Red Blood Cells Flashcards
1
Q
What is the average diameter of a red blood cell?
A
Approximately 7.5 micrometers.
2
Q
True or False: Red blood cells are typically biconcave in shape.
A
True.
3
Q
What is the primary function of red blood cells?
A
To transport oxygen from the lungs to the tissues and carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs.
4
Q
Fill in the blank: The shape of red blood cells allows for increased __________.
A
Surface area for gas exchange.
5
Q
What is the typical lifespan of a red blood cell?
A
About 120 days.
6
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of red blood cells? A) Lack of nucleus B) Biconcave shape C) Ability to divide D) Flexible membrane
A
C) Ability to divide.
7
Q
What is the term for the process by which red blood cells are formed?
A
Erythropoiesis.
8
Q
True or False: Red blood cells can change shape as they pass through capillaries.
A
True.
9
Q
What protein is primarily responsible for oxygen transport in red blood cells?
A
Hemoglobin.
10
Q
Fill in the blank: Red blood cells are produced in the __________.
A
Bone marrow.
11
Q
Multiple Choice: Which condition is characterized by a reduced number of red blood cells? A) Anemia B) Erythrocytosis C) Leukemia D) Thrombocytopenia
A
A) Anemia.
12
Q
What shape do red blood cells take when they are dehydrated?
A
Spiculated or echinocyte shape.
13
Q
True or False: Red blood cells have a high affinity for carbon dioxide.
A
True.
14
Q
What role do red blood cells play in maintaining blood pH?
A
They help buffer the blood through the bicarbonate buffer system.
15
Q
Fill in the blank: The flexible membrane of red blood cells allows them to __________.
A
Deform and squeeze through narrow capillaries.
16
Q
Multiple Choice: Which of the following best describes the shape of a red blood cell? A) Spherical B) Biconvex C) Biconcave D) Cylindrical
A
C) Biconcave.
17
Q
What is the effect of altitude on red blood cell production?
A
Increased altitude stimulates erythropoietin production, leading to increased red blood cell production.
18
Q
True or False: Red blood cells contain mitochondria.
A
False.
19
Q
What is the significance of the biconcave shape of red blood cells?
A
It maximizes surface area for gas exchange and allows flexibility.
20
Q
Fill in the blank: The primary component of red blood cell membranes that contributes to their flexibility is __________.
A
Spectrin.
21
Q
Multiple Choice: What happens to red blood cells in a hypertonic solution? A) They swell B) They shrink C) They burst D) No change
A
B) They shrink.
22
Q
What is the role of erythropoietin in red blood cell production?
A
It stimulates the production of red blood cells in the bone marrow.
23
Q
True or False: The average volume of a red blood cell is known as mean corpuscular volume (MCV).
A
True.
24
Q
What is the typical MCV range for red blood cells?
A
80 to 100 femtoliters.
25
Fill in the blank: The red color of blood is primarily due to __________.
Hemoglobin.
26
Multiple Choice: Which type of anemia is caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12? A) Iron-deficiency anemia B) Aplastic anemia C) Pernicious anemia D) Sickle cell anemia
C) Pernicious anemia.
27
What does MCV stand for?
Mean Corpuscular Volume
28
What is the normal range for MCV in adults?
80 to 100 femtoliters
29
True or False: MCH is an abbreviation for Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin.
True
30
What is the formula to calculate MCH?
MCH = (Hemoglobin in g/dL × 10) / Red Blood Cell count in millions/μL
31
Fill in the blank: MCHC stands for __________.
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration
32
What is the normal range for MCHC?
32 to 36 g/dL
33
Which parameter indicates the average size of red blood cells?
MCV
34
Which parameter indicates the average amount of hemoglobin in a red blood cell?
MCH
35
True or False: A low MCV value indicates microcytic anemia.
True
36
What does a high MCHC value indicate?
Hyperchromic red blood cells
37
What type of anemia is associated with high MCV?
Macrocytic anemia
38
What is the significance of measuring MCV, MCH, and MCHC?
They help in diagnosing different types of anemia.
39
Fill in the blank: The MCH value is typically expressed in __________ per liter.
picograms
40
True or False: MCHC is calculated by dividing MCH by MCV.
False (MCHC = Hemoglobin / Hematocrit)
41
What does a low MCHC indicate?
