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CSB521 - PM1 > wk 12- revision > Flashcards

wk 12- revision Flashcards

1
Q

transmission routes for infectious agents and their respective PPE

A

contact- direct or indirect (contaminated surface), PPE: gown and gloves

droplet- particles that can travel within a 1.5 distance, PPE: surgical mask

airbone- particles that can travel larger than 1.5m distance (suspended in air), PPE: n95 or P2 mask

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2
Q

when do you need to do hand hygiene? 5 moments

A

before touching patient
before procedure
after a procedure
after touching patient
or patient surroundings

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3
Q

why do podiatrists have to be good with chain of transmission?

A

because most patients have comorbidities or immunocompromised

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4
Q

hand washing (initial hand wash procedure)

A
  1. rub in palm to palm
  2. palm to back of palm with fingers interlaced and reverse
  3. palm to palm with fingers interlaced
  4. fist to palm and reverse
  5. thumbs x2
  6. fingers circling palm x2
  7. rinse hands and dry completely with paper towel
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5
Q

how long are hand wash after the initial one?

A

15-30 seconds

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6
Q

what do you need to always ask the patient in regards to gloves?

A

are you allergic to latex?

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7
Q

Donning PPE order

A

hand hygiene
gown
mask
eyewear
hand hygiene
gloves

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8
Q

doffing PPE order

A

gloves
hand hygiene
eyewear
gown
mask
hand hygiene

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9
Q

what is an autoclave? and what is the temp, pressure and hold times

A

steam sterilising (after cleaning) of semi critical and critical instruments

134 celcius, 203kPa, 3 minutes (general use)

121C, 103kPa, 15 mins (occasional use)

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10
Q

what is the cambridge-calgary observation guide? 5

A
  1. initiating the session- prep, establish rapport, identify reason for consult
  2. gather info- explore biomed, patient problems and context
  3. physical info- assessments
  4. explanation and planning- correct amount and type of info, aid recall and understanding, shared understanding
  5. closing session- ensuring appropriate point of closure and forward planning
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11
Q

how can you involve patient and be culutrally sensitive?

A

-share thinking
-explain rationale for assessments
-explain process and ask for consent/understanding

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12
Q

Vascular assessment- general examination (2)

A

visual inspection
-risk factors (BMI, smokers staining, age)
-nail quality/shape
-skin colour
-swelling
-hair growth
-lesions/ulcers/ varicose veins
-asymmetry of limbs

clinic biomed tests

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13
Q

Vasuclar assessment- risk factors (patient history)- 9

A

-family history
-age (over 60)
-hypertension
-dyslipidaemia
-smoker
-obesity
-diabetes
-sedentary lifestyle
-medications (NSAID, oral contraceptive -risk of blood clots, CVD)

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14
Q

symptoms of vascular problems- arterial and venous specific

A

Arterial:
pain (on exertion- arterial)
Thin, shiny, hairless skin
Ulcers on toes
Red/pallor colour skin
Cool temp
Asymmetry (thin legs)

Venous:
cramping (night cramps relieved by getting up)
Swelling
Ulcers around ankles
Dark/blue skin colour
Made better with elevation of limbs
Asymmetry (muscle bulk)

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15
Q

signs and symptoms of PAD (3 main)

A
  1. intermittent claudication- pain on exertion, gets better with rest. time to pain correlates with stenosis/occlusion, felt in thigh, calf or buttocks.
  2. rest pain (usually in calves that is eased by standing
  3. non-healing lesions (typically on toes)
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16
Q

Clinical assessments for vascular

A
  1. pulses
  2. perfusion
  3. capillary refill time and possibly elevation, dependency
  4. doppler and possibly ABI
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17
Q

venous condition visual signs on limbs (4 main)

A
  1. varicose veins
  2. oedema
  3. haemosiderin deposits
  4. telangiectasia
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18
Q

assessment of oedema (2)

A

Venous:
Press firmly with your thumb for at least 2 seconds on each extremity
1. Over the dorsum of the foot
2. Behind the medial malleolus
3. Lower calf above the medial malleolus
Record indention recovery time in seconds
0- no oedema
1- 2mm or less indent
2- 2-4mm
3- 4-6mm
4-6-8mm indent

Lymph:
Stemmers sign
Pinch the skin on the dorsum of foot at 3rd MTJP, if unable = lymphoedema

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19
Q

classifying PAD into 4

A
  1. asymptomatic
  2. claudication
  3. critical limb ischaemia
  4. acute limb ischaemia
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20
Q

6 P’s for acute limb ischaemia (PAD)

A

pain- worse during movement
paralysis- motor nerve damage
paresthesia- sensory nerve ischaemia
pulselessness
poikilothermia- perishing cold
pallor

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21
Q

what does pallor or white tell us ?

