Neurology Flashcards

1
Q

What are some signs of dangerous headaches

A

Thunderclap headache, worst headache of my life, first onset of headache age 50

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2
Q

A headache with papilledema is indicative of

A

Increased intracranial pressure

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3
Q

Acute onset of high fever, severe headache, and stiff neck is indicative of

A

Acute bacterial meningitis

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4
Q

Is acute bacterial meningitis a reportable disease

A

Yes if not treated it is fatal

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5
Q

If you find an absent red reflex on a funduscopic exam this indicates

A

Cataracts

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6
Q

If you find an abnormal Cop disk ratio of greater than 0.5, this indicates

A

Glaucoma

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7
Q

If you find absent venous pulsations on a fundoscopic exam, this indicates

A

Papilledema

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8
Q

If you find blood in the center of the optic disc in a funduscopic exam this indicates

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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9
Q

Which imaging study looks at cavities

A

CT

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10
Q

Which imaging exam looks at soft tissue

A

MRI

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11
Q

Which imaging study looks at the heart of things such as bone

A

CT

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12
Q

Which imaging study looks at the brain, spinal cord, ligament, tendon injuries, soft tissue and tumors

A

MRI

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13
Q

Which imaging study emits radiation

A

CT

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14
Q

which imaging study does not emit radiation

A

MRI

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15
Q

Absolutely no contrast in an imaging study when there is a suspected

A

Bleed

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16
Q

When should you use contrast in a CT scan

A

When you were looking at phone plus surrounding soft tissue including blood vessels

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17
Q

When should you use contrast in an MRI

A

When you want to discriminate between types of soft tissue

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18
Q

What is the imaging study of choice when Neuro imaging is needed

A

CT with or without contrast

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19
Q

When is an MRI indicated for neuro imaging

A

With posterior fossa lesions or if CSF leak is suspected

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20
Q

Acute onset of headache that is located on one temple on an older adult. The affected temple has an indurated, reddened, and cord like temporal artery that is tender to touch and accompanied by scalp tenderness. What is this disease

A

Temporal arteritis

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21
Q

Can temporal arteritis cause blindness and visual disturbances

A

Yes

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22
Q

Jaw pain or jaw claudication is associated with

A

Temporal arteritis

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23
Q

What neurological condition would give you markedly elevated sedimentation rate and C reactive protein

A

Temporal arteritis

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24
Q

Patients with polymyalgia rheumatica all right a high risk of developing which neurological condition

A

Temporal arteritis

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25
Q

Acute onset of headaches behind an eye or around one eye accompanied by eye pain, blurred vision, and nausea or vomiting. The cornea looks hazy and the affected pupil is dilated midway. This condition is most common in older adults.

A

Acute narrow angle closure glaucoma

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26
Q

A patient with risk factors for embolization such as A Fib, or prolonged immobilization presents with acute onset of stuttering/speech disturbance, one sided facial weakness and weakness of the arms and or legs i.e. hemiparesis.

A

Embolic stroke

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27
Q

Patient presents with poorly controlled hypertension and an abrupt onset of a severe headache, nausea/vomiting, and nuchal rigidity

A

Hemorrhagic stroke

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28
Q

Nuchal rigidity indicates

A

Sub arachnoid bleed

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29
Q

A patient with a history of head trauma presents with a history of headaches and gradual cognitive impairment. This condition is most common in the elderly and those who are on anticoagulation or aspirin therapy. The area of bleeding is between the Dora and subarachnoid membranes of the brain

A

Chronic subdural hematoma

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30
Q

Sudden onset of severe headache described as the worst headache of my life, accompanied by photophobia, nausea/vomiting, meningeal irritation, and positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs with a rapid decline in level of consciousness

A

Subarachnoid hemorrhage

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31
Q

How do you assess mental status

A

Mini mental exam, cranial nerve exam

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32
Q

What does the mini mental exam consist of

A

Orientation, registration, attention and calculation, spell world backwards or serial sevens, language, look for aphasia or difficulty speaking

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33
Q

In what neurological test do you tell the patient to stand with their arms and hands straight on each side and with their feet together with their eyes closed.