Hypochromic anemia
42
Which laboratory test provides the values for MCV, MCH, and MCHC?
Complete Blood Count (CBC)
43
What is the impact of dehydration on MCV and MCHC readings?
Dehydration can falsely elevate MCHC and may not affect MCV.
44
What can cause an elevated MCV?
Vitamin B12 deficiency or folate deficiency
45
True or False: MCHC is a measure of the average concentration of hemoglobin in a given volume of red blood cells.
True
46
What is the relationship between MCV and red blood cell count?
Higher MCV typically corresponds with a lower red blood cell count.
47
What does a normal MCV with low MCH suggest?
Possible iron deficiency anemia.
48
What is the primary use of MCV in clinical practice?
To classify types of anemia.
49
Fill in the blank: MCH is primarily used to assess __________ in red blood cells.
hemoglobin content
50
What can cause a decreased MCV?
Iron deficiency anemia or thalassemia
51
True or False: MCV, MCH, and MCHC values are independent of each other.
False (they are interrelated and provide complementary information)
52
What does the erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) measure?
The ESR measures the rate at which red blood cells settle at the bottom of a test tube over a specified period, indicating inflammation.
53
True or False: A higher ESR indicates less inflammation.
False
54
Fill in the blank: The normal ESR range for men is typically _____ mm/hr.
0-15
55
Fill in the blank: The normal ESR range for women is typically _____ mm/hr.
0-20
56
What factors can affect the ESR results?
Factors include age, sex, anemia, pregnancy, and certain diseases.
57
Which blood component primarily influences the ESR?
Fibrinogen
58
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions can lead to an elevated ESR? A) Diabetes B) Infections C) Hypertension D) Osteoporosis
B) Infections
59
What is the primary use of the ESR test in clinical practice?
To detect inflammation and monitor the response to treatment.
60
True or False: ESR is a specific test for any particular disease.
False
61
What is the typical time frame for measuring ESR in a laboratory?
1 hour
62
What is the significance of a rapidly rising ESR?
It may indicate an acute inflammatory process.
63
Fill in the blank: The Westergren method is commonly used to measure _____ ESR.
erythrocyte sedimentation rate
64
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a condition associated with a high ESR? A) Rheumatoid arthritis B) Chronic kidney disease C) Sickle cell anemia D) Tuberculosis
C) Sickle cell anemia
65
What is a potential limitation of the ESR test?
It is a nonspecific test and can be affected by various factors not related to inflammation.
66
True or False: ESR can be used to distinguish between different types of diseases.
False
67
What does a low ESR indicate?
It may indicate the absence of inflammation or a condition that causes red cells to remain suspended longer.
68
Fill in the blank: The _____ test can be used alongside ESR to provide more information about inflammation.
C-reactive protein (CRP)
69
Multiple Choice: An ESR result of 30 mm/hr in a 30-year-old female is considered: A) Normal B) Elevated C) Low D) Unreliable
B) Elevated
70
What role does fibrinogen play in the ESR?
Fibrinogen increases the aggregation of red blood cells, leading to a higher sedimentation rate.
71
True or False: ESR can be used to monitor the effectiveness of treatment in inflammatory diseases.
True
72
What is the maximum sedimentation rate typically observed in healthy individuals?
Usually does not exceed 20 mm/hr.
73
Fill in the blank: ESR is often used in conjunction with _____ to assess inflammatory conditions.
clinical findings
74
What age group generally shows higher ESR values?
Older adults
75
Multiple Choice: Which of the following can lead to a false elevation of ESR? A) Hyperlipidemia B) Anemia C) Dehydration D) All of the above
D) All of the above
76
What is hematopoiesis?
The process of blood cell formation.
77
Where does hematopoiesis primarily occur in adults?
In the bone marrow.
78
True or False: Hematopoiesis only occurs in the bone marrow.
False.
79
What are the main types of blood cells produced during hematopoiesis?
Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
80
Fill in the blank: The primary stem cell involved in hematopoiesis is the __________.
hematopoietic stem cell.
81
Which hormone stimulates the production of red blood cells?
Erythropoietin.
82
What is the role of erythropoietin?
It stimulates the production of red blood cells in response to low oxygen levels.
83
True or False: White blood cells are produced only in response to infection.
False.
84
What are the two main lineages of hematopoietic cells?
Myeloid and lymphoid lineages.
