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Pharmacology > Winter Pharm quiz #1 > Flashcards

Winter Pharm quiz #1 Flashcards

0
Q

What are the 2 primary receptors upon which antipsychotic drugs act?

A

Antagonist effects on:
5HT2a (serotonin)
D2 (dopamine)

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1
Q

What are the two main neurotransmitters thought to be involved in psychotic behavior?!

A

Dopamine

Serotonin

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2
Q

What are the four disorders referred to as extrapyramidal symptoms?

A
  • Dystonic reactions - muscle spasms, twitching, facial grimacing
  • Akathisia - continuous restless body movement
  • Parkinsonism - muscular rigidity, tremors
  • Tardive dyskinesia -involuntary movements of the lips, jaw, tongue, and extremities.
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3
Q

What are some common side effects of antipsychotic drugs?

A

Anticholinergic

Alpha-adrenergic blocking

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4
Q

What is the difference between reactive depression and major depressive disorder?

A

Reactive (also called exogenous) is caused by external factors (loss of job, unemployment)

MDD originates from within and is more serious. Requires psychotherapy and drug treatment.

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5
Q

What are the two neurotransmitters thought to be involved in depression?

A

Serotonin

Norepinephrine

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6
Q

Define “Monoamine”

A

Pertaining to serotonin and norepinephrine

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7
Q

What does MAOI stand for?

A

Monoamine oxidase inhibitor

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8
Q

What is the substance contained in many foods that can cause problems for anyone on MAO inhibitors?

A

Tyramine (found in wine, beer, herring, some cheeses, and other foods)

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9
Q

What is the term used for seizures without cessation?

A

Status epilipticus

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10
Q

What is the name given to the time required to take a patient from consciousness to the point when surgery can be preformed?

A

Induction of General Anesthesia

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11
Q

What is the name given to the ability to keep a patient safely at the anesthetic level so that surgery can be performed?

A

Maintenance of general anesthesia

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12
Q

Define anesthesia

A

The absence of all sensation

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13
Q

Give 2 examples of anesthesia drugs administered via inhalation

A 
Holothane (maintenance)
Nitrous Oxide (induction)
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14
Q

Give 2 examples of anesthesia drugs administered via injection

A

Etomidate (induction)

Propofol (induction and maintenance)

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15
Q

What is the chief inhibitory transmitter in the CNS?

A

GABA

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16
Q

What is the chief excitatory neurotransmitter in the CNS?

A

Glutamate

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17
Q

Define epilepsy

A

A condition characterized by a tendency for recurrent (more than 2) unprovoked seizures.

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18
Q

Define status epilipticus

A

Recurrent or continuous seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes in which the patient does not regain baseline mental status

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19
Q

What are the 2 classifications of seizures?

A

Partial (focal, local)

Generalized

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20
Q

What are the 2 types og generalized seizures?

A

Tonic-clonic (grand mal)

Absence

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21
Q

List the 4 basic mechanisms by which anti-epileptic drugs work.

A

Suppression of sodium influx
Suppression of calcium influx
Antagonism of glutamate
Potentiation of GABA

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22
Q

List 4 traditional AED’s (anti-epileptic drugs)

A

Phenytoin (Dilantin)
Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
Valproic acid (Depakote, Depakene)
Phenobarbital (barbituate)

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23
Q

Fast potentials occur in which part of the heart?

A

Cardiac muscle cells as well as the ventricular conduction system.

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24
Q

Slow potentials occur in which part of the heart?

A

SA & AV nodes

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25
Q

What is the most important ion influx in phase 0 in fast potentials?

A

Sodium

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26
Q

What is the most important ion influx in phase 0 in slow potentials?

A

Calcium

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27
Q

Reentrant pathways can lead to what type of dysrhythmias?

A

Tachydysrhytmias

28
Q

What ion channel do class I anti-dysrhythmics block?

A

Sodium

29
Q

Name a class I sodium channel blocker in our profiles.

A

Lidocaine

30
Q

What are class 2 drugs?

A

Beta blockers - sympatholytic

31
Q

Name a class 3 drug in our profiles. What ion channel is being blocked?

A

Amiodarone. Potassium.

32
Q

List 3 newer AED’s

A

Oxycarbamazepine (Trileptal)
Lamotrigine (Lamictal)
Gabapentin (Neurontin)

33
Q

What is Flumazenil? (Romazicon)

A

It is a benzodiazepine antagonist - controversial due to its potential to develop status epilipticus.

34
Q

What are the 2 principle therapeutic indications for CNS stimulant drugs?

A
  1. ADHD

2. Narcolepsy

35
Q

List the 3 pharmacological classes of CS stimulants

A
  1. Amphetamines
  2. Methylphenidates
  3. Methylxanthines
36
Q

What is the mechanism of action of amphetamines?