A

cold, anaemia, raynauds phenomenon, cardiac failure, insufficient arterial supply, occlusion

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22
Q

what does blue tell us?

A

cold, raynauds phenomenon, venous stasus

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23
Q

what does blue with central cyanosis tell us

A

cardiac, respiratory failure

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24
Q

what does hazy blue tell us

A

infection, necrosis, bruising

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25
Q

what does red tell us

A

heat, extreme cold (vasodilation), inflammation, infection (cellulitis), a dusky red - severe vascular deficiency

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26
Q

brown?

A

haemosidorin deposits, necrosis, melanoma, gangrene, bruising

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27
Q

black

A

bruising, shoe dye, necrosis, melanoma, gangrene

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28
Q

minimal vascular assessment 7

A
  1. history of modifable and non-modifiable risk factors
  2. palpation of foot pulses
  3. skin, temp and other visible clinical features
  4. intermittent claudication and ischaemic rest pain identification
  5. differential diagnosis of common leg symptoms
  6. identification of rterial ulceration and severity
  7. identification of venous disease, oedema, and lymphedema
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29
Q

what are the pulses for braadycardia and tachycardia? infection is associated with which?

A

B- less than 60BPM
T- more than 100BPM- infection

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30
Q

when is buergers elevation test useful?

A

severe PAD
vascular calcification due to incompressible leg arteries or high ankle pressures

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31
Q

what are the triphasic responses?

A

-First sound is the loudest and of a higher pitch – ventricular bolus from
the heart

-The second and third sounds are the diastolic sounds due to the reversal
of flow caused by the elastic distension in the arteries and final forward
flow as the arteries rebound

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32
Q

what do monophasic and biphasic sounds show?

A

M-blood flows in one direction and doesnt cross baseline
B- two directions

which can indicate disease (obstruction)

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33
Q

what are ABI and ASP ranges?

A

ankle brachial index: 0.9-1.3, ankle systolic pressure >100 = normal

ABI<0.9, ASP <100 = Abnormal

ABI<0.4, ASP <50 = severe limb ischaemia

bi>1.3 Or non compressible, >200 = vascular calcifiction

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34
Q

what are TBPI and TSP ranges? and when to use it?

A

toe brachial pressure index >0.7, TSP >95 = normal

TBPI <0.7, TSP <95= abnormal

TBPI <0.3, TSP <30 = severe limb ischaemia

TBPI >1.1 = suspect vascular calcification

use to asses further in people with known or suspected leg artery calcification or foot ulceration

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35
Q

organisation of nervous system

A

NS - CNS (brain and spinal) and PNS (somatic, autonomic)

PNS:
somatic- efferent motor and afferent sensory

autonomic - efferent (sympathetic and parasympathetic) and afferent

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36
Q

how many cranial and spinal nerves in the PNS?

A

12 pairs of cranial
31 pairs of spinal

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37
Q

Neuro assessment- general examination

A

visual inspection-
muscle bulk
asymmetry
autonomic - sweating/ dryness
affecting sensation or movement
deformity
tremors
state of consciousness- speech, gait, facial

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38
Q

main features of upper motor neurone lesions

A

more muscle contraction = spasticity
more muscle tone = hypertonicity
more muscle reflexes = hyperreflexia
more disuse = disuse atrophy
babinski sign = toes go up

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39
Q

main features of lower motor neurone lesions

A

less muscle contraction = flaccid
less muscle tone = hypotonicity
less muscle reflexes = hyporeflexia
loss of innervation = denervation atrophy
babinski sign = toes go down

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40
Q

sensory deficits may arise from?

A

damage to the parietal cortex (receptors or ascending pathways)

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41
Q

neuro clinical tests test what?

A

large and small fibres

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42
Q

what is a dermatome?

