White Blood Cells Flashcards
1
Q
What is the primary function of white blood cells?
A
To protect the body against infections and foreign invaders.
2
Q
True or False: White blood cells are also known as leukocytes.
A
True
3
Q
Fill in the blank: The two main types of white blood cells are ______ and ______.
A
granulocytes, agranulocytes
4
Q
Which type of white blood cell is primarily responsible for producing antibodies?
A
B lymphocytes (B cells)
5
Q
What is the role of T lymphocytes (T cells) in the immune response?
A
To directly kill infected cells and coordinate the immune response.
6
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of granulocyte? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Monocytes D) Basophils
A
C) Monocytes
7
Q
What is the normal range of white blood cells in a healthy adult’s blood?
A
4,000 to 11,000 cells per microliter.
8
Q
True or False: White blood cells can be found in tissues as well as in the bloodstream.
A
True
9
Q
What is the primary function of neutrophils?
A
To engulf and destroy bacteria and fungi.
10
Q
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell is involved in allergic reactions? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Monocytes
A
C) Basophils
11
Q
Fill in the blank: The process by which white blood cells leave the bloodstream to reach tissues is called ______.
A
diapedesis
12
Q
What is the lifespan of a typical white blood cell?
A
Days to years, depending on the type of cell.
13
Q
True or False: Lymphocytes are a type of agranulocyte.
A
True
14
Q
What is the role of macrophages in the immune system?
A
To ingest and digest pathogens and dead cells.
15
Q
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell is elevated during parasitic infections? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Basophils D) Lymphocytes
A
B) Eosinophils
16
Q
What is leukopenia?
A
A condition characterized by a low white blood cell count.
17
Q
True or False: White blood cells can divide and replicate.
A
True
18
Q
Fill in the blank: The primary site of white blood cell production is the ______.
A
bone marrow
19
Q
What type of immunity do B cells provide?
A
Humoral immunity.
20
Q
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell is typically the first responder to an infection? A) Eosinophils B) Neutrophils C) Lymphocytes D) Basophils
A
B) Neutrophils
21
Q
What is the role of dendritic cells in the immune system?
A
To present antigens to T cells and activate them.
22
Q
True or False: Basophils release histamine during an allergic reaction.
A
True
23
Q
Fill in the blank: The white blood cell count is typically measured in ______ per microliter of blood.
A
cells
24
Q
What is the function of natural killer (NK) cells?
A
To attack and destroy virus-infected cells and tumor cells.
25
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell is primarily involved in cell-mediated immunity? A) B cells B) T cells C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes
B) T cells
26
What is leukocytosis?
A condition characterized by an elevated white blood cell count.
27
True or False: Monocytes can differentiate into macrophages.
True
28
Fill in the blank: The immune response can be categorized into ______ and ______ immunity.
innate, adaptive
29
What are cytokines?
Signaling molecules that mediate and regulate immunity and inflammation.
30
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell has a role in the allergic response and asthma? A) B cells B) Eosinophils C) Neutrophils D) T cells
B) Eosinophils
31
What is the function of memory T cells?
To provide long-term immunity by remembering past infections.
32
True or False: White blood cells originate from stem cells in the liver.
False
33
Fill in the blank: The ______ is responsible for filtering blood and producing lymphocytes.
spleen
34
What are the primary components of the immune system?
White blood cells, antibodies, and complement proteins.
35
Multiple Choice: Which type of cell is responsible for antibody production? A) T cells B) B cells C) Neutrophils D) Monocytes
B) B cells
36
What is the role of helper T cells?
To assist other white blood cells in the immune response.
37
True or False: All white blood cells have the ability to phagocytize pathogens.
False
38
Fill in the blank: The presence of white blood cells in the body is an indicator of ______.
infection or inflammation
39
What type of white blood cell is primarily involved in chronic inflammation?
Macrophages
40
Multiple Choice: Which white blood cell type is responsible for the body's response to viral infections? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) T cells D) Basophils
C) T cells
41
What is the function of suppressor T cells?
To regulate and suppress the immune response.
42
True or False: White blood cells are produced in the lymph nodes.
False
43
Fill in the blank: The white blood cell count is an important diagnostic tool for assessing ______.
health status or disease
44
What is the primary function of white blood cells?
The primary function of white blood cells is to protect the body against infections and foreign invaders.
45
True or False: White blood cells can be classified into two main categories: granulocytes and agranulocytes.
True
46
Fill in the blank: The most common stain used for identifying white blood cells is __________ stain.
Wright's
47
What are the two primary types of granulocytes?