A
  1. Promotes the release of norepinephrine and dopamine

2. Inhibits reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine

37
Q

List 2 examples of amphetamine

A

Dextroamphetamine (Dexadrine)

Methamphetamine (Desoxyn)

38
Q

What are the most commonly prescribed drugs for treating ADHD?

A

Amphetamines

Methylphenidate

39
Q

What is the trade name of methylphenidate?

A

Ritalin

40
Q

What is the MOA of methylphenidate (Ritalin)

A

Makes Dopamine and norepinephrine more available throughout the CNS

41
Q

What are methylxanthines?

A

A CNS stimulant thought to block adenosine receptors.

42
Q

List 2 methylxanthine drugs

A

Caffeine

Theophylline

43
Q

What is the MOA of cocaine?

A

Nihilist reuptake of NE & serotonin

44
Q

What is the DSM?

A

Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders

45
Q

Name the 3 neurotransmitters most involved in mental disorders (and treatment of mental disorders)

A

Norepinephrine
Dopamine
Serotonin

46
Q

List the 3 main diseases treated with psychotherapeutic medications.

A

Schizophrenia
Bipolar
Depression

47
Q

Describe acute Dystonia (Dystonic reaction)

A

Spasm of tongue, face, neck, or back.upward deviation of eyes.

48
Q

What drugs, in the paramedic toolbox, can cause Dystonia or Akathisia? What drug is used to reverse it?

A

Droperidol (inapsine)
Haloperidol (Haldol)
Promethazine (phenergan)

Treat with diphenhydramine or benzos)

49
Q

What common drug (general treatment) can cause Dystonic reactions?

A

Antiemetics

50
Q

Name 2 adverse effects of atypical antipsychotic drugs

A

Weight gain

Diabetes

51
Q

List 4 atypical antipsychotic meds

A

Risperidone (risperdal)
Olanzapine (Zyprexa)
Zipasidone (Geodon)
Ariprazole (Abilify)

52
Q

What are the 3 classes of antidepressant drugs?

A

Monamine oxidase inhibitors
Reuptake inhibitors
Atypical antidepressants

53
Q

What is the MOA of tyramine?

A

Promotes the release of norepinephrine from sympathetic neurons causing a sympathetic response. Can cause dangerous hypertension if a person is taking MAOI’s as this inhibits the reuptake of norepinephrine.

54
Q

List the 3 kinds of anti depression reuptake inhibitors

A

TCA’s (Tricyclic antidepressants)
SSRI’s (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor)
SNRI (serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor)

55
Q

How do TCA’s work?

A

Block reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin

Block receptors for histamine, acetylcholine, and alpha-1

56
Q

Name an example of a TCA

A

Amitryptyline (Elavil)

57
Q

Name 2 examples of SSRI’s

A

Paroxetine (Paxil)

Fluoxetine (Prozac)

58
Q

Name 2 examples of SNRI’s

A

Venlafaxine (Effexor)

Duloxetine (Cymbalta)

59
Q

Name an atypical antidepressant

A

Buproprion (Wellbutrin)

60
Q

Name 3 principal mood stabilizers used for treating Bi-polar

A

lithium (Eskalith)
valproic acid (Depakote)
carbamazepine (Tegretol)

61
Q

Name a class 4 drug in our profiles. What ion channel is being blocked?

A

Diltiazem. Calcium.

62
Q

List the 4 phases of fast potentials along with the primary ion movement associated with each phase.

A

Phase 0: rapid influx of sodium (Na+)
Phase 1: brief, rapid extrusion of potassium (K+)
Phase 2: prolonged stable plateau with slow calcium (Ca+2) promoting atrial & ventricular contraction.
Phase 3: rapid repolarization caused by rapid extrusion of K+ - this is also the absolute refractory period.
Phase 4: cells are stable waiting for action potential

63
Q

List the phases and corresponding ion movement during slow potentials.

A

Phase 0: depolarization due to slow calcium influx
Phase 1,2,3: non-existent
Phase 4: slow calcium influx preparing for phase 0 depolarization

64
Q

Name 2 misc. class anti dysrhythmic drugs

A
  1. Adenosine

2. Magnesium

65
Q

Name 1 antidysrhythmic drug in each of the following classes:
1a
1b
1c

A

1a: quinidine - moderate Na+ channel blocker
1b: lidocaine - weak Na+ channel blocker - no long term use
1c: flecainide - strong Na+ channel blocker

66
Q

Name a beta blocker approved for antidysrhythmic use

A

Propranolol

67
Q

Name 2 calcium channel blockers that have antidysrhythmic effects

A

Diltiazem

Verapamil

Pharmacology (7 decks)

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