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FOM4 > Week 6 > Flashcards

Week 6 Flashcards

1
Q

This bacteria is commonly associated with gastroenteritis (food poisoning) especially when people consume fried rice.

A

Bacillus cereus

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2
Q

This bacteria is named after its appearance on blood agar plates because it looks waxy.

A

Bacillus cereus

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3
Q

Is Bacillus cereus an aerobe or anaerobe?

A

facultative anaerobe

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4
Q

What toxins are released by Bacillus cereus?

A

diarrheal toxin and emetic (vomiting) toxin

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5
Q

This toxin produced is a neurotoxin which acts as a protease that cleaves SNARE proteins and prevents the release of acetylcholine (Ach). It leads to paralysis and subsequent respiratory failure.

A

Botulinum toxin

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6
Q

This bacteria is associated with canned food.

A

Clostridium botulinum

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7
Q

This bacteria infection symptoms include weakness, blurred vision, drooping eyelids, trouble breathing, difficulty speaking, and eventually paralysis.

A

Clostridium botulinum

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8
Q

Infants shouldn’t consume honey because it can contain this bacteria which produces a toxin.

A

Clostridium botulinum

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9
Q

Transmission of this bacteria is commonly seen in rusty nails.

A

Clostridium tetani

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10
Q

What blood test is used for diagnosing tetanus?

A

They are none. Dx based on symptoms

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11
Q

This toxin produced is a neurotoxin which acts as a protease to cleave SNARE proteins in Renshaw cells. This action prevents the release of GABA and glycine which leads to spastic paralysis and subsequent respiratory failure.

A

Tetanus toxin

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12
Q

What is the mode of transmission for Clostridium perfringens?

A

food poisoning and wound/soft tissue infection

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13
Q

There are up to 12 different toxin/virulence factor classes contributing to extensive tissue necrosis for Clostridium perfringens. Which is the most important and whose activity leads to inflammatory cytokine release and causes edema, necrosis, and increased vascular permeability?

A

Alpha-toxin (a phospholipase)

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14
Q

Gas gangrene is caused by this bacteria.

A

Clostridium perfringens

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15
Q

Food poisoning associated with buffets and meat dishes is caused by this bacteria.

A

Clostridium perfringens

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16
Q

The spores of this bacteria can occur naturally in the GI tract.

A

C. diff

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17
Q

What are the names of the two toxins released by C. diff?

A

A and B toxin

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18
Q

Gastroenteritis caused by this bacteria include symptoms like frequent watery diarrhea, abd cramping, fever and nausea

A

C. diff

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19
Q

What is the reservoir for Listeria monocytogenes?

A

soil and on wild/domestic animals

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20
Q

This bacteria thrives on hot dogs sitting in the fridge for an extended period of time.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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21
Q

This bacteria can be identified due to its unique ability to be motile at 71 degrees but not at 98 degrees.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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22
Q

This gram-positive rod bacteria is primarily an opportunistic pathogen and has no toxins or true virulence factors.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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23
Q

This bacteria causes sepsis and meningitis in newborns. Pregnant women are 10x more likely to get this infection.

A

Listeria monocytogenes

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24
Q

This bacteria is a club-shaped rod and symptoms include a pseudomembrane which resembles hide or leather.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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25
Q

The reservoir for this bacteria is on the skin or oropharynx. Its transmission is via respiratory droplets or hand to mouth contact.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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26
Q

A positive Elek-test can confirm the presence of this bacteria.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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27
Q

This bacteria can cause lysogenic conversion.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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28
Q

This refers to phage mediated transfer of virulence factors/toxins to render a benign bacterial strain pathogenic.

A

Lysogenic conversion

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29
Q

What is the mode of action for diphtheria toxin?

A

protein synthesis inhibitor

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30
Q

The diseases caused by this bacteria include pharyngitis and bullneck.

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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31
Q

Elon musk eating corn dip. Which bacteria?

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

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32
Q
A
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33
Q
A

Bulbospongiosus m.

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34
Q
A
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35
Q
A

Deep perineal pouch

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36
Q
A

genitofemoral n.

