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FOM4 > Week 8 > Flashcards

Week 8 Flashcards

1
Q

Most DNA viruses which infect humans have this type of capsid.

A

Icosahedral

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2
Q

What is the difference between positive and negative sense RNA viruses?

A

negative-sense single stranded RNA viruses need to carry RNA dependent RNA polymerase in the virion in order to infect

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2
Q

All DNA viruses replicate in the nucleus with exception of this virus family.

A

Poxvirus

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3
Q

Which positive-sense RNA virus uses a unique virion-associated polymerase?

A

Retrovirus; uses RNA dependent DNA polymerase

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4
Q

This virus type has a naked nucleocapsid with three icosahedral capsid shells and a segmented genome.

A

Double stranded RNA viruses

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5
Q

Which protein on the surface of virus envelope aids in attachment and fusion?

A

F protein

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6
Q

What is the significance of the M protein in viruses?

A

aids in viral structure

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7
Q

Which viruses burst from host cells as opposed to budding from the cell surface?

A

unenveloped viruses

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8
Q

Which virus type is more sensitive to inactivation?

A

enveloped

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9
Q

This virus has long pleomorphic enveloped helical nucelocapsids containing -SSRNA. It causes acute hemorrhagic fevers in man and monkeys.

A

Filoviridae

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10
Q

Is Filoviridae segmented?

A

No

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11
Q

What two viruses are most common in Filoviridae family?

A

Ebola virus and Marburg virus

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12
Q

This virus is enveloped nucleocapsid, helical symmetry, segmented -SSRNA.

A

Bunyaviridae

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13
Q

La Crosse virus is part of this family of viruses.

A

Arthropod borne bunyaviruses (caused by mosquito)

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14
Q

Crimean-Congo hemorrhagic fever is caused by a tick is part of this family of viruses.

A

Arthropod borne bunyaviruses (caused by tick)

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15
Q

Rodent borne bunyaviruses include

A

Hantavirus and Sin nombre virus

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16
Q

Arenaviridae are a -SSRNA genome which is segmented or non-segmented?

A

2 segments

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17
Q

Lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus is part of this family of viruses.

A

Arenaviridae

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18
Q

Which bacteria is responsible for causing 80% of UTIs?

A

E. coli

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19
Q
A

It destroys beta lactam antibiotics

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20
Q

Symptoms of this protozoa include Steatorrhea (excessive fat in feces) and malabsorption with flattening of the villi
Water, “greasy”, foul-smelling diarrhea

A

giardia

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21
Q

What type of diagnostic test can you do for giardia?

A

Fecal O&P exam. Zinc concentrate

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22
Q

Treatment for giardia

A

Metronidazole

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23
Q

Giardiasis can lead to deficiencies of which vitamins?

A

Fat soluble vitamins (D,E,A,K)

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24
Q

Which staining method is commonly used to visualize Cryptosporidium protozoa?

A

acid-fast

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25
Q

Which medication is commonly used for the treatment of cryptosporidiosis in immunocompromised patients?

A

Spiramycin (macrolide) is an antibiotic that has shown efficacy in the treatment of cryptosporidiosis, particularly in immunocompromised patients. It is often used as an alternative therapy when other antiparasitic medications are not available or not well-tolerated.

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26
Q

Which of the following is used for the treatment of Cryptosporidium?

A

Nitazoxanide is an antiprotozoal medication used for the treatment of Cryptosporidium.

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27
Q

Cryptosporidium is most commonly identified in which patient population?

A

Immunocompromised patients

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28
Q

What is a characteristic finding in the diagnosis of Leishmaniasis?

A

Amastigotes, which are a form of Leishmania found inside macrophages, are a characteristic finding for the diagnosis of Leishmaniasis. This is often identified through aspirates from marrow, spleen, lymph nodes, or skin lesions.

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29
Q

What are the three primary avenues through which Toxoplasma gondii is commonly transmitted to humans?

A

cat feces, transplacental, undercooked meat

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30
Q

For which population is Toxoplasma gondii particularly concerning?

A

immunocompromised

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31
Q

How is active infection of Toxoplasma gondii typically treated?

A

Active Toxoplasma gondii infection is typically treated with the combination of sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine.

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32
Q

Which trematode has eggs with large lateral spines?

A

Schistosoma mansoni

Schistosoma mansoni is characterized by a large lateral spine on its eggs, a notable morphological feature that can be observed on stool examination. Schistosoma haematobium eggs are oval with a terminal spine, while Schistosoma japonicum eggs have a minute subterminal spine or no spine, making them appear more rounded.

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33
Q

What is the most effective treatment for trematode infections?

A

Praziquantel

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34
Q

What is the primary treatment for cestode infections?

A

Praziquantel

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35
Q

What cestode is associated with megaloblastic anemia due to vitamin B12 deficiency?

A

Diphyllobothrium latum, or the fish tapeworm, can cause a vitamin B12 deficiency leading to megaloblastic anemia. This uncommon complication is due to the worm’s ability to absorb vitamin B12 in the intestine.

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36
Q

Necator americanus and Ancylostoma duodenale are hookworms which are treated with which medication?

A

Albendazole and Mebendazole

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37
Q

What type of bladder cancer is caused by Schistosoma haematobium?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

38
Q

Which intestinal nematode is most likely to cause severe iron-deficiency anemia?

A

Hookworms (e.g., Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus) are known to cause severe iron-deficiency anemia. This is because they attach to the gut wall and feed from the capillaries in the intestinal villi.

39
Q

Which medication can be used against most intestinal nematodes?

A

Bendazoles like albendazole can be used to treat all of the intestinal nematode infections mentioned in this lesson (e.g., Enterobius vermicularis, Ancylostoma duodenale, Necator americanus, Ascaris lumbricoides, Strongyloides stercoralis and Trichinella spiralis) as they lead to microtubule dysfunction in these worms.