A

area of skin that is mainly supplied by a single spinal nerve

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43
Q

where is L1, 2, 3 derm?

A

L1- top of thigh
L2- mid thigh
L3- medial femoral condyle, above knee

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44
Q

where is L4, L5, S1, S2?

A

L4- medial malleolus
L5- 3rd met dorsum of foot
S1- lateral calc
s2- back of knee

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45
Q

what tests do you conduct in dermatomes? how is it usually conducted and what is the point of this?

A

light touch and sharp dull discrimination tests

test each key sensory area in each derm and then two other sites within the derm

the key sensory area (dermatome only) tests for radiculopathy (compression of nerve at spinal root)

within the dermatome (cutaneous nerve region) tests for peripheral nerve entrapment

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46
Q

nerve root segments for femoral, obturator and sciatic nerve

A

femoral L2-l4
obturator L2-l4
sciatic L4-S3

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47
Q

what cutaneous nerves supply the foot

A

plantar:
medial(toes 1-3 and half of the 4th)/lateral plantar nerves (toes 5 and half of the 4th toe)
sural (lateral foot)
saphenous (medial foot)
calcaneal (from tibial nerve)

dorsal:
medial and lateral plantar nerves (same as plantar)
saphenous (medial foot)
sural (lateral)
deep fibula nerve (in betwwen 1/2 toes)
superficial fibula nerve (dorsum of foot)

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48
Q

what is the difference between dermatomes and cutaneous innervation?

A

dermatome- area of skin supplied by a single pair of spinal nerves (eg L4), a problem here would indicate a problem at the nerve root

cutaneous innervation- areas innervated by specific peripheral nerves (nerves that track off the nerve roots) eg lateral cutaneous femoral nerve, this indicates a problem further down in a specific peripheral nerve

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49
Q

how can you test radiculopathy?

A

straight leg testing, lay them flat and raise a leg to see if any pain is felt in back to suggest nerve root entrapment
normal is greater than 90 degrees, depends on age

the slump test, seated and clasps hands behind back, they slump forward to put their spine in flexion, the client also extends out their knee and flexes their foot. this puts tension on the spinal cord and nerves

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50
Q

assessment of motor nerve function tests which roots (hip, knee, ankle, 1st met)

A

hip
-flexion L2, L3
-extension L4, L5

knee
-flexion L3, L4
-extension L5, S1

ankle
-dorsiflexion and inversion L4, L5
-plantarflexion S1, S2
-eversion L5, S1

1st met
-dorsiflexion L5, S1
-plantarflexion S2, S3

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51
Q

difference between dermatomes and myotomes

A

derm- nerve root that innverates an area of skin
myo- nerve root that innervates a group of muscles

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52
Q

what to rememeber about myotomes

A

move down a joint, move down a nerve root
front movement before the back movement (flexion, extension)
hip- L2: L2-L5
knee- L3: L3-S1
ankle L4: L4-S2
1st met L5: L5-S3

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53
Q

Muscle tone assessment

A

hip- patient lying straight, roll knee side to side

knee-hand behind knee and lift rapidly and watch heel

ankle- hold ankle dorsiflex and plantarflex foot

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54
Q

assessing muscle tone tells us what?

A

hypertonia- abnormal and increased tension of the muscle
hypotonia- reduced tension of the muscle shown in increased flexibility, poor posture, low muscle endurance and strength

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55
Q

tonus

A

partial contraction of normal muscle, normal state of balanced muscle tension in the body which makes posture movement and coordination possible

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56
Q

dystonia

A

neurological movement disorder characterized by unintended muscle contractions that cause slow repetitive mvoements or abnormal postures

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57
Q

myotonia

A

rare neuromuscular condition where there is a delayed relaxation of skeletal muscles after voluntary contraction. associated with pain, weakness, fatigue, hypertrophy or underdeveloped muscle

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58
Q

what can affect reflexes

A

age \
skin sensory apparatus defect (after surgery)`

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59
Q

what root is the patella reflex?