85
What type of blood cell is primarily involved in the immune response?
White blood cells.
86
Multiple Choice: Which of the following cells is responsible for blood clotting? A) Neutrophils B) Erythrocytes C) Platelets D) Lymphocytes
C) Platelets.
87
What is the lifespan of a typical red blood cell?
About 120 days.
88
Fill in the blank: The process by which white blood cells are produced is called __________.
leukopoiesis.
89
True or False: Hematopoiesis decreases with age.
True.
90
What is the function of granulocytes?
They play a role in the immune response by attacking pathogens.
91
What type of blood cell is primarily responsible for oxygen transport?
Red blood cells (erythrocytes).
92
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a type of white blood cell? A) Basophil B) Eosinophil C) Thrombocyte D) Lymphocyte
C) Thrombocyte.
93
What is the term for the production of platelets?
Thrombopoiesis.
94
Fill in the blank: The bone marrow contains __________, which are the sites of blood cell production.
hematopoietic niches.
95
True or False: Hematopoiesis can also occur in the liver and spleen during fetal development.
True.
96
What is the primary function of lymphocytes?
To mediate the adaptive immune response.
97
What role do macrophages play in hematopoiesis?
They help regulate the process by releasing cytokines.
98
Multiple Choice: Which cell type is primarily involved in allergic reactions? A) Neutrophils B) Eosinophils C) Monocytes D) Lymphocytes
B) Eosinophils.
99
What is the significance of the hematopoietic stem cell niche?
It provides a specialized microenvironment for stem cell maintenance and differentiation.
100
Fill in the blank: The process of forming red blood cells is specifically known as __________.
erythropoiesis.
101
True or False: Hematopoiesis is a continuous process throughout life.
True.
102
What is the primary function of erythroid cells?
To produce red blood cells (erythrocytes) that carry oxygen throughout the body.
103
True or False: Erythroid cells are derived from hematopoietic stem cells.
True
104
Fill in the blank: The process of forming erythroid cells is known as __________.
erythropoiesis
105
What hormone stimulates erythropoiesis?
Erythropoietin (EPO)
106
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of erythroid progenitor cells?
A) They are large and nucleated
B) They lack hemoglobin
C) They are involved in immune response
D) They can differentiate into erythrocytes
C) They are involved in immune response
107
What is the final stage of erythroid cell maturation?
The formation of reticulocytes, which mature into erythrocytes.
108
True or False: Erythroid cells can be found in the bone marrow.
True
109
What is the lifespan of a mature erythrocyte?
Approximately 120 days.
110
Fill in the blank: Erythroid cells primarily develop in the __________ during fetal development.
yolk sac
111
Multiple Choice: Which of the following factors can influence erythropoiesis?
A) Oxygen levels
B) Iron availability
C) Vitamin B12 levels
D) All of the above
D) All of the above
112
What is the role of heme in erythroid cells?
Heme is a component of hemoglobin that binds oxygen.
113
True or False: Erythroid cells can undergo mitosis.
False, mature erythrocytes cannot divide.
114
Fill in the blank: The main site of erythropoiesis in adults is the __________.
bone marrow
115
What is the significance of reticulocytes in the blood?
They indicate the rate of red blood cell production.
116
Multiple Choice: Which condition can lead to increased erythropoiesis?
A) Anemia
B) Polycythemia
C) Dehydration
D) All of the above
A) Anemia
117
What is the primary component of erythrocytes?
Hemoglobin
118
True or False: Erythroid cells are involved in carbon dioxide transport.
True
119
Fill in the blank: The main transcription factor regulating erythropoiesis is __________.
GATA-1
120
What role does folic acid play in erythropoiesis?
Folic acid is essential for DNA synthesis and cell division.
121
Multiple Choice: Which vitamin deficiency can lead to macrocytic anemia?
A) Vitamin C
B) Vitamin B6
C) Vitamin B12
D) Vitamin K
C) Vitamin B12
122
What is the role of iron in erythroid cell function?
Iron is necessary for hemoglobin synthesis.
123
True or False: Erythroid cells can be derived from both myeloid and lymphoid lineages.
False, they are derived from the myeloid lineage.
124
Fill in the blank: The erythroid lineage is characterized by the expression of the surface marker __________.
CD71 (transferrin receptor)
125
What is the significance of the erythropoietin receptor (EPO-R) in erythroid cells?