40
Q

Which bacteria causes atypical pneumonia?

A

mycoplasma pneumoniae

41
Q

What is a common early symptom of infection of Ebola virus and Marburg virus infections?

A

A common early symptom of infection from Ebola virus and Marburg virus is hemorrhagic fever. It is characterized by high fever, headache, muscle pain, fatigue, and often leads to severe bleeding, both internally and externally.

42
Q

Which animals are known to harbor Marburg and Ebola virus?

A

monkeys and bats

43
Q

What family do Ebola virus and Marburg virus belong to?

A

The Ebola and Marburg viruses belong to the Filoviridae family, also known as filoviruses.

44
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for hantavirus?

A

Hantaviruses are primarily transmitted to humans through contact with infected rodents and their urine, droppings, or saliva. In particular, the virus can be transmitted when humans come into contact with dust particles that contain dried rodent excreta, which can be inhaled and lead to infection.

45
Q

How many RNA segments does the genome of bunyaviruses consist of?

46
Q

How many RNA segments are typically found in the genome of arenaviruses?

46
Q

The lymphocytic choriomeningitis virus primarily manifests in humans with symptoms indicative of:

A

meningoencephalitis

47
Q

Arenaviruses are primarily spread to humans by:

48
Q

Which virus is the most common cause of viral encephalitis in the US?

A

La Crosse virus (arthropod borne bunyaviruses) transmitted by mosquitoes

49
Q

Cutaneous infections by fungi are caused by _____.

A

dermatophytes

50
Q

Which of the following regions is Histoplasma capsulatum endemic to?

A

Ohio and Mississippi River valley

51
Q

What is the primary mode of transmission for Histoplasma capsulatum?

A

bird and bat droppings

52
Q

Histoplasma capsulatum is characterized as being ___morphic

53
Q

dimorphic, replicates in spherules as endospores, San Joaquin Valley

A

Coccidioides immits

54
Q

What is the method of transmission for Coccidioides immitis?

A

Inhalation of spores

55
Q

What is the geographical distribution of Coccidioides immitis?

A

San Joaquin Valley

56
Q

monomorphic yeast, capsule, pigeons, opportunistic, India Ink

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

57
Q

opportunistic, dimorphic, pseudohyphae

A

Candida albicans

58
Q

macrophages, ohio, mississippi, dimorphic fungus, TB, bird bat droppings

A

Histoplasma capsulatum

59
Q

____ affects the lipid bilayer and denatures protein.

A

Alcohols (ethyl or isopropyl alcohol)

60
Q

Can alcohols kill spores?

A

No. They don’t and thus aren’t used on medical equipment

61
Q

Which isopropyl alcohol is stronger/better at killing bacteria, 70% or 100%?

A

70% bc it requires presence of water to denature the proteins

62
Q

____ affect the lipid bilayer and alter membrane permeability.

A

surfactant/detergents

63
Q

Can surfactant/detergents kill spores?

64
Q

Can chlorine compounds kill spores (a sterilant)?

65
Q

Can H2O2 kill spores?

66
Q

Can iodine kill spores?

67
Q

____ modify proteins and interfere w/ the ETC

68
Q

____ denature proteins and damage DNA

69
Q

_____ gas is a high level sterilant that kills spores

A

ethylene oxide

70
Q

What type of heat is more effective at killing spores?

71
Q

Can UV irradiation kill spores?

72
Q

How often should you re-screen for diabetes if the patient is negative or when the risk factors change?

73
Q

What is the minimum A1c level to diagnose diabetes?

74
Q

What is the minimum fasting plasma glucose level to diagnose diabetes?

A

126 on TWO different occasions

75
Q

2-hour plasma glucose ___ mg/dL or higher on TWO different occasions

76
Q

A random plasma glucose over ___ w/ symptoms can dx diabetes

77
Q

How do you calculate eAG from A1c?

A

30 x A1c - 46 = eAG

78
Q

Classic PKU is due to mutation in which gene?

A

phenylalanine hydroxylase (<1% enzyme activity)

79
Q

In patients with elevated Phe levels and not responsive to low Phe diet suggests defects in what other substrate?

A

tetrahydroBIOPTERIN biosynthesis or regeneration

80
Q

What is Kuvan?

A

synthetic BH4 given to patients with PKU

81
Q

Early decelerations in FHR tracing is typically caused by what? And what type of curve would you expect to see?

A

head compression; U shaped

82
Q

Variable decelerations are due to what? What type of curve?

A

umbilical cord compression; V-shaped

83
Q

What are the ACOG guidelines for pap test>

A

cytology alone q3 years for 21-29; 30-65 cytology q3 years + HPV screen q5 years

84
Q

The fungal cell wall is made of ____.

A

chitin, mannoproteins, and glucan

85
Q

Dysbiosis can occur w/ increased # of anaerobes present in the preputial space in uncircumcised men. This can correlate with increased risk of what infection?

86
Q

Which bacteria causes trench fever?

A

Bartonella quintana

87
Q

Which bacteria causes cat-scratch fever?

A

Bartonella henselae

88
Q

What is Brill-Zinsser disease? What bacteria can cause this?

A

relapsing form of epidemic typhus fever; Rickettsia prowazekii

89
Q

Which type of agar based medium is used for mycoplasmas?

A

Eaton’s agar

90
Q

On Eaton’s agar what do most mycoplasmas resemble?

91
Q

On Eaton’s agar what does Mycoplasma pneumoniae resemble?

A

mulberries

92
Q

On Eaton’s agar what does Ureaplasma urealyticum resemble?

A

tiny T colonies

FOM4 (11 decks)

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