A

Romberg test

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34
Q

Ability to recognize familiar objects through sense of touch only

A

Stereo gnosis

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35
Q

Ability to identify figures written on the skin with eyes closed

A

Graphesthesia

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36
Q

What two tests are used to assess for meningitis

A

Kernig’s sign and Brudzinski’s sign

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37
Q

In which test do you flex the patients hips one at a time then attempt to straighten the leg while keeping the hip flexed at 90°

A

Kernig’s sign

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38
Q

What test do you possibly flex and bend The patient’s neck toward the chest

A

Brudzinskis sign

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39
Q

if you tell the patient to touch their chest with their chin and they are unable to touch that test this is a positive finding of

A

Nuchal rigidity

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40
Q

What cranial nerve is for shoulders shrugging together

A

11

Spinal accessory

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41
Q

What viral infection can result in corneal blindness

A

Herpes zoster infection ID shingles

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42
Q

What cranial nerves does the herpes zoster infection i.e. shingles

A

Cranial nerve number five i.e. trigeminal

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43
Q

If there is a rash at the tip of the nose and the temple area what infection must be ruled out

A

Shingles infection of the trigeminal nerve

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44
Q

What diagnostic testing is needed for acute bacterial meningitis

A

Lumbar puncture, CT or MRI, CVC and Gram stain of CSF fluid and the blood before antibiotics

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45
Q

How is acute bacterial meningitis treated

A

Third generation cephalosporin plus chloramphenicol

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46
Q

What is the prophylaxis of close contacts for a patient with acute bacterial meningitis

A

Rifampin or ceftriaxone

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47
Q

What are Blindspot on the visual field

A

Scotland

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48
Q

When a child presents with abdominal pain what type of headache should be considered

A

Migraine headaches

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49
Q

An adult female complains of a gradual onset of a bad throbbing headache behind what I that gradually worsened over several hours. Reports sensitivity to bright light and noise and nausea and vomiting

A

Migraine

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50
Q

What is hyperosmia

A

Smell

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51
Q

What type of medications are used to abort a migraine headache

A

Triptans

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52
Q

If a migraine medication is not a triptan (abortive), then it is

A

Prophylactic

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53
Q

Can a patient with migraine with aura be prescribed oral contraceptives

A

No

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54
Q

At what age should the patient with migraines stop oral contraceptives

A

35

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55
Q

Can triptans lead to rebound headaches is overused

A

Yes

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56
Q

Prophylactic treatment for migraines should be used how often per month

A

Greater than or equal to two per month

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57
Q

A headache that is unilateral, bifrontal, or global, and has a crescendo pattern, patient desiring a cool, quiet, dark room. Duration for 4 to 72 hours with nausea, vomiting, photophobia, and possible aura

A

Migraine headache

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58
Q

This headache is bilateral, described as a pressure headache with tightness and bandlike and waxes and wanes. Patient May continue days activities or not. But the duration varies

A

Tension headache

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59
Q

This headache is always unilateral and begins around the temple or eye. The pain is described as excruciating and explosive but peaks within minutes. The duration is 30 to 90 minutes usually and the eye becomes red, teary, rhinorrhea and alcohol can be a trigger

A

Cluster headache

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60
Q

Nasal stuffiness is associated with

A

Sinusitis

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61
Q

Draw claudication with chewing, fever, visual loss, pain in temple area is associated with

A

Temporal arteritis

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62
Q

Visual field defect is associated with

A

Optic pathway lesion or pituitary tumor

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63
Q

Blurred vision on bending of the head is associated with

A

Intracranial lesion

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64
Q

Headache with nausea and vomiting is associated with

A

Tumor

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65
Q

Unilateral vision loss is associated with

A

Optic neuritis

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66
Q

Sweating and tachycardia is associated with

A

Pheochromocytoma

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67
Q

Transient visual changes and intracranial noise is associated with

A

Pseudotumor cerebrii

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68
Q

Wasn’t migraine headache do you treat prophylactically or abortive first

A

NSAIDs

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69
Q

Neurological exam will be normal with what type of headache

A

Migraine

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70
Q

If a patient has a history of cardiovascular disease, or uncontrolled hypertension this patient would not be able to take what type of migraine medication