A

L3, L4

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60
Q

achilles reflex root

A

S1, S2

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61
Q

what does absent ankle reflexes mean

A

-if normal patella reflexes then could be peripheral neuropathy
-age (over 70)
-if only absent on one side then S1 root lesion

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62
Q

what are the sensory receptors

A

mechanorecptors- touch and pressure
thermoreceptors- temp
nocioceptors- pain
proproceptors- position

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63
Q

classifications of peripheral nerve fibres

A

large diameter fibres (heavily meylinated) - mediate motor strength, vibration, light touch and 2 point discrimination

medium diameter fibres (myelinated)- carry info to muscle spindles (stretch reflex)

small diameter fibres- cold, pressure, pain (unmyelinated)

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64
Q

how can you test A-b (beta) fibres

A

cotton wool- light touch
tuning fork-vibration
2 point
monofilament - pressure

large diameter fibres

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65
Q

how can you test A-A (alpha) fibres

A

neurotip- sharp blunt discrimination

large diameter fibres

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66
Q

how can you test C type fibres

A

menthol, capsaicin- chemical pain
pinch, neurotip- pain/deep pressure

small diameter fibres

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67
Q

how can you testA-d (delta) fibres

A

hot and cold

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68
Q

why should you check skin areas before testing

A

-infection control (unbroken skin)
-reduction in results due to callous or thickening

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69
Q

what order do you test neurological areas?

A

distally to proximal
if theres known areas of sensory loss then start there and work toward areas of sensory sensation

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70
Q

what numbers on the RSTF show decrease and almost complete loss of sensation

A

4- decrease
2-almost complete loss

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71
Q

10g monofilament requires what amount of force to buckle?

A

10g

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72
Q

why arent thermorecptors often tests?

A

because if pain perception is normal theres not much need as it tests similar things

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73
Q

how can you assess dusfunction on the cerebellum

A

-posture
-balance
-difficulty speaking
-inability to perform rapid muscle movement
-tremor
-gait (wide base of gait, ataxic, deviate to one side)

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74
Q

MSK assessment- general examination

A

look:
-skin/nail changes (callous)
-muscle bulk
-swelling
-deformity (vagus or valgus, clawing)
-alignment (foot arch)
-posture
-symmetry (left and ride, check insoles)

feel:
-back of hand feel temp across joint line forefoot, midfoot and ankle
-assess swellings for mobility
-palpate areas for tenderness/pain

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75
Q

spinal malalignments (4)

A

-Lordosis: increase in forward curvature of the
spine, particularly observed in the lumbar
region in the sagittal plane
* Kyphosis: increase in outward curvature of the
spine, particularly observed in the cervical region
in the sagittal plane
* Scoliosis: lateral curvature of the spine in the
frontal plane
* Kypho-scoliosis: combination of kyphosis and
scoliosis (i.e outward and lateral)

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76
Q

what is genu varum

A

Physical deformity marked by outward bowing of the lower leg in relation to the thigh

77
Q

genu valgum

A

Physical deformity where the thighs angle inwards
and the knees touch

78
Q

genu recurvatum

A

knee hyperextension

79
Q

flexed deformity of knee

A

inability to straighten the knee

80
Q

what movements occur in the sagittal plane?

A

Flexion, extension, dorsiflexion and plantarflexion

81
Q

what movements occur in the frontal plane

A

abduction/adduction, inversion and eversion

82
Q

what movements occur in the transverse plane

A

internal and external rotation, foot adduction/abduction

83
Q

triplanar motions

A

pronation- dorsiflexion, eversion abduction

supination-plantarflexion, inversion, adduction

84
Q

what is a close packed joint position?

A

maximum contact between the two surfaces which allows for max stability but minimum mobility

85
Q

what are you assessing for joints

A
  1. sign of inflammation
    -red,heat, pain, swelling, loss of function
  2. joint movement
    -direction of motion
    -range
    -symmetry
    -quality
    -pain
    -end feel
86
Q

if theres pain/restriction noted in the same direction for both active and passive motion this means

A

damage to articular tissue (non contractile), ligs, tendons, nerves, bursae, joints etc

87
Q

if theres pain/restriction noted in opposite direction for both active and passive motion eg active ankle dorsiflexion and passive ankle plantarflexion this means

A

damage to extra articular tissue (contractile) such as muscle

88
Q

classifying muscles (3)

A

local stabilizers- low levels of contraction for long periods of time, typically deep muscles close to joint.

global stabilizers- control range of movement, typically superficial and control eccentrically to decelerate motion of joint

global mobilizers- produce movement, active in specific directions, typically in the sagittal plane