EPO-R mediates the effects of erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production.
126
What are reticulocytes?
Immature red blood cells that are released from the bone marrow into the bloodstream.
127
True or False: Reticulocytes are fully mature red blood cells.
False
128
What is the primary function of reticulocytes?
To develop into mature red blood cells and carry oxygen throughout the body.
129
Fill in the blank: Reticulocytes are identified by their __________ in a blood smear.
reticulated appearance
130
How long do reticulocytes typically circulate in the bloodstream before maturing?
1 to 2 days
131
What is the normal percentage of reticulocytes in the blood?
0.5% to 1.5% of total red blood cells
132
What stimulates the production of reticulocytes?
Erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the kidneys.
133
True or False: Increased reticulocyte count can indicate anemia.
True
134
What laboratory test is commonly used to measure reticulocyte levels?
Reticulocyte count or reticulocyte percentage test.
135
What does a high reticulocyte count indicate?
It may indicate active red blood cell production, often in response to blood loss or hemolysis.
136
What does a low reticulocyte count suggest?
It may suggest inadequate red blood cell production, often seen in aplastic anemia or chronic disease.
137
Fill in the blank: The reticulocyte production index (RPI) is used to assess __________.
the adequacy of reticulocyte response to anemia
138
What is the significance of reticulocyte morphology in diagnosing conditions?
It helps in determining the cause of anemia and the bone marrow's response to it.
139
True or False: Reticulocytes contain a nucleus.
False
140
What cellular component do reticulocytes still contain that mature red blood cells do not?
Ribosomal RNA
141
In what condition would you expect to see a reticulocytosis?
After hemorrhage or hemolytic anemia.
142
What is the role of reticulocytes in the context of blood transfusions?
They can help assess the effectiveness of the transfusion and the recipient's bone marrow response.
143
Fill in the blank: Reticulocytes are stained using __________ to visualize them under a microscope.
special stains, such as methylene blue
144
What is the average lifespan of a mature red blood cell?
Approximately 120 days
145
How do reticulocytes appear under a microscope?
They appear as larger cells with a blue tint due to the presence of ribosomal RNA.
146
What can cause a false increase in reticulocyte counts?
Recent blood transfusions or recovery from anemia.
147
True or False: Reticulocyte counts can help differentiate between types of anemia.
True
148
What is the primary site of reticulocyte production?
Bone marrow
149
Fill in the blank: The presence of reticulocytes in the blood is a sign of __________.
effective erythropoiesis
150
What is the significance of reticulocyte counts in patients with chronic kidney disease?
It can indicate the adequacy of erythropoietin therapy.
151
What is a common clinical use of reticulocyte counts?
To evaluate the bone marrow response to anemia.
152
What does a red blood cell histogram represent?
The distribution of red blood cell (RBC) sizes in a blood sample.
153
True or False: The x-axis of a red blood cell histogram typically represents the size of the red blood cells.
True
154
Fill in the blank: The y-axis of a red blood cell histogram represents the __________ of red blood cells.
number or percentage
155
What is the typical shape of a normal red blood cell histogram?
A bell-shaped curve
156
What can a left shift in a red blood cell histogram indicate?
Microcytic anemia or a decrease in average red blood cell size.
157
Which condition is indicated by a right shift in the red blood cell histogram?
Macrocytic anemia or an increase in average red blood cell size.
158
Multiple choice: Which of the following is NOT typically evaluated in a red blood cell histogram? A) Mean Corpuscular Volume B) Red Blood Cell Distribution Width C) Serum Iron Levels
C) Serum Iron Levels
159
What does a high Red Blood Cell Distribution Width (RDW) indicate?
A greater variation in red blood cell sizes.
160
True or False: A red blood cell histogram can help diagnose conditions like anemia.
True
161
Short answer: What is the significance of the area under the curve in a red blood cell histogram?
It represents the total number of red blood cells in the sample.
162
What might a bimodal distribution in a red blood cell histogram suggest?
The presence of two different populations of red blood cells.
163
Fill in the blank: The term __________ describes the average size of red blood cells.
Mean Corpuscular Volume (MCV)
164
Multiple choice: In a red blood cell histogram, what does an increased MCV indicate? A) Microcytic anemia B) Macrocytic anemia C) Normal red blood cell size
B) Macrocytic anemia
165
What does a narrow histogram indicate about red blood cell sizes?