A

Five HT one agonists such as sumatriptan

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71
Q

Flashing, tingling, chest/neck/sinus/jaw discomfort are all side effects of what type of migraine medication

A

Sumatriptan

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72
Q

What type of migraine medication puts a patient at higher risk of serotonin syndrome if combined with an SSRI or SNRI

A

Sumatriptan

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73
Q

Which neurological condition is associated with intense and very brief sharp stabbing pain in one cheek

A

Trigeminal neuralgia cranial nerve five

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74
Q

If a patient is on Ergotamine/caffeine, what other migraine headache should be avoided

A

Sumatriptan and decongestants

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75
Q

How does ergotamine/caffeine work

A

Potent vasoconstrictor

Common side effect is nausea

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76
Q

If a patient has hyperlipidemia, hypertension uncontrolled, or complex migraines, is a male over 40 years of age, or a menopausal female, what types of medications should be avoided

A

Vasoconstricting drugs such as sumatriptan or ergotamine/caffeine

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77
Q

Focal neurologic findingsin the cranial nerve exam with strokelike signs and symptoms resembling a TIA is consistent with what type of migraine

A

Basilar or hemiplegic migraine’s

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78
Q

And what type of migraine is a patient at a higher risk of stroke. You should also avoid giving estrogens or any agents probably clot formation these patients

A

Hemiplegic or basilar migraines

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79
Q

Acute onset of a unilateral headache that is located on the temple and is associated with temporal artery inflammation

A

Temporal arteritis or giant cell arteritis

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80
Q

What condition is a systemic inflammatory disorder i.e. vasculitis of the medium and large arteries of the body was the median diagnosis age of 72 years old

A

Temporal arteritis or giant cell arteritis

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81
Q

Can temporal arteritis lead to blindness

A

Yes

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82
Q

The patient comes in and complains of a headache on their temple along with marked scalp tenderness on the same side, presence of an indurated cordlike temporal artery that is warm and tender, and jaw claudication, which condition is this indicative of

A

Temporal arteritis or giant cell arteritis

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83
Q

If a patient complains of amaurosis fugax or blindness and an increased sedimentation rate, what disorder should be in the differential

A

Temporal arteritis or giant cell arteritis

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84
Q

What labs should you check for temporal arteritis

A

ESR and CRP

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85
Q

How do you treat temporal arteritis or giant cell arteritis

A

Refer to ophthalmologist or refer to ED stat

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86
Q

What is the gold standard test for temporal arteritis

A

Temporal artery biopsy

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87
Q

What is the treatment choice for temporal arteritis

A

High dose steroids are first line treatment prednisone 40 to 60 mg PO daily for several weeks

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88
Q

What is the screening test for temporal arteritis

A

Sedimentation rate

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89
Q

Patients with what disease are at a very high risk for developing temporal arteritis

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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90
Q

Bilateral morning stiffness and aching located in the shoulders, neck, hips, and torso, found mostly in females over the age of 50. What are these side effects of

A

Polymyalgia rheumatica

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91
Q

How do you treat polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Oral steroids

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92
Q

An older patient complains of the sudden onset of severe and sharp shooting pain on one side of her face or around the nose that are triggered by chewing, eating cold foods, and cold air. The pain can be severe and last a few seconds. What condition is this

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

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93
Q

How is trigeminal neuralgia treated

A

High doses of anti-convulsant such as carbamazepine or phenytoin.