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37
Q
A

external urethral sphincter

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38
Q

The intermediate mesoderm gives rise to this embryological structure which will ultimately form the primitive gonads.

A

urogenital ridge

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39
Q

Blood agar is what type of medium?

A

A differential but not selective medium. It can differentiate between beta, alpha, and gamma hemolytic bacteria

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40
Q

Teichoic acid is found in which gram bacteria?

A

gram-positive

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41
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of strep pneumoniae?

A

capsule

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42
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of strep pyogenes?

A

M protein

My “genes” make me a “M”ale

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43
Q

What is the most important virulence factor of staph aureus?

A

Protein A

“A”ureus

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44
Q

Scarlet fever is primarily what type of disease?

A

Toxigenic

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45
Q

What is a superantigen?

A

A superantigen is a type of antigen that can provoke an exaggerated and potentially harmful immune response. Unlike conventional antigens, which interact with specific receptors on T cells in a highly selective manner, superantigens can activate a large proportion of T cells non-specifically, regardless of their antigen specificity.

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46
Q

Which bacteria should you think of if you hear swimming in freshwater or contacted with animal urine like on a farm?

A

leptospira interrogans

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47
Q

The primordial germ cells migrate from the yolk sac epithelium to where around week 6?

A

gonadal ridge

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48
Q

Cortical cords are predominant in the ____.

A

ovary (form follicular cells)

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49
Q

Medullary cords are predominant in the ____.

A

testis (form Sertoli cells, rete testis, and seminiferous tubules)

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50
Q

What are the layers of the testicle?

A

Tunica vaginals (visceral layer; serous sac which enwraps both the testis and head of epididymis), Tunica albuginea (this is just around the testis)

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51
Q

ID the layer

A

tunica albuginea (this is the thick connective tissue capsule just around the testis)

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52
Q

In the seminiferous tubules, the most mature sperm (spermatozoa) are located where?

A

Farthest away from the basal lamina and the myoid cells so towards the center

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53
Q

What is the pathway of sperm once they leave the seminiferous tubules?

A

Straight tubules –> rete testis –> efferent tubules –> epididymis

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54
Q

The epididymis is lined with which type of cells?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

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55
Q

This structure of the male repro system is composed of 3 thick layers of smooth muscle.

A

Vas deferens

56
Q

50-85% of seminal fluid is produced in which structure of the seminal glands?

A

secretory pockets

57
Q

Most carcinomas arise in this zone of the prostate.

A

Peripheral zone

58
Q

Most benign hyperplasias arise in this zone of the prostate.

A

transition zone

59
Q

These arteries run through the corpora cavernosa and are important for the process of erection

A

helicine arteries

60
Q

The seminiferous tubules are lined with which epithelium?

A

stratified germinal epithelium

61
Q

Which cells are responsible for forming the blood-testis barrier?

A

Sertoli cells

62
Q

The rete testis and straight tubules are lined with which epithelium?

A

cuboidal epithelium

63
Q

What are the phases of sperm development?

A
64
Q

Which cells secrete Mullerian-inhibiting hormone?

A

Sertoli cells

65
Q

Which cells secrete tesosterone?

A

Leydig cells (located in intersitium)

66
Q

What is the fibrous layer which surrounds the ovary?

A

tunica albuginea

67
Q

Where in this picture are primordial follicles? What about primary follicles?

A

Black arrow: primordial
Blue arrow: primary (look for layer of cuboidal shaped cells, zona pellucida)

68
Q

What stage of the follicular cycle is this in?

A

secondary follicle (fluid filled antrum)

69
Q

What stage of the follicular cycle is this in?

A

mature follicle

70
Q

The ovary is lined with which inner layer of epithelium?

A

germinal cuboidal

71
Q

The fallopian tubes are lined with which epithelium?

A

ciliated and non-ciliated columnar epithelium

72
Q

What is the epithelium which lines the endometrium?

A

simple columnar

73
Q

What epithelium lines the vagina?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium – Non keratinized

74
Q

What is the SCJ and how does it relate to the transformation zone?