Neutrophils and eosinophils.
48
Which type of white blood cell is primarily involved in allergic reactions?
Eosinophils.
49
What color do neutrophils typically stain with Wright's stain?
Pink to lilac.
50
Multiple Choice: Which stain is known for providing a clear differentiation between various types of white blood cells? A) Giemsa B) Hematoxylin C) Wright's D) All of the above
D) All of the above
51
What is the role of lymphocytes in the immune system?
Lymphocytes play a crucial role in the adaptive immune response, including the production of antibodies.
52
True or False: Monocytes are the largest type of white blood cell.
True
53
What do basophils release during allergic reactions?
Histamine.
54
Fill in the blank: __________ is a stain that highlights nuclear detail in white blood cells.
Hematoxylin
55
Which white blood cell type is primarily responsible for phagocytosis?
Neutrophils.
56
Multiple Choice: What color do eosinophils typically stain with Wright's stain? A) Blue B) Green C) Red D) Yellow
C) Red
57
What is the significance of using differential staining techniques for white blood cells?
Differential staining techniques allow for the identification and counting of different types of white blood cells.
58
True or False: Lymphocytes can be further divided into B cells and T cells.
True
59
What is the main characteristic of agranulocytes?
Agranulocytes lack visible granules in their cytoplasm.
60
Fill in the blank: The __________ stain can be used to visualize reticulocytes.
New Methylene Blue
61
What type of white blood cell is involved in the response to viral infections?
Lymphocytes.
62
Multiple Choice: Which type of white blood cell is the first responder to sites of infection? A) Eosinophils B) Neutrophils C) Lymphocytes D) Monocytes
B) Neutrophils
63
What type of stain is typically used for bone marrow aspirate samples?
Giemsa stain.
64
True or False: The presence of immature white blood cells in blood can indicate a disease process.
True
65
What do the granules in basophils contain?
Histamine and heparin.
66
Fill in the blank: _______________ is a method used to count white blood cells in a sample.
Hemocytometer
67
Multiple Choice: Which white blood cell type has a lifespan measured in days to weeks? A) Neutrophils B) Lymphocytes C) Monocytes D) Basophils
A) Neutrophils
68
What is the role of monocytes once they migrate into tissues?
Monocytes differentiate into macrophages and dendritic cells, which are essential for phagocytosis and antigen presentation.
69
True or False: Staining techniques can affect the accuracy of white blood cell counts.
True
70
What are granulocytes?
Granulocytes are a type of white blood cell characterized by the presence of granules in their cytoplasm.
71
Name the three main types of granulocytes.
The three main types of granulocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
72
True or False: Granulocytes are produced in the bone marrow.
True
73
What is the primary function of neutrophils?
The primary function of neutrophils is to respond to and fight infections, particularly bacterial infections.
74
Fill in the blank: Eosinophils are primarily involved in _____ responses.
allergic
75
What role do basophils play in the immune system?
Basophils play a role in inflammatory reactions and allergic responses by releasing histamine.
76
Which granulocyte is the most abundant in the bloodstream?
Neutrophils are the most abundant granulocytes in the bloodstream.
77
Multiple choice: What is the lifespan of a neutrophil in circulation? (a) Hours (b) Days (c) Weeks
a) Hours
78
What is the process of granulocyte development called?
The process of granulocyte development is called granulopoiesis.
79
True or False: Granulocyte development begins with hematopoietic stem cells.
True
80
Fill in the blank: Granulocytes are derived from _____ lineage.
myeloid
81
What is the role of colony-stimulating factors in granulocyte development?
Colony-stimulating factors stimulate the production and differentiation of granulocytes from stem cells.
82
Short answer: What is the main characteristic that distinguishes granulocytes from agranulocytes?
Granulocytes have visible granules in their cytoplasm, while agranulocytes do not.
83
Multiple choice: Which granulocyte is associated with parasitic infections? (a) Neutrophils (b) Eosinophils (c) Basophils
b) Eosinophils
84
What are the stages of granulocyte maturation?
The stages of granulocyte maturation include myeloblast, promyelocyte, myelocyte, metamyelocyte, and mature granulocyte.
85
True or False: Granulocytes can be classified based on the type of granules they contain.
True
86
Fill in the blank: The primary granules of neutrophils contain _____ enzymes.
digestive
87
What is the function of the secondary granules in neutrophils?
The secondary granules contain proteins that help in the immune response and inflammation.