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94
Q

Abrupt onset of unilateral facial paralysis due to dysfunction of the motor branch of the facial nerve

A

Bell’s palsy

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95
Q

In what condition can tear production on the affected side of the face stop

A

Bells palsy

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96
Q

Which condition can spontaneously resolved, and the etiology ranges from viral infection, and autoimmune process, or pressure from a tumor or a blood vessel

A

Bells palsey

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97
Q

An older adult reports waking up that morning with one side of their face paralyzed. Complains of difficulty chewing and swallowing food on the same side. Unable to fully clothes eyelids

A

Bell’s palsy

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98
Q

In what condition do you rule out stroke, TIA, mastoid infection, bone fracture, Lyme disease, and tumor

A

Bell’s palsy

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99
Q

How do you treat bells palsy

A

Corticosteroids at high doses times 10 days, acyclovir if herpes Symplex is suspected. Protect cornea from drying and ulceration with applications of an eye lubricant b.i.d. patch I if patient is unable to fully close the eyelid

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100
Q

Corneal ulcer ration and permanent and neurological symptoms such as facial weakness can occur from prolonged cases of

A

Bell’s palsy

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101
Q

And idiopathic and severe one sided headache that is marked by Richard episodes of brief ice pick lacerating pain located behind one eye that is accompanied by tearing and clear rhinitis

A

Cluster headache

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102
Q

Ptosis or drooping eyelids are associated with which type of headache

A

Cluster headache

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103
Q

What type of headache is more common in adult males in their thirties to 40s

A

Cluster headache

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104
Q

What is the treatment plan for cluster headaches

A

High dose oxygen, do not use on COPD patients.
Triptans injections or intranasal
Prophylaxis: verapamil PO daily

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105
Q

What type of headache is linked to a higher risk of suicide in males compared with other types of chronic headaches

A

Cluster headache

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106
Q

Bilateral headache

A

Tension headache

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107
Q

And adult patient complains of a headache that is band like and feels like someone is squeezing their head. The pain is described as dull and constant. Often accompanied by tensing of the neck muscles. Headache can last for several days, and can be associated with recent increased life stressors.

A

Tension headache

108
Q

How do you treat a tension headache

A

NSAIDs, analgesics such as acetaminophen and stress reduction techniques such as yoga. Gradually reduce and stop caffeine intake

109
Q

Patient complains of daily headaches that may be accompanied by irritability, depression, and insomnia. Caused by overuse of abortive of medicine such as analgesics, NSAIDs, ASA, or narcotics.

A

Rebound headache

110
Q

How do you treat a rebound headache

A

Discontinue the medicine immediately if not contraindicated or gradually taper the dose and or reduce frequency

111
Q

Which is most common in patients is ischemic or hemorrhagic

112
Q

Hypertension, atrial fib, stimulants (cocaine), aneurysms are risk factors for

113
Q

Resembles a stroke and usually resolves within 24 hours. Symptoms usually resolve for most, but some patients may have minor neurological deficit’s

114
Q

If a patient presents with abrupt onset of difficulty speaking, unilateral hemiparesis, and weakness of the arms and legs this patient is most likely having

A

Embolic TIA

115
Q

If a patient presents with severe headache, nausea and vomiting, photophobia, and nuchal rigidity that is accompanied by hemiparesis and difficulty speaking this patient is having

A

Hemorrhagic TIA

116
Q

What is the treatment plan for TIA

A

Call 911 and give oxygen ASAP

117
Q

What is the long-term management for strokes

A

Remove or treat the cause of the emboli i.e. A fib, and control hypertension

118
Q

What is the long-term management for embolic strokes

A

Anticoagulation with Coumadin. Keep INR between 2.0 and 3.0

119
Q

What must be avoided in hemorrhagic stroke’s

A

Heparin, Coumadin, aspirin

120
Q

G.I. pain, bleeding, ulceration, renal damage, increased blood pressure and hypertension are all side effects of

121
Q

When prescribing a patient carbamazepine or phenytoin, what must be assessed

A

Serum levels

122
Q

Nausea, acute MI are side effects of

123
Q

Hepatic damage is a side effect of

A

Acetaminophen

124
Q

Sedation, drive now, confusion in elderly are side effects of

A

Tricyclic antidepressants such as amitriptyline

125
Q

Second or 3rd° AV block, asthma, COPD, bradycardia are contraindications for which medication