89
Q

types of lesser toe deformities and how are they formed

A

hammer toe- flexion at the proximal IPJ
mallet - flexion at the distal IPJ
claw- flexion at both IPJ
retracted toe- off the ground
absent toes
dorsally displaced
syndactyly - toes joined, webbed
fan toes

90
Q

macrodactylia

A

digital gigantism

91
Q

microdactylia

A

digital dwarfism

92
Q

clinodactylia

A

overlapping toes

93
Q

Davie’s law

A

soft tissue will elongate when put under unremitting tension

when soft tissue remains in a loose state, they will gradually shorten

94
Q

joint positions for hammer toe

A

MPJ- DF
PIPJ- PF
DIPJ- neutral

95
Q

joint positions for claw toe

A

MPJ- DF
PIPJ- PF
DIPJ- PF

96
Q

joint positions for mallet toe

A

MPJ- neutral
PIPJ- neutral
DIPJ- PF

97
Q

key features of pes planus

A

-flat foot
-low arch
-hypermobile foot
-pronated

98
Q

key features of pes cavus

A

-high arch
-supinated
-hollow foot
-less ground contact

99
Q

function of skin

A

-largest organ in body
-provides protection
-permits sensations (touch, thermo, proprio, etc)
-metabolic functions
-part of immune system
-absorpton functions

100
Q

dermatology assessment- general examination

A

look
-skin/nail changes
skin assessment
nail assessment

101
Q

list of primary lesions

A

macule
patch
papule
nodule
plaque
vesicle
bulla
pustule
cyst
wheal

102
Q

list of secondary lesions

A

scales
crusts
erosions
ulcers
excoriations
lichenification
atrophy
scars
fissures

103
Q

what are primary lesions

A

caused directly by the disease process

104
Q

recognise and define skin/nail pathologies

A
105
Q

classification of callus’

A
  • 0 - no lesion
  • 1- diffuse or pinch callous
  • 2 - circumscribed well defined callous
  • 3 - seed corn or hard corn with no callous
  • 4 - callous with corn
  • 5 - extravasation, maceration, early
    breakdown under callous
  • 6 - complete breakdown extending to dermis
106
Q

what is verrucae pedis

A

-begins as papule
-affects stratum spinosum

107
Q

infection progression of dermtology

A

primary site
2. cellulitis
3. lymphangitis
4. lymphadenitis
5.bacteraemia
6.septicaemia
7.death

108
Q

what is the difference between bacteraemia and specticaemia

A

Bacteraemia is just the simple presence of bacteria in the blood and Septicaemia is the blood poisoning caused by the
presence and multiplication of the bacteria in the blood. Septicaemia is dangerous and life-threatening than bacteraemia.

109
Q

difference between lymphadenitis and lymphangitis

A

dentitis- inflammation of lymph nodes due to infection
angitis- inflammation of lymph vessel due to infection

110
Q

what is melanoma

A

a malignant tumour of melanocytes usually in the epidermis

111
Q

explain the clark levels of skin cancer

A
  • Clark Level I, the cancer is in the epidermis only.
  • Clark Level II, the cancer has begun to spread into the
    papillary dermis (upper layer of the dermis).
  • Clark Level III, the cancer has spread through the papillary
    dermis into the papillary-reticular dermal interface but not into
    the reticular dermis (lower layer of the dermis).
  • Clark Level IV, the cancer has spread into the reticular
    dermis.
  • Clark Level V, the cancer has spread into the subcutaneous
    tissue.
112
Q

features of a melanoma

A

A- asymmetry
B- border irregularity
C- colour variation
D- diameter >0.5mm
E- evolution in size, shape, colour, elevation, bleeding, itchiness, crusting

113
Q

age related changes to the skin

A

decreased:
1. production of keratinocytes
2.density of sweat glands
3.number of langerhans cells
4. number of dermal collagen and elastin fibres
5. capillary loops in papillary dermis

and increased:
1. thickness and stiffness of dermal collagen fibres

114
Q

what do age related changes cause as complicatons?

