has low set ears

A

It can indicate read Renal agenesis

92
Q

What is the method of hearing screening used for universal newborn screening

A

Evoked otoacoustic emission testing

93
Q

What is torticollis

A

Shortening of the sterno mastoid muscle which can affect vision. Physical therapy needed for neck range of motion.

94
Q

A webbed neck may be associated with

A

Turner syndrome

95
Q

How many breaths per minute should A newborn take

96
Q

When should finger foods be introduced

A

8 to 10 months

97
Q

When should fluoride supplementation start

A

Six months. Not in bottled water. If not, give in vitamins

98
Q

What vitamin do exclusively breast-feeding infants need

99
Q

What is the Hirschberg test

A

Corneal light reflex

100
Q

When is the cover/uncover test performed

A

Greater than three years old

101
Q

At what age should Eye alignment occur

A

2 to 4 months of age

102
Q

What is amblyopia

A

Loss of vision

103
Q

When does vision screening start with the Snellen chart

A

3 to 4 years old

104
Q

When is 20/20 vision achieved

A

Six years old or first grade

105
Q

When is the best time to check Eye vision

A

Periodically after a growth spurt

106
Q

When do you check the Moro reflex

A

Newborn to three months

107
Q

Pediatric hearing loss is associated with what abnormality

A

Speech delay

108
Q

What is the purpose of pneumatic otoscopy

A

To assess the TM mobility

109
Q

By what age is a child speech completely intelligible to a stranger

A

Four years

110
Q

When do permanent teeth come in

A

First at 6 to 8 years old, and last teeth at about 20 years.

111
Q

At what age should a child start seeing a dentist

A

One year of age

112
Q

At what age does oral health risk assessment start

A

Six months, 18 months, 24 months, 30 months

113
Q

When do the central incisors erupt

A

6 to 10 months

114
Q

What is the best way to examine the oral cavity of a small child

A

Lie a child on their back on the exam table

115
Q

What is the normal heart rate at birth

A

122 160 bpm with marked sinus arrhythmia

116
Q

What is the heart rate for three year old

A

80 to 120 bpm

117
Q

What is the heart rate for a six-year-old

A

70-110 bpm

118
Q

When should routine blood pressure screening begin for children

A

Three years old

119
Q

When does the does the dyslipidemia risk assessment start

A

2, 4,6,8,10 years then annually

120
Q

When does dyslipidemia screening via fasting lipid profile done

A

18 to 21 years

121
Q

When do you start measuring BMI

A

Greater than or equal to two years old

122
Q

What is the order of abdominal exam

A

Inspect, auscultate, percuss, light palpation

123
Q

What is Bhutani Nomogram used for

A

Bilirubin level tracker

124
Q

Interior buttock hip flex is what test

A

Barlow’s maneuver

125
Q

External rotation of the hip is what test

A

Ortalani’s maneuver

126
Q

What is metatarsus adductus

127
Q

What is a positive Galeazzi test

A

Unequal knee height

128
Q

A two-month-old patient has suspected hip dysplasia. What might be present on assessment

A

Positive Galeazzi test

129
Q

What is the most common type of club foot

A

Talipes equinovarus

Urgent ortho referral

130
Q

What x-rays are needed for scoliosis

A

Full length PA and lateral standing views C7 to the sacrum and iliac crest

131
Q

What method is used to measure the angle of curvature in a scoliosis patient by the radiologist

A

Cobb method

132
Q

When do you go for scoliosis patient

A

Cobb angle 20-29 degrees in premenarchal girl or boy 12-14 years
Consider referral for any Cobb angle Greater than or equal to 20°.
Cobb angle Greater than 30° in any age

133
Q

What in office test is done for scoliosis

A

Adams forward bend test

134
Q

When should a scoliosis patient be of most concern

A

A 13 year-old Female with a 20° curve. This is because the growth spurt just started

135
Q

CVA tenderness means

A

Pyelonephritis

136
Q

What tanner staging for female begins from four years old to eight years old

A

Stage one. Prepubertal. Papilla elevated above chest wall

137
Q

Breast buds appear in what tanner stage

138
Q

At what tanner stage does pubertal growth occur in girls

139
Q

In what town are stage does pubertal growth occur in the boys

140
Q

Body hair forms in males in which pattern

A

Bottom to top

141
Q

The earliest secondary sexual characteristic in girls is

A

The onset of breast development (thelarche)

142
Q

The earliest stage of male maturation is

A

Testicular volume

143
Q

If a 12-year-old female presents with asymmetry of her breasts what does this mean

A

It will probably resolve by tanner stage five

144
Q

What drugs can cause gynecomastia

A

Obesity, pot, Tagamet, Aldactone

145
Q

At what age does an infant focus on the face, grasp rattle is placed in hand, Smile, cool, able to lift had 45°

A

Two months

146
Q

At what age is an infant able to hold and control head when held upright, NO head-lag when pulled upright, raises body on hands, rolls prone to supine, follows light 180 degrees

A

Four months

147
Q

At what age get an infant place an object in the opposite hand and in mouth, sit with support maybe unassisted, roll supine to prone, bear weight, recognize parents, says dada or baba, battles, smiles, squeals, laughs, imitate sounds