A

Beta blockers

126
Q

What condition is caused by median nerve compression due to swelling

A

Carpal tunnel syndrome

127
Q

What two tests are for carpal tunnel syndrome

A

Tinel’s sign and Phalen’s sign

128
Q

Which test do you tap the anterior wrist briskly

A

Tinel’s sign

129
Q

What test requires the patient to fully flex the wrist for 60 seconds

A

Phalen’s sign

130
Q

Band like head pain that may last for days

A

Tension headache

131
Q

Tic douloureux is another name for

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

132
Q

Predominant symptom of vestibular dysfunction that involves spinning, swaying, tilting, nausea and vomiting, postural instability. This condition can be a single episode or recurrent

133
Q

What type of vertigo involves the vestibular system

A

Peripheral vertigo

134
Q

What type of vertigo involves the brainstem or cerebellum

A

Central vertigo

135
Q

What type of vertigo is associated with prolonged nystagmus

A

Central vertigo

136
Q

What type of vertigo is associated with severe nausea and vomiting

A

Peripheral vertigo

137
Q

What type of vertigo is associated with impaired gait and mobility

A

Central vertigo

138
Q

Which vertigo is for current and last less than one minute

A

Peripheral vertigo

139
Q

Which vertigo is a single episode vertigo lasting minutes to hours

A

Central vertigo

140
Q

How do you treat central vertigo

A

Refer to neurology

141
Q

Benign positional vertigo out, Ménière’s disease, and vestibular neuritis are common types of

A

Peripheral vertigo

142
Q

What type of vertigo is associated with being brief and recurrent, and is attributed to calcium debris in semicircular canals, and a change in position precipitates symptoms

A

Benign peroxysmal positional vertigo

143
Q

Dix-Hallpike maneuver is associated with

A

BPPV (benign paroxysmal positional vertigo)

144
Q

Mild hearing loss is associated with what type of vertigo

A

Meniere’s disease

145
Q

Nausea and vomiting is associated with what type of vertigo

146
Q

How do you treat vertigo

A

Antihistamines such as meclizine or dimenhydrinate. Benzos such as alprazolam or lorazepam and time

147
Q

If carpal tunnel syndrome and mononeuropathy or poly neuropathy

A

Mononeuropathy

148
Q

What type of neuropathy involves a single nurse

A

Mononeuropathy

149
Q

The most common risk factors for the development of polyneuropathy are

A

Diabetics and alcohol abusers

150
Q

Symmetrical, burning, weakness, sensory loss, variable, rapid, lower, and distal are all common features of

A

Neuropathy

151
Q

What is the most common rest tremor

A

Parkinson’s disease

152
Q

Chronic, progressive, neurodegenerative disorder with the mean the diagnosis age of 70.5 years old

A

Parkinson’s disease

153
Q

Tremor at rest i.e. pill rolling, bradykinesia, and rigidity are all cardinal features of

A

Parkinson’s disease

154
Q

What is the treatment for Parkinson’s disease

A

Levodopa is the most effective and usually given first for bradykinesia symptoms, tremor, and rigidity

155
Q

What Parkinson’s medication causes nausea, dizziness, somnolence loves initially and confusion, hallucinations, orthostatic hypotension in older patients

156
Q

What tremor is most common with aging with bilateral action tremor of arms, forearms, head, voice, chin, lip tremor

A

Essential tremor

157
Q

How do you treat essential tremor

A

Propanolol or primidone is most effective

158
Q

What is the most common immune mediated, inflammatory, demyelinating disease of the central nervous system

A

Multiple sclerosis

159
Q

How do you diagnose multiple sclerosis

A

History and physical

160
Q

What diagnostic tool confirms multiple sclerosis

161
Q

Abnormal limb sensation, visual loss, motor symptoms, diplopia, gait disturbance, and a cute motor symptoms are all symptoms of

A

Multiple sclerosis

162
Q

Insidious decline in cognition that requires cognitive decline in one or more I don’t means such as complex attention, executive function, learning memory, perceptual motor, social cognition.