There is little variation in red blood cell sizes.
166
True or False: Red blood cell histograms can only be interpreted by a hematologist.
False
167
Short answer: Why is it important to analyze red blood cell histograms in conjunction with other blood tests?
To obtain a comprehensive understanding of a patient's hematological status.
168
What is the clinical relevance of detecting anisocytosis in a red blood cell histogram?
It may indicate underlying disorders such as anemia or nutritional deficiencies.
169
Fill in the blank: An increase in reticulocyte count can lead to a __________ shift in the red blood cell histogram.
left
170
Multiple choice: Which of the following factors can affect red blood cell histogram results? A) Hydration status B) Diet C) Exercise
A) Hydration status
171
True or False: A red blood cell histogram is a static measurement and does not change over time.
False
172
Short answer: In what way can a red blood cell histogram assist in monitoring treatment effectiveness?
By showing changes in red blood cell size and distribution over time.
173
What does a histogram with a significant peak at low cell volumes suggest?
The presence of microcytic red blood cells.
174
Fill in the blank: The __________ of red blood cells can be affected by conditions such as dehydration.
concentration
175
Multiple choice: What is a common cause of macrocytosis as indicated by the histogram? A) Iron deficiency B) Vitamin B12 deficiency C) Hemolytic anemia
B) Vitamin B12 deficiency
176
True or False: The histogram can provide insight into the life cycle of red blood cells.
True
177
What are nucleated red blood cells (NRBCs)?
NRBCs are red blood cells that still contain a nucleus.
178
True or False: Nucleated red blood cells are typically found in adult human blood.
False
179
Fill in the blank: Nucleated red blood cells are primarily found in the ______.
bone marrow
180
What is the primary function of red blood cells?
To transport oxygen throughout the body.
181
In which stage of development do red blood cells lose their nucleus?
During the maturation process.
182
Multiple choice: In which of the following conditions might nucleated red blood cells be present in the bloodstream? A) Anemia B) Hemorrhage C) Hypoxia D) All of the above
D) All of the above
183
What does the presence of NRBCs in adult blood typically indicate?
It may indicate a pathological condition.
184
True or False: NRBCs can be a sign of fetal distress during labor.
True
185
What type of blood test can detect nucleated red blood cells?
Complete blood count (CBC)
186
Fill in the blank: The normal range of NRBCs in adult blood is typically ______.
0
187
What is the significance of elevated NRBC levels in newborns?
It can indicate conditions like hypoxia or infection.
188
Multiple choice: Which organ is primarily responsible for the production of NRBCs during fetal development? A) Liver B) Spleen C) Bone marrow D) Kidney
C) Bone marrow
189
What is the primary cellular component that NRBCs contain?
A nucleus
190
True or False: Nucleated red blood cells are a normal finding in healthy adults.
False
191
Fill in the blank: NRBCs are typically associated with ______ conditions.
stressful
192
What is a common cause for the release of NRBCs into the bloodstream?
Severe anemia or hypoxia.
193
Multiple choice: NRBCs are more commonly found in which population? A) Adults B) Newborns C) Elderly D) Athletes
B) Newborns
194
What is the primary difference between nucleated and anucleated red blood cells?
Nucleated red blood cells have a nucleus; anucleated do not.
195
True or False: Nucleated red blood cells can be found in healthy pregnant women.
True
196
Fill in the blank: The presence of NRBCs can be indicative of ______ damage.
bone marrow
197
What type of microscopy is often used to identify NRBCs?
Light microscopy
198
Multiple choice: What does NRBC stand for? A) Nucleated Red Blood Cell B) Non-Red Blood Cell C) Nucleus Red Blood Cell D) None of the above
A) Nucleated Red Blood Cell
199
What is the typical lifespan of nucleated red blood cells in circulation?
They are typically short-lived and removed quickly.
200
True or False: NRBCs can be used as a marker for certain diseases.
True
201
Fill in the blank: Nucleated red blood cells are usually produced in the ______ during fetal life.
yolk sac
202
What are red blood cell inclusions?
Abnormal structures found within red blood cells that can indicate various diseases.
203
True or False: Red blood cell inclusions are always indicative of a serious condition.
False.
204
Name one type of red blood cell inclusion.
Heinz bodies.
205
What do Howell-Jolly bodies indicate?