88
Multiple choice: Which type of granulocyte is least abundant in normal blood? (a) Neutrophils (b) Eosinophils (c) Basophils
c) Basophils
89
Short answer: What triggers the release of granulocytes from the bone marrow into the bloodstream?
Infection or inflammation triggers the release of granulocytes from the bone marrow.
90
What happens to granulocytes after they have completed their function?
After completing their function, granulocytes undergo apoptosis and are removed by macrophages.
91
True or False: Granulocyte levels can be affected by stress and infection.
True
92
Fill in the blank: The maturation of granulocytes takes place in the _____ and the _____ of the bone marrow.
myeloid compartment, erythroid compartment
93
What is the significance of the band cell stage in neutrophil development?
The band cell stage indicates a young neutrophil that is still maturing and is an important marker in diagnosing infections.
94
Multiple choice: Which granulocyte is known for its role in histamine release? (a) Neutrophils (b) Eosinophils (c) Basophils
c) Basophils
95
Short answer: How does granulocyte production change during an infection?
Granulocyte production increases significantly during an infection to enhance the immune response.
96
What is Pelger-Huët anomaly?
Pelger-Huët anomaly is a genetic condition characterized by abnormal nuclear shapes in neutrophils and other white blood cells.
97
True or False: Pelger-Huët anomaly is typically associated with an increased risk of infections.
False: Individuals with Pelger-Huët anomaly usually have normal immune function despite the morphological changes.
98
Fill in the blank: Pelger-Huët anomaly is inherited in a _____ manner.
autosomal dominant
99
Which of the following is a common feature observed in neutrophils of individuals with Pelger-Huët anomaly? (A) Multiple nuclei (B) Bi-lobed nuclei (C) Hypersegmented nuclei
B) Bi-lobed nuclei
100
What type of blood cell is primarily affected by Pelger-Huët anomaly?
Neutrophils
101
What is May-Hegglin anomaly?
A rare genetic disorder characterized by thrombocytopenia and the presence of large platelets.
102
True or False: May-Hegglin anomaly is an autosomal dominant condition.
True
103
Fill in the blank: Individuals with May-Hegglin anomaly often have __________ leukocytes.
abnormal
104
What are the primary clinical features of May-Hegglin anomaly?
Thrombocytopenia, large platelets, and abnormal leukocyte morphology.
105
Which cells are primarily affected in May-Hegglin anomaly?
Platelets and leukocytes.
106
What genetic mutation is commonly associated with May-Hegglin anomaly?
Mutations in the MYH9 gene.
107
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of May-Hegglin anomaly? A) Easy bruising B) Hearing loss C) Frequent infections
C) Frequent infections
108
What is the inheritance pattern of May-Hegglin anomaly?
Autosomal dominant inheritance.
109
True or False: May-Hegglin anomaly can lead to significant bleeding complications.
True
110
What is the role of the MYH9 gene in May-Hegglin anomaly?
It encodes a non-muscle myosin heavy chain that is important for platelet function.
111
Fill in the blank: May-Hegglin anomaly is classified as a __________ disorder.
hematological
112
What is the typical platelet count in individuals with May-Hegglin anomaly?
Typically less than 150,000 platelets per microliter of blood.
113
Short answer: How is May-Hegglin anomaly diagnosed?
Through blood tests showing thrombocytopenia and the presence of large platelets, along with genetic testing.
114
True or False: May-Hegglin anomaly is always symptomatic.
False
115
What is a common laboratory finding in May-Hegglin anomaly?
Giant platelets observed on a blood smear.
116
Multiple choice: Which of the following conditions is May-Hegglin anomaly most similar to? A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome B) Glanzmann thrombasthenia C) Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
A) Bernard-Soulier syndrome
117
Short answer: What is the typical treatment for May-Hegglin anomaly?
Treatment usually involves monitoring and managing bleeding risks; platelet transfusions may be necessary in severe cases.
118
Fill in the blank: Patients with May-Hegglin anomaly may also have __________ cataracts.
congenital
119
What is the prevalence of May-Hegglin anomaly?
It is considered a rare disorder, with a prevalence of less than 1 in 1 million.
120
True or False: May-Hegglin anomaly can sometimes be mistaken for other platelet disorders.
True
121
What is a potential complication of May-Hegglin anomaly?
Severe bleeding episodes.
122
Multiple choice: Which of the following is a characteristic finding in May-Hegglin anomaly? A) Microcytic anemia B) Macrocytic anemia C) Giant platelets
C) Giant platelets
123
Short answer: What type of blood smear finding is typical in patients with May-Hegglin anomaly?
Presence of large platelets and Döhle bodies in leukocytes.