163
Q

Are there any labs or imaging study for dementia

164
Q

What is the difference between dementia and delirium

A

Delirium happens quickly

165
Q

What’s testing is used for dementia

166
Q

What is the MMSE score that is strongly suggestive of dementia

A

Less than 24

167
Q

Well the patient presents with dementia what other signs should you look for

A

Neurodeficits or tremors, signs consistent with strength, gait difficulty and cogwheel rigidity

168
Q

What differential diagnosis for dementia look-alike’s are there

A

Medications such as analgesics, anticholinergics, psychotropics, sedative hypnotics, depression, prior stroke, tumor, Parkinson’s disease

169
Q

What diagnostic studies should be given to all dementia patients however it is a low yield test

A

CBC, CMP i.e. LFTs, B12, folate, TSH, RPR, HIV, CT and or MRI

170
Q

What psychological issue should be screened for with dementia

A

depression

171
Q

This cranial nerve is responsible for movement of the superior oblique muscle

A

Cranial nerve number four

Trochlear

172
Q

Description under office responsible for movement of the lateral rectus muscle

A

Cranial nerve number six

Abducens

173
Q

In which cranial nerve would you observe for fasciculations when patient sticks tongue out

A

Cranial nerve number 12

Hypoglossal

174
Q

A patient who is 60 years old complains of lower back pain for the last 5 to 6 weeks. She states that the severity is about four out of 10 and that she gets no relief from sitting, standing, or lying. What must be considered

A

Systemic illness

175
Q

A 70-year-old male who is diabetic presents with gait difficulty, cognitive disturbance, and urinary incontinence. What should be part of the differential diagnosis

A

Normal pressure hydrocephalus

176
Q

If a person has a TIA, how should they be treated

A

Send them to the emergency department

177
Q

If a patient presents with restless leg syndrome what labs should be ordered

A

Serum ferritin

178
Q

An infant with fetal alcohol syndrome would

A

Be irritable, hyperactive, and exhibit a high pitched cry

179
Q

Findings consistent with marijuana intoxication would include

A

Euphoria, talkativeness, and paranoia

180
Q

In what type of seizure does a patient experience a sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no movements

A

Myoclonic atonic seizure

181
Q

What test or sign occurrence with flexion of the neck

A

Brudzinski sign

182
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system that regulates muscle movement and response to the sensations of paint and touch is the

A

Somatic nervous system

183
Q

When upper motor neuron systems are damaged above the crossover of its tracts in the medulla, motor impairment develops on the opposite side. This is called

A

Contralateral

184
Q

If a patient presents with signs of being gleeful, somewhat drowsy, and an inability to focus with a blood pressure of 90/65, pupils constricted, and search speech what would this be consistent with

A

Opioid intoxication

185
Q

Assessment findings in an infant with increased intracranial pressure would include

A

Drowsiness

186
Q

The thalamus and the basal ganglion are located in the

A

Gray matter

187
Q

Which nervous system function coordinates muscle strength

A

Motor system

188
Q

Anesthesia refers to

A

Absence of touch sensation

189
Q

A form of aphasia on which the speech is confluent, slow, with few words and laborious effort and inflection and articulation are impaired but words are meaningful, is termed

A

Broca’s aphasia

190
Q

Presence of crossed or touching knees is consistent with what condition in a young child

A

Cerebral palsy

191
Q

The part of the brain tissue that consists of neuronal axons that are coated with myelin is the

A

White matter

192
Q

Which nervous system function coordinates head movements

A

Vestibular system

193
Q

Hypalgesia refers to

A

Decreased sensitivity to pain

194
Q

A patient who is being evaluated for frequent headaches mentions that the headache worsens with coughing, sneezing, or when changing positions. Increasing pain with these maneuvers maybe suggestive of

A

Brain tumor

195
Q

If a patient complains of weakness in their arm while combing their hair, this finding could be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern

196
Q

What part of the brain relays sensory information between brain regions and controls many autonomic functions of the peripheral nervous system

