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FOM4 > Week 2 > Flashcards

Week 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Which 2 major structures does the 3rd part (horizontal part) of the duodenum cross?

A

aorta and IVC

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2
Q

The 3rd part (horizontal) of the duodenum passes posterior to which major branch of the abdominal aorta?

A

SMA/SMV

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3
Q

The duodenojejunal flexure is supported by which suspensory ligament?

A

ligament of Treitz

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4
Q

What is the order of segments of the small intestine?

A

duodenum, jejunum, ileum

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5
Q

What is the name of the thickened bands of longitudinal smooth muscle fibers along the large intestine?

A

teniae coli

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6
Q

What is the name of the pouches between the transverse folds of the large intestine?

A

haustra

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7
Q

What is the name of the small, fat-filled projections of the large intestine?

A

epiploic appendices

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8
Q

The sympathetic cell bodies which serve the abdominal and pelvic viscera are in which segments of the spinal cord?

A

thoracolumbar (T1-L4)

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9
Q

The foregut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?

A

greater splanchnic (T5-T9)

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10
Q

Where do the greater splanchnic nerve fibers synapse?

A

celiac ganglion

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11
Q

The midgut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?

A

lesser splanchnic (T10-T11)

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12
Q

The kidneys, adrenals, and gonads receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?

A

least splanchnic (T12)

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13
Q

The hindgut receives sympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?

A

lumbar splanchnic (L1-L2)

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14
Q

The foregut, midgut, and retroperitoneal organs all receive parasympathetic innervation from which nerve?

A

vagus n.

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15
Q

The hindgut receives parasympathetic innervation from which nerve fibers and spinal level?

A

pelvic splanchnic (S2-S4)

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16
Q

The lesser and least splanchnic nerves synapse in which ganglion?

A

Superior mesenteric ganglion

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17
Q

The lumbar splanchnic nerves synapse in which ganglion?

A

Inferior mesenteric ganglion

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18
Q

The foregut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?

A

celiac lymph nodes

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19
Q

The midgut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?

A

superior mesenteric lymph nodes

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20
Q

The gonads and kidneys lymph drains to which lymph nodes?

A

lumbar lymph nodes

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21
Q

The hindgut structure’s lymph drains to which lymph nodes?

A

inferior mesenteric lymph nodes

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22
Q

The pelvic structures and parts of the rectum frain to which lymph nodes?

A

iliac lymph nodes

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23
Q

Trunks draining to the thoracic duct will come across which structure which serves as a storage container for lymph?

A

cisterna chyli

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24
Q

What are the fat-soluble vitamins?

A

D,E,A,K

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25
Q

Which foods contain a healthy source of vitamin A?

A

carrots

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26
Q

Vitamin A is important for what?

A

vision

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27
Q

1 worldwide cause of preventable blindness is a deficiency in which vitamin?

A

A

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28
Q

What is the treatment for vitamin D deficiency?

A

breastfed infants 400 IU/Day
children >1 600 IU/day

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29
Q

Which foods contain a healthy source of vitamin E?

A

green leefy vegetables

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30
Q

Vitamin E deficiency manifests how?

A

aging/eging symptoms

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31
Q

Which vitamin is important for blood clotting?

A

vitamin K (blood Klotting)

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32
Q

Beriberi and Wernicke encephalopathy is caused by deficiency in which vitamin?

A

vitamin B1 thiamine

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33
Q

Vitamin B2 is also known as which vitamin?

A

Riboflavin

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34
Q

Vitamin B3 is also known as which vitamin?

A

Niacin (B 3 D Nia)

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35
Q

Pallagra (diarrhea, dementia, dermatitis, death) is caused by deficiency in which vitamin?

A

Vitamin B3 niacin (B 3 D Nia)

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36
Q

Vitamin B6 is also known as what?

A

Pyridoxine

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37
Q

Where do you find vitamin B12?

A

animal meats

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38
Q

Spina bifida can come about from a deficiency in which mineral?

A

folate

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39
Q

Keshan disease, a cardiomyopathy, is a rare but serious complication due to a deficiency in which mineral?

A

selenium

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40
Q

A baby will double its weight by ___ months.

A

5

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41
Q

A baby will triple its weight by ___ year/s.

A

1 year

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42
Q

How much weight will a baby lose in its first few days?

A

~10% of its birth weight

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43
Q

When will a baby regain its birth weight after its initial 10% loss?

A

2 weeks

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44
Q

How do you calculate BMI?

A

weight/height (in)/height (in) x 703

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45
Q

Is BMI or % of BMI on chart a better indication of obesity?

A

% of BMI

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46
Q

How long should a mother maintain breast feeding?

A

12 months

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47
Q

At which time point should you introduce other nutrients in an infants diet?

A

4-6 months

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48
Q

How long should you wait to give 100% juice to an infant?

A

6 months

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49
Q

An intake of which other mineral will attenuate the adverse effects of sodium on blood pressure?

A

potassium

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50
Q

Familial short stature or Constitutional growth delay? The final result is a short adult

A

FSS

51
Q

Which disease results from caloric deficiency? Marasmus or Kwashiorkor?