124
What is the relationship between May-Hegglin anomaly and nephritis?
Patients may have an increased risk of nephritis due to MYH9 gene mutations.
125
What is Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
Chediak-Higashi syndrome is a rare, inherited immunodeficiency disorder characterized by immunological defects, partial oculocutaneous albinism, and neurological problems.
126
True or False: Chediak-Higashi syndrome is caused by mutations in the LYST gene.
True
127
Fill in the blank: Patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome often exhibit __________, which refers to a reduction in the pigmentation of the skin and hair.
partial oculocutaneous albinism
128
Which of the following complications is commonly associated with Chediak-Higashi syndrome? a) Diabetes b) Hemophilia c) Increased susceptibility to infections d) Asthma
c) Increased susceptibility to infections
129
What is a significant hematological finding in patients with Chediak-Higashi syndrome?
The presence of enlarged cytoplasmic granules in white blood cells.
130
What is Alder Reilly?
Alder Reilly is a genetic disorder characterized by the abnormal accumulation of mucopolysaccharides in the body.
131
True or False: Alder Reilly is an autosomal dominant condition.
False
132
Fill in the blank: Alder Reilly is often associated with disorders such as _____ and _____ syndrome.
Hurler, Hunter
133
What are the primary symptoms of Alder Reilly?
Symptoms include skeletal abnormalities, developmental delays, and organ dysfunction.
134
Which type of cells are primarily affected in Alder Reilly?
Macrophages
135
What is Chronic Granulomatous Disease (CGD)?
A genetic disorder that affects the immune system, impairing the body's ability to fight off certain infections.
136
True or False: Chronic Granulomatous Disease is caused by a deficiency in the NADPH oxidase enzyme.
True
137
Fill in the blank: Patients with Chronic Granulomatous Disease are particularly susceptible to infections from _______.
catalase-positive organisms
138
Which of the following is a common symptom of Chronic Granulomatous Disease? A) Frequent colds B) Skin abscesses C) High fever
B) Skin abscesses
139
What is the primary method used to diagnose Chronic Granulomatous Disease?
The nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) test or dihydrorhodamine (DHR) flow cytometry.
140
What is toxic granulation?
Toxic granulation is the presence of large, dark granules in neutrophils, indicating an inflammatory response.
141
True or False: Toxic granulation is typically associated with bacterial infections.
True
142
Fill in the blank: Toxic granulation is often observed in conditions such as __________ and __________.
sepsis, severe infections
143
Which type of white blood cell is primarily involved in toxic granulation?
Neutrophils
144
Multiple Choice: Toxic granulation can be a response to which of the following? A) Viral infections B) Allergic reactions C) Bacterial infections D) All of the above
C) Bacterial infections
145
What are smudge cells?
Smudge cells are degenerated white blood cells typically seen in certain blood disorders.
146
True or False: Smudge cells are indicative of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL).
True
147
Fill in the blank: Smudge cells are often associated with ________ due to their fragile nature.
lymphoproliferative disorders
148
Which type of blood cell do smudge cells originate from?
Lymphocytes
149
Multiple Choice: In which condition are smudge cells most commonly found? A) Acute myeloid leukemia B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia C) Iron deficiency anemia
B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
150
What are Auer bodies?
Auer bodies are cytoplasmic inclusions found in myeloid cells, typically associated with acute myeloid leukemia.
151
True or False: Auer bodies can be seen in lymphoid leukemias.
False
152
Fill in the blank: Auer bodies are primarily composed of __________.
fused granules of myeloid cells
153
In which type of leukemia are Auer bodies most commonly found?
Acute myeloid leukemia (AML)
154
Multiple choice: Which of the following statements about Auer bodies is true? A) They are a type of virus B) They are associated with myeloid lineage C) They are found in normal blood cells
B) They are associated with myeloid lineage
155
What is white blood cell hypersegmentation?
It is a condition characterized by an increased number of lobes in the nuclei of neutrophils.
156
True or False: White blood cell hypersegmentation is commonly associated with megaloblastic anemia.
True
157
Fill in the blank: Hypersegmentation of neutrophils typically occurs when there is a deficiency of ________ or ________.
folate or vitamin B12
158
Which type of white blood cell is primarily affected by hypersegmentation?
Neutrophils
159
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions can lead to white blood cell hypersegmentation? A) Iron deficiency anemia B) Megaloblastic anemia C) Acute infection D) Dehydration
B) Megaloblastic anemia
160
What is a left shift in the context of white blood cells?