The presence of a spleen dysfunction or asplenia.
206
Fill in the blank: Basophilic stippling is often associated with _______.
lead poisoning.
207
Which inclusion is formed by denatured hemoglobin?
Heinz bodies.
208
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a red blood cell inclusion? A) Reticulocytes B) Howell-Jolly bodies C) Platelets
C) Platelets.
209
What is the significance of finding Pappenheimer bodies?
They indicate iron overload or disorders such as sideroblastic anemia.
210
True or False: Reticulocytes are considered inclusions.
True.
211
What is the primary stain used to identify red blood cell inclusions?
Wright's stain.
212
Fill in the blank: The presence of red cell inclusions can be detected using a _______.
microscope.
213
What do the presence of target cells indicate?
Liver disease or thalassemia.
214
Name two conditions associated with the presence of Heinz bodies.
G6PD deficiency and oxidative stress.
215
Multiple Choice: Which inclusion is associated with thalassemia? A) Howell-Jolly bodies B) Basophilic stippling C) Pappenheimer bodies
B) Basophilic stippling.
216
True or False: All red blood cell inclusions are visible without staining.
False.
217
What are the clinical implications of finding red blood cell inclusions?
They can help diagnose underlying hematological disorders.
218
Which red blood cell inclusion is a result of abnormal hemoglobin synthesis?
Siderotic granules.
219
Fill in the blank: Inclusions like Howell-Jolly bodies may be found in patients with _______.
asplenia.
220
What does the presence of microcytic red blood cells often indicate?
Iron deficiency anemia.
221
True or False: Red blood cell inclusions can be a normal finding in certain populations.
True.
222
What condition is characterized by the presence of Schistocytes?
Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia.
223
Name one laboratory test that can help identify red blood cell inclusions.
Peripheral blood smear.
224
What is the significance of finding acanthocytes?
They are associated with liver disease and abetalipoproteinemia.
225
Fill in the blank: The detection of inclusions is crucial for diagnosing _______.
hematological disorders.
226
Which type of inclusion is also known as a 'siderosome'?
Pappenheimer bodies.
227
True or False: All red blood cell inclusions are harmful.
False.
228
What is the definition of rouleaux?
Rouleaux are stacks or aggregations of red blood cells that form in a linear arrangement.
229
True or False: Rouleaux formation is a normal physiological process.
True
230
Which condition is commonly associated with increased rouleaux formation?
Multiple myeloma
231
Fill in the blank: Rouleaux formation can lead to _______ blood flow in small vessels.
impaired
232
What is the primary factor influencing rouleaux formation?
Plasma protein concentration
233
Multiple Choice: Which of the following conditions is least likely to cause rouleaux formation? A) Infections B) Dehydration C) Anemia D) Hypertension
D) Hypertension
234
What laboratory test can be used to observe rouleaux formation?
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) test
235
True or False: Rouleaux can be seen in healthy individuals.
True
236
What role do fibrinogen and immunoglobulins play in rouleaux formation?
They increase the viscosity of plasma, promoting the stacking of red blood cells.
237
Short Answer: How does rouleaux formation affect blood viscosity?
It increases blood viscosity.
238
What is hemolytic anemia?
Hemolytic anemia is a condition characterized by the premature destruction of red blood cells, leading to a deficiency in the number of circulating red blood cells.
239
True or False: Hemolytic anemia can be caused by both intrinsic and extrinsic factors.
True
240
Name one intrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia.
Sickle cell disease
241
Name one extrinsic cause of hemolytic anemia.
Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
242
What is the typical laboratory finding in hemolytic anemia?
Increased levels of unconjugated bilirubin
243
Fill in the blank: Hemolytic anemia can lead to ________ due to the rapid breakdown of red blood cells.
Jaundice
244
What is the role of the spleen in hemolytic anemia?
The spleen helps filter out and destroy damaged or abnormal red blood cells.
245
Which test is commonly used to diagnose autoimmune hemolytic anemia?
Coombs test
246
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a symptom of hemolytic anemia? A) Fatigue B) Dark urine C) Increased appetite D) Jaundice
C) Increased appetite
247
What is the primary treatment for severe cases of hemolytic anemia?
Blood transfusions
248
True or False: Hemolytic anemia can be a result of infections.
True
249
What is the significance of haptoglobin levels in hemolytic anemia?