A

Marasmus (it is a MASSIVE problem…no food in the fridge)

52
Q

Which disease results from protein deficiency? Marasmus or Kwashiorkor?

A

Kwashiorkor (FLAMING KP NUTS)

53
Q

What is the migrating motility complex?

A

it starts in the stomach and works its way through the SI, a pattern of rhythmic contractions in the stomach and small intestine. MMCs occur during fasting or between meals and are essential for clearing residual food particles, secretions, and bacteria from the gastrointestinal tract.

54
Q

Which hormone produced by the GI tract is responsible for initiating the MMC?

A

motilin

55
Q

What is Succus entericus?

A

its a salt and mucus secretion whose function is to lubricate the SI and help aid in catabolism of nutrients. Its secretion is stimulated by chyme

56
Q

How are carbohydrates digested in the SI?

A

by brush border disaccharidases and pancreatic amylases

57
Q

How are proteins digested in the SI?

A

pancreatic proteases and brush border enzymes

58
Q

What is the role of enterokinase in the GI tract?

A

It is secreted by enterocytes (epithelial cells which line the GI tract).

Enterokinase is responsible for converting trypsinogen, an inactive zymase (proenzyme) secreted by the pancreas, into trypsin, an active proteolytic enzyme.

Trypsinogen is secreted into the small intestine via the pancreatic duct. Enterokinase cleaves a specific peptide bond in trypsinogen, resulting in the activation of trypsin.

59
Q

How is fat digested in the SI?

A

by pancreatic lipase

60
Q

The primary driving force for salt and water absorption in the SI is what mechanism?

A

the Na/K pump on the basolateral membrane

61
Q

What is a major difference between the absorption of hexoses vs pentoses in the SI?

A

hexoses rely on Na+-dependent glucose transporters (SGLT1 and 2) to move into enterocyte and follow a gradient established by the Na/K pump

pentoses have their own transporters which don’t rely on Na+

62
Q

What dietary source is absorbed through the SI via passive diffusion?

A

fat and fat-soluble vitamins

63
Q

Is Fe2+ or Fe3+ more readily absorbed in the SI?

A

Fe2+

64
Q

Which vitamin greatly enhances the absorption of iron in the SI by reducing Fe3+?

A

ascorbic acid

65
Q

Calcium absorption in the SI is enhanced by which other compounds?

A

vitamin D and PTH

66
Q

What must galactose convert into in order to enter glycolysis? And in which tissues does this occur?

A

glucose-6-phosphate and in the liver

67
Q

What must fructose convert into in order to enter glycolysis? And in which tissues does this occur?

A

G3P; various tissues

68
Q

Which enzyme metabolizes fructose in the liver? What about other tissues?

A

fructokinase; hexokinase

69
Q

Why is fructose metabolized independent of insulin?

A

Because it utilizes other pathways which are insulin-dependent (like GLUT5)

70
Q

Which enzyme is deficient in essential fructosuria?

A

fructokinase (benign)

71
Q

Which enzyme is deficient in hereditary fructose intolerance?

A

aldolase B (severe)

72
Q

A 4-5 month old baby is weaned off breastfeeding and is given fruit for the first time. It has a severe metabolic reaction and needs medical attention. What enzyme do you suspect the baby has a deficiency in?

A

aldolase B and likely has hereditary fructose intolerance

73
Q

The polyol pathway utilizes the enzyme aldose reductase to convert glucose into which compound?

A

sorbitol, which is a sugar alcohol

74
Q

An accumulation of which compound can lead to osmotic stress in tissues where aldose reductase is expressed and can lead to cataracts for example?

A

sorbitol

75
Q

What are the two dominant groups of microbes in the intestinal microbiota? Are they gram-negative or gram-positive?

A

Firmicutes (gram-positive), Bacteroidetes (gram-negative)

76
Q

Which extrinsic factor seems to have the strongest effect on shaping the microbiome?

A

diet

77
Q

What is a keystone member of the microbiome?

A

species which is important for maintaining an efficient functioning ecosystem and whose gain or loss may have profound influence on ecosystem structure and function

78
Q

What’s the difference between a toxigenic and an invasive pathogen?

A

toxigenic: releases a toxin which damages host
Invasive: friendly-fire

79
Q

Some pathogens have dedicated virulence factors such as a polysaccharide capsule, cell wall M-protein, and cell wall protein A. How do they help the pathogen?

A

they help evade phagocytosis by the host

80
Q

Some bacteria utilize dedicated proteins, ____, to enter host cells via host surface receptor interactions in order to avoid the host’s immune system.

A

invasins

81
Q

Which pathogen abuses the host cytoskeleton to jump from on to another cell utilizing an actin rocket?

A

Listeria

82
Q

What is the function of cell wall protein A?

A

binds to IgG and prevents complement activation

83
Q

What is the function of cell wall M-protein?

A

anti-phagocytic

84
Q

What’s the difference between an opportunistic and true pathogen?

A

an opportunistic pathogen causes disease in immunocompromised host while a true doesn’t

85
Q

What is the term for the ability of an organism to cause disease?