A
  1. drness (fissuring/hyperkaratosis)
  2. decreased wound healing
  3. bruising
  4. risk of infection
115
Q

what are nail changes that occur due to age

A

decreased nail growth rate
increased nail plate thickness

116
Q

age related changes to peripheral vascular system

A

increased:
collagen cross linking
thickness of intima and media
stiffness of arterial walls
capillary wall thickness (reduced blood flow)

and
decreased diameter of veins

117
Q

implications of age related changes of peripheral vascular system

A

decreased skin temp
increased risk of PAD and VI

118
Q

what are the best 3 tests with the highest senistivity and specificity scores for peripheral sensory system (neuropathy)?

A
  1. achilles reflex
    2.vibration sense at the hallux (dissipation method)
  2. position of the hallux (proprioception)
119
Q

footwear assessment- 4 F’s

A

Fit
- Does the footwear adequately fit your patients foot and accommodate any deformities or
orthotics?
Function
- Is the shoe appropriate for the intended use? (ie: pt may need steel caps for warehouse work,
appropriate indoor shoes for a falls risk, running shoes for marathon running etc
- Does it function appropriately for the intended use? (ie: an inappropriate running shoe for the
patients foot or gait)
Features
- Eg: Does the shoe have appropriate fastenings for the patient? Is it made out of an appropriate
material? Does it need a rocker?
Fatigue
- eg: Has the shoe fatigued past its lifespan? Is there a wedge worn into the sole? Is the last
broken?

120
Q

review shoe fit

A
121
Q

hemiplegic gait is

A

spasicity in one leg, swing at hip and knee with leg circumduction

122
Q

diplegic gait

A

spasticity in both legs, narrow base with dragging and circumduction of legs

123
Q

neuropathic gait

A

high step, foot flop, scrapping of toes

124
Q

myopathic gait

A

side to side swing/drop of hips with each step- weakness of muscles

125
Q

choreiform gait

A

random uncontrolled twitching/jerking of the arms, trunk, legs

126
Q

ataxic gait

A

uncoordinated gait, wide base because of poor balance

127
Q

parkinsonian gait

A

shuffling, feeling of being stuck (freezing), leaning forward, sometimes no arm swing

128
Q

sensory ataxia gait

A

high stepping gait/foot slapping, unbalanced without ground contact

129
Q

what do you assess for standing posture? (3)

A

spinal malignments (lordosis, kyphosis, scoliosis, kyphoscoliosis)

joint deformities (varum, valgus, recuravatum (hyperextension), flexed knee)

muscle bulk and symmetry

130
Q

skin assessment for dermatology involves look and feel examination for (9)

A

texture
colour
temp
humidity
elasticity
hyperkeratosis
hair
dermatoses
surgical intervention

131
Q

assessment of nails involves (4)

A

shape
contour
texture
pain

132
Q

flat, localised area of colour change

A

macule- primary

133
Q

a large macule >10mm in diameter (flat, localised area of colour change)in

A

patch- primary

134
Q

elevated solid lesion, could be flat topped or dome shaped <5mm in diameter

A

papule-primary

135
Q

a larger papule >5mm (elevated solid lesion), can be fluid filled or solid in any layer of skin

A

nodule-primary

136
Q

plateau like elevated lesion, collection of papules that are >10mm in diameter and <5mm in height

A

plaque-primary

137
Q

a papule (elevated solid lesion) with clear fluid, <5mm in diameter

A

vesicle-primary

138
Q

a larger >5mm in diameter vesicle (elevated solid lesion with clear fluid)

A

bulla-primary

139
Q

a papule (elevated solid lesion with pus)

A

pustule-primary

140
Q

a nodule (large >5mm elevated solid lesion) with fluid or semi solid material, subdermal layer

A

cyst-primary

141
Q

transitory elevated lesion, oedematous (can be plaque or papule)

A

wheal-primary

142
Q

flakes of dead epidermal cells from stratum corneum

A

scale- secondary

143
Q

accumulation of serum (yellow), blood (brown/red) or purulent (white/yellow) excudate dries on the skin

A

crust-secondary

144
Q

a defect or kiss if epidermis only, superficial form of ulceration, heals without scarring

A

erosion-secondary

145
Q

a skin defect or loss of tissue extending into the dermis or deeper, always heal with scar

A

ulcer

146
Q

destruction or removal of the surface skin, caused by scratching, scraping or chemicals