A

Diencephalon

197
Q

Subdural hematoma should be expected when the x-ray reveals

A

Bleeding between dura and the cerebrum

198
Q

Which sense is most often affected in patients on long term antibiotic therapy

199
Q

An abnormal reflux in the triceps is consistent with which segmented level of the spine

A

Cervical six and seven

200
Q

Dysphonia refers to

A

In impairment in volume of the voice

201
Q

In abnormal or unpleasant sense of touch is termed

A

Dysesthesia

202
Q

If a patient arouses from sleep after exposure to painful stimuli, exhibits slow verbal responses, and easily lapses Into an unresponsive state this is consistent with

A

Stuporous state

203
Q

If a patient has a positive Romberg test this is suggestive of

A

Ataxia related to a dorsal column disease

204
Q

The patient complains of weakness in their hand when opening a jar this would be suggestive of which type of weakness pattern

205
Q

During this type of seizure of the patient experiences partial seizures that resemble tonic clonic seizures and the patient may recall the aura and a unilateral neurological defects that’s present during the postictal period

A

Focal seizure that becomes generalized

206
Q

A type of seizure activity that includes tonic and then clonic movements and usually start in the hand, foot or face then spread to other parts of the body is known as

A

Jacksonian seizure

207
Q

An abnormal reflex in the right knee correlates with which segmented level of the spine

A

Lumbar 2,3 & 4

208
Q

A distortion of any sense, especially that of touch

A

Dysesthesia

209
Q

Sensation of tingling, tickling, prickling, or burning of a person skin

A

Paresthesia

210
Q

President blinking after glabeller tap and difficulty walking heel to toe is common in

A

Parkinson’s disease

211
Q

When you flex a patient’s head and neck forward, what is this

A

Nuchal rigidity sign

212
Q

Premature closing of the cranial sutures in an infant is called

A

Craniosynostosis

213
Q

At what age does the cranial sutures close in an infant

A

12 to 18 months

214
Q

It’s a patient fails the pronator drift test, what with this indicate

A

Corticospinal tract lesion

215
Q

When evaluating the sensory system, testing the spinothalmic tracts would include assessing sensations of

A

Pain and temperature

216
Q

The term used to describe the absence or loss of control of voluntary muscle movement is

217
Q

involuntary muscle spasms and twisting of the limbs is called

218
Q

The most common cause of viral encephalitis in children is

A

Herpes simplex virus type one

219
Q

The straight leg raise test is for

220
Q

Weakness in the shoulder or hip girdle is called

A

Proximal weakness

221
Q

Weakness in the hands or feet is called

A

Distal weakness

222
Q

Weakness that occurs in a portion of the face or extremity is called

A

Asymmetric weakness

223
Q

A form of aphasia where articulation is good but sentences lack meaning is

A

Wernicke’s aphasia

224
Q

In what type of aphasia is speech confluence, slow, with a few words and laborious effort

A

Broca’s aphasia

225
Q

What what type of aphasia does a person have word finding difficulties and because of these difficulties, the person struggles to find the right words for speaking and writing

A

Anomic aphasia

226
Q

In what type of aphasia does a person have difficulty speaking and understanding words and is unable to read or write

A

Global aphasia

227
Q

Touching the cornea and assessing for reflex corresponds to which cranial nerve

A

Cranial nerve number five trigeminal

228
Q

What are classic signs of a basilar skull fracture

A

CSF leak from nose and ears and hemotympanum

229
Q

Aphonia refers to

A

The loss of voice

230
Q

Symmetric weakness of the proximal muscles of the legs suggest

231
Q

An older patient presents with signs of undernourishment, slowed motor performance, and loss of muscle mass or weakness. What does this suggest

232
Q

If a patient is lying supine in an abnormal position with the upper arms flexed take to the sides with elbows, wrists, and fingers flex. His legs are extended and internally rotated and his feet are plantar flexed. This position is consistent with

A

Decorticate rigidity

233
Q

If a patient is laying with their jaws clenched and the neck is extended with the arms adducted and stiffly extended from the elbows, with forearms pronated, wrists and fingers flexed, legs extended at knees and the feet plantar flexed. This position is consistent with