Haptoglobin levels decrease in hemolytic anemia as it binds free hemoglobin released from lysed red blood cells.
250
Fill in the blank: Hemolytic anemia can lead to ________ due to the increased breakdown of hemoglobin.
Iron overload
251
What type of hemolytic anemia is characterized by the presence of spherocytes?
Hereditary spherocytosis
252
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common treatment for hereditary hemolytic anemia? A) Corticosteroids B) Antibiotics C) Iron supplements D) Antivirals
A) Corticosteroids
253
What is the primary cause of hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency?
Oxidative stress leading to red blood cell lysis
254
True or False: Hemolytic anemia can be acute or chronic.
True
255
What is the function of the bone marrow in hemolytic anemia?
To compensate for the loss of red blood cells by increasing erythropoiesis.
256
Fill in the blank: The presence of ________ indicates hemolysis in a blood smear.
Schistocytes
257
What is the most common form of hereditary hemolytic anemia?
Sickle cell anemia
258
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a symptom of hemolytic anemia? A) Shortness of breath B) Weight gain C) Skin rash D) Increased sweating
A) Shortness of breath
259
What is the primary pathogenic mechanism in thalassemia related to hemolytic anemia?
Impaired synthesis of hemoglobin chains leading to ineffective erythropoiesis.
260
True or False: Hemolytic anemia can be triggered by certain medications.
True
261
What laboratory test measures the rate of red blood cell destruction?
Reticulocyte count
262
Fill in the blank: Patients with hemolytic anemia may experience ________ due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity.
Fatigue
263
What is the role of erythropoietin in hemolytic anemia?
Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells in response to anemia.
264
What is aplastic anemia?
Aplastic anemia is a condition where the bone marrow fails to produce sufficient blood cells.
265
True or False: Aplastic anemia can be caused by exposure to certain chemicals and medications.
True
266
What are the three main types of blood cells affected by aplastic anemia?
Red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets.
267
Fill in the blank: The most common treatment for severe aplastic anemia is _______.
bone marrow transplantation.
268
What is polycythemia?
Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an increased number of red blood cells in the bloodstream.
269
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common symptom of polycythemia? A) Fatigue B) Fever C) Weight loss D) All of the above
A) Fatigue
270
What is the primary cause of primary polycythemia?
Primary polycythemia is often caused by a mutation in the JAK2 gene.
271
True or False: Secondary polycythemia can occur as a response to hypoxia.
True
272
What is erythropoietin?
Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the kidneys that stimulates red blood cell production.
273
Fill in the blank: Aplastic anemia is often diagnosed through a _______.
bone marrow biopsy.
274
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is NOT a potential complication of aplastic anemia? A) Infection B) Bleeding C) Hypertension D) Fatigue
C) Hypertension
275
What are common treatments for secondary polycythemia?
Treatments may include phlebotomy and addressing the underlying cause of hypoxia.
276
True or False: Patients with aplastic anemia often experience an increased risk of bleeding.
True
277
What is the role of the spleen in relation to blood cells?
The spleen helps filter blood and remove old or damaged blood cells.
278
Fill in the blank: The diagnosis of polycythemia is confirmed by measuring _______ levels.
hemoglobin
279
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a common diagnostic test for aplastic anemia? A) Complete blood count B) MRI C) CT scan D) Ultrasound
A) Complete blood count
280
What is a common symptom of aplastic anemia?
Fatigue, weakness, and frequent infections.
281
True or False: Polycythemia can lead to complications such as blood clots.
True
282
What does the term 'hypoxia' refer to?
Hypoxia refers to a deficiency of oxygen in the tissues.
283
Fill in the blank: Aplastic anemia may be treated with _______ to suppress the immune system.
immunosuppressive therapy.
284
Multiple Choice: Which of the following is a risk factor for developing aplastic anemia? A) Viral infections B) Smoking C) High altitude D) All of the above
A) Viral infections
285
What is the significance of a JAK2 mutation in relation to polycythemia?
A JAK2 mutation is often associated with primary polycythemia vera.
286
True or False: Aplastic anemia can be hereditary.
True
287
What is the most serious potential outcome of untreated aplastic anemia?
Severe complications such as life-threatening infections or bleeding.
288
Fill in the blank: The treatment goal for polycythemia is to reduce the risk of _______.
thrombosis.
