White blood cells Flashcards

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1
Q

what is a left shift

A

> 5% increase in percent of immature precursors (usually bands)

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2
Q

what is a leukemoid reaction

A

release of immature granulocytes into circulation, often associated with bacterial infections WBC can be very high > 50 associated with increased leukocyte alkaline phosphatase (absent in leukemia)

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3
Q

cause of x-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

mutation in bruton’s tyrosine kinase (BTK) gene (expressed in all stages of B cell development) - also important for myeloid maturation (assoc with neutropenia)

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4
Q

defect in hyper IgM syndrome?

A

defective class switching - increased serum IgM with deficiency of IgG, IgA, IgE - most commonly due to mutations in CD40 ligand

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5
Q

what infections do neutropenic patients get?

A

infections with enteric / endogenous bacteria (staph from skin, gram negatives from gut and urinary tract), fungal infections (candida)

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6
Q

genetics of kostmann syndrome

A

HAX1 mutation, autosomal recessive

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7
Q

most common mutation causing SCN

A

ELANE (AD)

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8
Q

x-linked cause of severe neutropenia

A

wiskott-aldrich

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9
Q

triad of shwachman-diamond syndrome

A

neutropenia metaphyseal dysplasia pancreatic insufficiency

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10
Q

what is WHIM syndrome

A

warts hypogammaglobulinemia infections myelokathexis

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11
Q

what causes WHIM syndrome

A

mutation in CXCR4 chemokine receptor - abnormal apoptosis / migration, retention of neutrophils in bone marrow

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12
Q

genetics of cartilage - hair - hypoplasia?

A

RMRP gene mutation AR inheritance

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13
Q

what is the risk in patients with cartilage-hair-hypoplasia

A

immunodeficiency (severe combined), heme malignancy (NHL most common)

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14
Q

what is barth syndrome

A

x-linked disorder associated with dilated cardiomyopathy, short stature, neutropenia

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15
Q

most common translocation seen in hypereosinophilia syndrome?

A

Fip1-like1 (FIP1L1) and platelet derived growth factor receptor alpha (PDGFRA) - results in constitutive TK activity

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16
Q

end organs affected by hypereosinophilia

A

skin lungs liver cardiac brain

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17
Q

treatment of hypereosinophilia syndrome with FIP1L1-PDGFRA mutation?

A

imatinib

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18
Q

treatment of unwell patient with hypereosinophilia?

A

high dose steroids must rule out strongyloides infection first

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19
Q

what types of infections do patients with CGD get?

A

catalase-positive (bacterial, fungal) frequently: pneumonia, abscesses, suppurative adenitis, osteo, bacteremia/fungemia

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20
Q

pathogenesis of CGD?

A

mutation in a subunit of NADPH oxidase resulting in defective oxidative burst and phagocytosis

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21
Q

five most common organisms that infect patients with CGD

A

aspergillus staph aureus burkholderia serratia nocardia

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22
Q

management of CGD?

A

antibiotic (Septra) and antifungal (itraconazole) prophylaxis interferon-gamma 3x/week as prophy if hx of severe, recurrent infections

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23
Q

gene in cyclic neutropenia

A

ELANE (ELA2), AD

24
Q

gene in SDS

A

SBDS (AR inheritance)

25
Q

gene in reticular dysgenesis

A

AK2

26
Q

gene in cartilage hair hypoplasia

A

RMRP (AR)

27
Q

gene in WHIM syndrome

A

CXCR4

28
Q

what is barth syndrome

A

x-linked disorder - dilated cardiomyopathy, neutropenia, short stature

29
Q

what is the gene affected in agammaglobulinemia

A

bruton’s tyrosine kinase (failure of b-cell development, also neutropenia)

30
Q

gene in hyper IgM

A

CD40L defective class switching sinopulmonary infections, PJP (40%)

31
Q

gene in kostmann’s

A

HAX1

32
Q

gene in SCN

A

ELANE

33
Q

Gene in chediak-higashi

A

CHS1/LYST failure of lysosomal transport

34
Q

Gene in emberger / monomac

A

GATA2

35
Q

gene in hyper IgE

A

STAT3, AD

36
Q

what is a heterophile antibody

A

reacts to antigen from an unrelated species ie. the antibodies produced during an EBV infection react with horse RBCs (cause agglutination)

37
Q

What is the EBNA?