A left shift refers to an increased number of immature white blood cells, particularly neutrophils, in the bloodstream.
161
True or False: A left shift indicates a response to infection or inflammation.
True
162
Fill in the blank: A left shift is commonly associated with ________ conditions.
acute infections
163
What type of white blood cell is primarily involved in a left shift?
Neutrophils
164
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions is NOT typically associated with a left shift? A) Bacterial infection B) Viral infection C) Allergic reaction D) Bone marrow disorders
C) Allergic reaction
165
What is the clinical significance of detecting a left shift?
It helps in diagnosing the presence of an acute inflammatory response or infection.
166
Short Answer: What are the immature forms of neutrophils called?
Band cells or stab cells
167
True or False: A left shift can indicate chronic inflammation.
False
168
What laboratory test is commonly used to identify a left shift?
Complete blood count (CBC) with differential
169
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a sign of a left shift? A) Decreased lymphocyte count B) Increased band neutrophil count C) Normal white blood cell count D) Decreased monocyte count
B) Increased band neutrophil count
170
What is eosinophilia?
Eosinophilia is a condition characterized by an elevated level of eosinophils in the blood.
171
True or False: Eosinophils are a type of white blood cell involved in allergic reactions and fighting parasitic infections.
True
172
Fill in the blank: Eosinophilia is typically defined as having more than ______ eosinophils per microliter of blood.
500
173
Which of the following can be a cause of eosinophilia? (a) Allergic reactions (b) Viral infections (c) Bacterial infections
a) Allergic reactions
174
What is the primary role of eosinophils in the immune system?
The primary role of eosinophils is to combat parasitic infections and mediate allergic inflammatory responses.
175
What is basophilia?
Basophilia is an increase in the number of basophils in the blood.
176
True or False: Basophils are a type of white blood cell involved in inflammatory responses.
True
177
Fill in the blank: Basophilia is often associated with _____ and allergic reactions.
allergies
178
Which of the following conditions can lead to basophilia? A) Chronic myeloid leukemia B) Hypertension C) Diabetes
A) Chronic myeloid leukemia
179
What is the normal range of basophils in a healthy adult?
Typically 0.5% to 1% of total white blood cells.
180
What is lymphocytosis?
An increase in the number of lymphocytes in the blood.
181
True or False: Lymphocytosis can indicate a viral infection.
True
182
What is the normal range of lymphocytes in adults (in percentage)?
20% to 40%
183
Fill in the blank: Lymphocytosis is defined as a lymphocyte count greater than _____ cells per microliter of blood.
4,000
184
Which type of infection is commonly associated with lymphocytosis?
Viral infections
185
What are two common causes of lymphocytosis?
Infections and certain hematologic malignancies.
186
True or False: Lymphocytosis can occur in response to stress.
True
187
What is the primary cell type that increases in lymphocytosis?
Lymphocytes
188
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause lymphocytosis? A) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia B) Acute bacterial infection C) Mononucleosis D) Tuberculosis
B) Acute bacterial infection
189
What is the role of lymphocytes in the immune system?
They are involved in the body's defense against infections and diseases.
190
True or False: Lymphocytosis can be a benign finding.
True
191
What laboratory test is commonly used to diagnose lymphocytosis?
Complete blood count (CBC)
192
Fill in the blank: Lymphocytosis may be classified as _____ or _____ based on its duration.
acute; chronic
193
Which lymphocyte subtype is primarily increased during viral infections?
T-lymphocytes (T-cells)
194
True or False: Lymphocytosis is always indicative of a serious health condition.
False
195
What is a common viral infection that can lead to lymphocytosis?
Infectious mononucleosis
196
What is the typical clinical approach when lymphocytosis is detected?
Further investigation to determine the underlying cause.
197
Fill in the blank: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia is a type of cancer that primarily affects _____ cells.
B-lymphocytes
198
Multiple Choice: Which of the following can cause lymphocytosis? A) HIV B) Influenza C) Both A and B D) None of the above
C) Both A and B
199
What is one potential complication of untreated persistent lymphocytosis?
Development of lymphoid tissue hyperplasia or malignancy.
200
True or False: Lymphocytosis can be a normal response to vaccination.
True
201
What is the term for a decrease in lymphocyte count?
Lymphopenia
202
What does a high lymphocyte count indicate in the context of an infection?
The body is likely responding to an infection.
203
What might a healthcare provider recommend if lymphocytosis is discovered?
Additional tests to identify the cause.
204
Fill in the blank: In lymphocytosis, the percentage of lymphocytes in the blood is _____ than normal.
higher