A

Decerebrate rigidity

234
Q

When assessing an elderly patient for delirium, the recommended instrument with the best supportive data is the

A

Confusion assessment method

235
Q

An ambulatory child patient with spastic cerebral palsy needs a diet that is

A

High in calories

236
Q

The impaired ability to adjust to one’s body position Is

A

Bradykinesia

237
Q

A sudden brief lapse of consciousness with momentary blinking, staring, or movements of the lips and hands but no falling is consistent with

A

An absent seizure

238
Q

Bilateral weakness in cranial nerve V is suggestive of

A

Bilateral hemispheric disease

239
Q

Absence of movement of the big toe is correlated to which segmented level of the spine

A

Lumbar five and sacral one

240
Q

When a patient clenches his teeth and moves his jaw from side to side this assesses which cranial nerve

A

Cranial nerve number five trigeminal

241
Q

Symptoms of a sub dural hematoma include

A

Noticeable bleeding between the dura and the cerebrum on x-ray

242
Q

An example of tandem walking is having the patient

A

Walk heel to toe

243
Q

Aphasia refers to

A

The inability to produce or understand language

244
Q

If a patient is in an obtunded state, they would be like

A

Everything would be extremely slow

245
Q

One observing for thenar atrophy of the hands, a typical observation is

A

Furrowing in the spaces between the metacarpals

246
Q

Unilateral weakness in cranial nerve five would be suggestive of

A

Pontine lesion

247
Q

Analgesia refers to

A

Absence of pain sensation

248
Q

When a patient complains of severe headaches that have worsened over the last few weeks but has no other symptoms are most likely diagnosis would be

249
Q

What assessment what test for pain, temperature, and sensation using the distal and proximal areas testing pattern

A

Test the sensation in the thumbs and little fingers

250
Q

When testing for corneal reflex and absent blank reflects would be suggestive of a lesion in which cranial nerve

A

Cranial nerve five or seven trigeminal or facial nerve

251
Q

The part of the brain tissue that rims the surfaces of the cerebral hemispheres, forming the cerebral cortex is known as the

A

Gray matter

252
Q

The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary actions is known as the

A

Autonomic nervous system

253
Q

Pink macules and papules on the chest along with petechiae and echinosis may be indicative of

A

Meningococcemia

254
Q

Symptoms indicative of shaken baby syndrome are related to

A

Uncontrollable cerebral Edema and hypoxia

255
Q

And abnormal reflex in the right biceps is correlated to which segmented level of the spine

A

Cervical five and six

256
Q

The ability of the patient to identify the area of the body that was touched when their eyes were closed is called

A

Point localization

257
Q

Hypesthesia refers to

A

Decreased sensitivity to touch

258
Q

Walking on the toes and heels may reveal

A

Distal muscular weakness in the legs

259
Q

A transient ischemic attack is

A

A transient episode of neurologic dysfunction bifocal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischemia, without a cute infarction

260
Q

Neurologic deficit’s, vertigo, confusion, weakness, hemiparesis, temporary monocular blindness, ataxia, and diplopia are all symptoms of

261
Q

A fain tail Nevus is associated with

A

Spina bifida

262
Q

A patient is diagnosed with Bell’s palsy. He is placed on high-dose steroids. After four days of prednisone, the patient states that his Eye 👁 still will not close completely. How should the nurse practitioner manage the problem

A

This is not unusual. He should continue the plan.

263
Q

It is clear that and in Alzheimer’s disease, environmental forces as well as genetic factors exert considerable influence. One potential treatable risk factor currently receiving much attention is

A

Estrogen deficiency

264
Q

The most reliable indicator of neurological deficit when assessing a patient with acute low back pain is

A

Decreased reflexes, strength, and sensation in the lower extremities

265
Q

Which of the following is true about cognitive abilities in the elderly

A

Some decline occurs in the sixth decade, but persons in later decades show little change

266
Q

Is there any medication to prevent dementia

267
Q

Holocranial headaches that present in the morning and accompanied by projectile vomiting without nausea is consistent with

A

Brain tumor