A

pathogenicity

86
Q

What is the term for a quantitative measure of pathogenicity?

A

virulence

87
Q

What is the name of the proteins at the tip of pili which bind to specific host receptors? Following adhesion, what usually forms?

A

adhesions, biofilm

88
Q

This virulence factor accelerates fibrin clot formation and aids pathogen in protection from phagocytosis

A

coagulase

89
Q

This virulence factor forms a pore in leukocytes thereby killing these cells and preventing phagocytosis

A

leukocidins

90
Q

What is the difference between exotoxins and endotoxins?

A

Exotoxins: high toxicity, heat destroys them
Endotoxins: LPS (this is what it is), low toxicity, heat stable

91
Q

What is conjugation?

A

transfer of a plasmid from one cell to another. the first cell must have the F+

92
Q

This process of horizontal gene transfer involves the uptake of free DNA and incorporation into genome. The cell must be competent.

A

Transformation

93
Q

This process involves horizontal gene transfer between bacterial cells mediated by a phage

A

transduction

94
Q

What is specialized transduction?

A

Specialized transduction involves bacteriophages that undergo a lysogenic cycle, where the phage genome integrates into the bacterial genome (as a prophage). During this integration, the phage becomes a part of the bacterial chromosome and replicates along with the host cell’s DNA.

When the phage decides to exit the lysogenic state and enter the lytic cycle, it can occasionally take adjacent segments of the bacterial genome with it.

Specialized transduction typically involves specific genes located near the integration site of the prophage in the bacterial genome. This selectivity means that the genes transferred often include those with significant functions, such as those coding for virulence factors, toxins, or antibiotic resistance.

95
Q

What is antigenic variation?

A

When some bacteria change their outer antigens regularly to be a step ahead of the immune system

96
Q

_____ stem cells determine the initial fate of adipocytes

A

mesenchymal

97
Q

Which type of adipose tissue serves as an endocrine organ by releasing adipokines, lipids, chemokines, and cytokines?

A

white adipose tissue

98
Q

This is a key hormone produced by white adipose tissue which acts on the hypothalamus to suppress food intake, decrease insulin sensitivity, and increases inflammation.

A

Leptin

99
Q

This type of adipose tissue is responsible for thermogenesis and is anti-inflammatory. Its locations include cervical, supraclavicular, paraspinal, renal, and thoracic.

A

Beige adipose tissue

100
Q

Which 4 factors influence the transition between white and beige adipose tissue?

A

exercise, temperature, SNS activity, and nutrition

101
Q

What will happen to adipose tissue if it is stimulated by cold or exercise-induced SNS activity? It will go from this type to that tyoe?

A

white to beige

102
Q

This type of adipose tissue is the primary source of non-
shivering thermogenesis and has a high concentration of
mitochondria

A

brown adipose tissue

103
Q

Carbohydrates are how many calories/gram?

A

4

104
Q

Spinach provides how many gram of fiber per cup?

A

8.0

104
Q

What is the goal intake for fiber for men and women?

A

men 38 g, women 25 g

105
Q

Which phase of the bacteria growth cycle is most susceptible to most antibiotics?

A

log phase

106
Q

What is the tubulin homolog in bacteria that aids in the division of bacteria?

A

FtsZ

107
Q

This protein aids in sidewall elongation in rod shaped bacteria only and is homologous to actin in eurkaryotes

A

MreB

108
Q

Most pathogenic bacteria prefer which type of pH environment?

A

neutral

109
Q

This type of bacteria requires oxygen for growth because their ATP-generating system only works with O2 as electron acceptor

A

obligate aerobe

110
Q

This type of bacteria can use oxygen when present but also grow in its absence, either through fermentation or by using alternative electron acceptors

A

facultative anaerobe

111
Q

This type of bacteria can’t grow in the presence of oxygen because they lack superoxide dismutase or catalase or both

A

obligate anaerobe

112
Q

What is lipid II?

A

it is an example of a high energy precursor for bacterial cell wall which can be used as an energy source in lieu of ATP

113
Q

What are siderophores?

A

metal chelators that strip host proteins of their iron

114
Q

T/F Breastfeeding has a protective effect against obesity

A

true

115
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of riboflavin deficiency?

A

Cheilosis
Angular stomatitis
Glossitis
Keratitis
Photophobia
Sore throat

116
Q

Area supplied by superior rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?

A

inferior mesenteric nodes

117
Q

Area supplied by middle rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?

A

common iliac nodes

118
Q

Area supplied by inferior rectal a. in the rectum drains to which lymph nodes?

A

inguinal nodes

119
Q

What is the 1st step in the gram-staining procedure?

A

application of crystal violet (purple dye)

120
Q

After you apply crystal violet in gram-staining procedure, what do you add next?

A

iodine

121
Q

What is the final step of the gram-staining procedure?

A

adding safranin

122
Q

On a gram-stain, which type will look purple? pink?

A

gram-positive: purple bc it has thick peptidoglycan layer which will retain the crystal violet stain

gram-negative: pink bc the stain is removed with alcohol allowing red safranin stain to penetrate

123
Q
A

FOM4 (11 decks)

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