A

excoriation

147
Q

thickening of the epidermis causing exaggeration of creasing

A

lichenification

148
Q

wasting of layers of the skin

A

atrophy

149
Q

fibrous tissue replacement of normal tissue

A

scar

150
Q

linear like cleavage of skin

A

fissure

151
Q

a subcutaneous spot of bleeding >10mm diameter (bruise)

A

ecchymosis

152
Q

small red or purple spot caused by bleeding into the skin

A

petechiae

153
Q

rash of purple spots caused by internal bleeding

A

purpura

154
Q

permanently dilated capillaries and venules in skin

A

telangiectasia

155
Q

superficial reddening of the skin caused by injury or irritation (dilated blood capillaries)

A

erythema

156
Q

development of patches of brown/yellow deposits as a by product of breakdown of red blood cells

A

hemosiderin deposits

157
Q

causes of hyperkeratosis

A
  1. mechanical stress- pressure, shear, friction
  2. skin disease
    psoriasis, dermatitis, fungal, etc
158
Q

difference between callous and heloma

A

callous- diffuse, even thickening of str corneum

heloma- corn, concentrated area of hyperkeratosis with deep centre

159
Q

heloma durum

A

hard corn, deep centre, painful on pressure

160
Q

heloma molle

A

soft corn, interdigitally it occurs, macerated tissue, painful on pressure

161
Q

heloma milliare

A

seed corn, shearing stress/dry skin

162
Q

heloma vasculare

A

hard corn- vascular

163
Q

heloma neurovasculare

A

hard corn- vascular and neural

164
Q

soft tissue infection at nail fold

A

paronychia

165
Q

uniform thickening of the nail plate without any gross deformity

A

onychauxis

166
Q

what footwear advice would you give someone with onychauxis/ onychogryphosis

A

deep toe box

167
Q

thickening of nail plate with deformity (typically perpendicular)

A

onychogryphosis

168
Q

transverse ridges or retardation of growth on nail plate

A

beau’s lines

169
Q

localised or diffuse hyperkeratosis in nail folds/sulcus

A

onychophosis

170
Q

footwear advice for onychoposis

A

avoid tight toe box

171
Q

growth of bone from distal phalanx beneath nail plate

A

subungal exostosis

172
Q

fungal infection of nail

A

onychomycosis

173
Q

higher curvature of nail than usual (cuts into skin folds)

A

involution

174
Q

ingrown nail, penetrating sulcus resulting in inflammation

A

onychocryptosis

175
Q

longitudinal ridging and fissuring of nail plate

A

onychorrhexis

176
Q

spooned nails

A

koilonychia

177
Q

separation of nail plate from nail bed

A

onycholysis

178
Q

white, opaque discolouration of nail plate

A

leukonychia

179
Q

shedding of nail at proximal end

A

onychomadesis

180
Q

split in nail plate, looks like christmas tree

A

canalifomis

181
Q

abnormal colour of nail plate

A

chromonychia

182
Q

increased convexity of nail fold

A

clubbed nails

183
Q

shortening of nail length

A

brachyonychia

184
Q

veruccae pedis

A

HPV infection causing benign tumour

affect stratum spinosum
begins as spongy papule
covered in callous often and oainful
lateral pressure more painful

185
Q

difference between verruca and heloma

A

V-
protrusion from skin
paring down produces dark punctate spots of thrombosed capillaries
skin lines deviate around lesion
infection from HPV
painful on lateral pressure

H-
cone shaped
paring down produces decreasing cone of hyperkeratosis
skin lines pass through lesion
shear/friction
painful on direct pressure
par

186
Q

4 diagnostic features of verucca pedis

A

capillary spots and bleeding
interuption of skin striations
pain on lateral pressure
cauliflower appearance

187
Q

5 classifications of OM

A
  1. Distal or lateral subungual onychomycosis
    (DLSO)
  2. Proximal subungual onychomycosis (PSO)
  3. Superficial white onychomycosis (SWO)
  4. Total dystrophic onychomycosis (TDO)
  5. Candidal (CO)
188
Q

the ideal shoe

A

ØLaces have at least 3 eyelets
ØLow, wide heel
ØWidth for toes
ØDeep toe box (reinforced)
ØHeel stiffener/counter
ØCurved back for close fit at heel
ØShaped topline - deep enough to secure
instep
ØLeather upper
ØHard wearing synthetic sole
ØGood fit and condition

CSB521 - PM1 (10 decks)

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