A

Six months

148
Q

At what age can an infant pull to stand, bang, shake, drop, and throw objects, able to feed self with finger foods, response to own name and understands a few words, stranger anxiety, Crawls, creeps, and scoots

A

Nine months

149
Q

At what age Can an infant pull to stand and take a few steps, use pincer grass and able to point, says 2 to 4 words, looks for dropped or hidden objects, responds to own name and understands a few words, feed self and drinks from Cup, waves and says bye-bye, dada, mama, imitates vocalizations

150
Q

At what age can a child walk well and is able to stoop, Can point To a body part, says 3 to 6 words, stacks two blocks, follows simple commands, points, grunts, pulls to show what he wants, listens to a story

151
Q

At what age can a child walk backwards, throw a ball, say 15 to 20 words, imitate words, use two word phrases, points to multiple body parts

152
Q

At what age can a child walk up and down stairs one step at a time, kick a ball, say at least 20 words, imitate adults, follow two-step commands, stack five blocks

153
Q

At what age can a child jump, stand on 1 foot, ride a tricycle, say their name, age, and gender, know gender of others, copy a circle or cross, recognize colors

A

Three years

154
Q

At what age can a child sing a song, hop on 1 foot, throw a ball overhand, draw a person with three parts, cut and paste, build a tower with 10 blocks, count to five, copy a square, dress self with supervision

A

Four years

155
Q

At what age can a child 🧒 draw a person with body, hesd, arms, legs, able to recognize most letters and can print some, plays make believe, learns address and phone number, can define at least one word

A

Five years

156
Q

Can you use baby powder in an infant

157
Q

When should solids be given to a baby

A

Four months of age

158
Q

When do you childproof your home

A

Four months of age.

159
Q

When should you introduce solid foods 2 to 3 times per day

A

Six months. Avoid foods which are choking hazards such as nuts, hotdogs, whole grapes, hard candy. Start using a cup. Fluoride supplements if not in drinking water.

160
Q

When do you introduce mashed foods and finger foods, start table foods, discuss weaning from bottle, and brushing teeth

A

Nine months

161
Q

When do you allow a baby to feed them self

162
Q

When do you allow a toddler to feed them self with a spoon and hands. Assess Childs readiness for toilet training

163
Q

When do you start using time out for unacceptable behavior

A

Three years old. One minute for each year of age.

164
Q

This condition presents with enlarged and painless cervical and supraclavicular lymphadenopathy associated with fever: PEL – Epstein sign and night sweats. May report an episode of severe pain that is located on or over a malignant areas a few minutes after drinking alcohol. The most common cancers in teams aged 15 to 19 years.

A

Hodgkin’s lymph Oma

165
Q

What is the diagnostic tool for testicular torsion

A

Doppler ultrasound

166
Q

Majority of skeletal growth occurs when in girls

A

Before menses

167
Q

Unilateral midcycle pelvic pain that is caused by an enlarged ovarian follicle. Pain may Last a few hours to a few days. May occur intermittently.

A

Mittelschmerz

168
Q

This enzyme is normally elevated from puberty to teenage years. Secondary to rapid growth spurts. This enzyme is produced by growing bone or patients healing from major fractures.

A

Elevated alkaline phosphatase

169
Q

When does puberty start and end in tanner staging

A

Starts up Tanner stage two and ends at tanner stage five

170
Q

What tanner stage in boys is the elongation of the penis

A

Stage three

171
Q

How do you obtain a health history from an adolescent

A

Obtain from both parent and child initially, then the adolescent is interviewed alone without the parents

172
Q

What is the criteria for an emancipated minor

A

Legally married and active duty in the Armed Forces

173
Q

If an adolescent has amenorrhea from more than six months what must be measured

A

Bone 🍖 density

174
Q

How do you anorexic patient present

A

Lanugo, peripheral edema, amenorrhea, weight loss >10% of body weight

175
Q

What are anorexic patient at increased risk for

A

Osteoporosis or osteopenia. For birth control avoid Depo-Provera and other progesterone only contraceptives since they can cause bone loss.

176
Q

What does it mean when an anorexic person has swollen feet

A

Low albumin level

177
Q

What is the scoliosis treatments for a 10° curve

A

Observe and monitor for changes in spinal curvature

178
Q

What is the difference between gynecomastia and pseudo gynecomastia

A

Gynecomastia is excessive growth of breast tissue in males. It often resolves spontaneously within six months to two years. Pseudogynecomastia is more common in obese boys

179
Q

It’s parental consent needed for health services related to sexual activity such as STD testing, pregnancy tests, birth control prescription

180
Q

The developmental task for the family of an adolescent is to

A

Allow the adolescent increasing freedom and responsibility

181
Q

Which of the following demonstrates that a 30-year-old male has successfully achieved the developmental task of young adult hood?

A

Married with two children

182
Q

Enlargement of the scrotum and testes with little change in the size of the penis characterizes which tanner stage of sexual development?

A

Tanner stage 2

183
Q

An 11-year-old female whose breasts are beginning to develop and has a few straight, fine pubic hairs. What Tanner stage is this