A

EBV nuclear antigen - only expressed from latent virus - appears at 6-12 weeks after infection

38
Q

which antibody could be present early in an EBV infection

A

early antigen (EA) IgG

39
Q

What antibodies persist for life after an EBV infection?

A

IgG to the viral capsid antigen

40
Q

Describe neutrophil production

A

myeloblast promyelocyte myelocyte metamyelocyte band PMNs (segmented neutrophil) - myeloblast to PMN progression takes 8 days

41
Q

what is this cell

A

Peripheral blood smear showing a normal human promyelocyte. Promyelocytes are larger than myeloblasts and myelocytes (>20 micron). The nucleus and nuclear chromatin and nucleoli resemble myeloblasts but the cardinal feature is the presence of many violet granules in the cytoplasm with either a dense or coarse pattern often obscuring other cell landmarks.

42
Q

name the cell

A

Peripheral blood smear shows a normal human myelocyte. As the myelocyte divides and matures, the nucleus becomes smaller and irregularly round, nuclear chromatin becomes coarse and clumped, and nucleoli are sparse to absent. The nuclear to cytoplasmic ratio is reduced compared to promyelocytes. Specific granules are difficult to see on light microscopy.

43
Q

name the cell

A

Peripheral blood smear shows a normal human metamyelocyte. The cytoplasm resembles the mature neutrophil and band forms; granules are small, fine blue-black or grey, and dispersed homogeneously throughout the cytoplasm. The nucleus is indented like a bean and the nuclear chromatin is coarse, clumped, and condensed peripherally.

44
Q

name the cell

A

Peripheral blood smear shows a normal human band form. The nucleus is nonsegmented and elongated resembling a horseshoe shape; there are no nuclear lobulations but a constriction is visible. The nuclear chromatin is aggregated into evenly arranged clumps. The cytoplasm is like the mature neutrophil with pink staining and fine azure bluish granules.

fully functional phagocytic cell

45
Q

name the cell

A

Peripheral blood smear shows a normal polymorphonuclear neutrophil (PMN). The nucleus is segmented into four lobes connected by thin chromatin strands. The cytoplasm is pink with fine, azure bluish granules. The predominant specific secondary granules are finely dispersed and stains the cytoplasm faintly pink.

46
Q

which common beta-2 subunit is often found in integrin receptors, and important for neutrophil margination / migration?

A

CD18

47
Q

auto-antibodies to GM-CSF results in what?

A

pulmonary alveolar proteinosis (progressive accumulation of surfactant lipids and proteins in alveolar space - type II pneumocytes are unable to clear this in the absence of GM-CSF)

48
Q

important parts of a physical exam in a patient with neutropenia

A
  • Growth parameters
  • Inspect for dysmorphic features (associated with immune deficiency syndromes, bone marrow failure syndromes), hair, nails
  • Oral mucosa (inspect for ulcerations, gingivitis, abscess)
  • Respiratory exam for opportunistic infections (PCP)
  • Lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly
49
Q

mechanism of G-CSF action

A

G-CSF administration leads to a reduction in SDF-1 expression as well as CXCR4 cleavage, resulting in egress of neutrophils from bone marrow

50
Q

starting G-CSF dose

A

5 mcg/kg/day

51
Q

what medications are associated with neutropenia? what is the mechanism?

A

immune: penicillins, cephalosporins

toxic to cells: phenothiazine (anti-psychotic)

hypersensitivity: dilantin, phenobarbitol

52
Q

infections associated with causing neutropenia

A

RSV, varicella, influenza A/B, measles, rubella

due to increased expression of adhesion molecules (ICAM1/2) and increased margination, migration of neutrophils to site of infection (decreased production may contribute slightly)

53
Q

indications for G-CSF

A

severe, recurrent infections in patient with autoimmune neutropenia

in patient with promyelocyte arrest (limited bone marrow neutrophil pool to mobilize) - ie) cyclic neutropenia, SCN

54
Q

long term side effects of G-CSF?

A

osteoporosis

splenomegaly

possible increased risk of malignancy

55
Q

gene in leukocyte adhesion defect?

A

LAD 1 (CD18)

56
Q

blood tests that are often abnormal / elevated in the presence of a FIP1L1-PDGFRa translocation causing HES?

A

vit b 12

tryptase