A

SCJ is the squamocolumnar junction and it changes dramatically throughout life. The transformation zone is the area between the two locations and this is where >90% of lesions involved in cervical cancers occur

75
Q

The body of the clitoris contains which tissue?

A

Paired corpora cavernosa (erectile tissue) surrounded by a thin tunica albuginea

76
Q

This bacteria is an anaerobe and its misplacement into normally sterile sites can lead to infection. This usually occurs in surgery, trauma, malignancy, or necrosis.

A

Bacteroides fragilis

77
Q

Which anaerobe is a gram-negative elongate rod?

A

Fusobacterium nucleatum

78
Q

What bacteria should you think of if you see food poisoning caused by potato salad?

A

Staph aureus

79
Q

What bacteria should you think of if you see any prosthetic placement or catheters?

A

Staph epidermidis

80
Q

What is a pyogenic disease?

A

due to action of inflammatory disease

81
Q

Which urethral sphincter is under autonomic control?

A

internal urethral sphincter

82
Q

What nerve is responsible for the storage of urine in the bladder?

A

sympathetics from the hypogastric plexus (L2)

83
Q

What nerve is responsible for contraction of the internal urethral sphincter?

A

sympathetics from the hypogastric plexus (L2)

84
Q

What nerve is responsible for the contraction of the bladder to allow for emptying?

A

parasympathetics from the pelvic splanchnic nerves (S2-S4)

85
Q

The location of the neural cell bodies responsible for pain and/or fullness sensation from the urinary bladder is what?

A

dorsal root ganglion of spinal cord levels S2-S4 (pelvic splanchnic)

86
Q

Which bacteria is the most common cause of neonatal sepsis?

A

Strep agalactiae

87
Q

The bile-esculin test distinguishes which two bacteria families?

A

enterococci and streptococci

88
Q

Which bacterium is responsible for causing syphilis?

A

Treponema pallidum

89
Q

What stage of syphilis would a patient be if multiple chancre are present on the penis?

A

Stage 1 (primary)

90
Q

What stage of syphilis would a patient be if a macular rash was present on the soles and palms?

A

Stage 2 (secondary)

91
Q

Tertiary (Late) syphilis can occur 3-30 years after infection. There are three manifestations which include what? What are the common presentations?

A

Gumma: lesions of the skin
Neurosyphilis: neurological symptoms
Cardiovascular syphilis: CV symptoms

92
Q

How do you diagnose Treponema pallidum?

A

You cannot culture, because they are so small. You have to use microscopy like darkfield, immunofluorescence, or silver stain.

93
Q

In which stages of syphilis will microscopy be the most useful for diagnosis?

A

primary or secondary because that is when the patient is symptomatic

94
Q

What is the difference between non-treponemal vs treponemal serology tests?

A

Non-treponemal tests for antibodies formed during infection (against the host), but they do NOT bind to pathogen antigens. An example of this is the Reagin test.

Treponemal tests detects antibodies specific to Treponema pallidum

95
Q

What is a major source of transmission for Leptospira interrogans?

A

Animal urine

96
Q

During which stage of syphilis is the reagin test most effective?

A

Secondary;

The reagin test, also known as the non-treponemal test, is most effective during the secondary stage of syphilis. This stage is characterized by the presence of systemic symptoms such as rash, mucous membrane lesions, and generalized lymphadenopathy. The reagin test detects antibodies produced by the host in response to the Treponema pallidum bacteria, which are present in secondary syphilis. However, it’s worth noting that the reagin test can also be positive in other stages of syphilis, as well as in certain non-syphilitic conditions.

97
Q

What is Ixodes scapularis?

A
98
Q

What is the SRY gene and what does it produce?

A

Sex-determining region Y and it is located on the Y chromosome. It is responsible for producing the testis-determining factor.

99
Q

What are the 2 primordial duct systems?

A

Wolffian duct: male
Mullerian duct: female

100
Q

What enzyme is crucial for converting testosterone into a more potent form called DHT?

A

5-alpha-reductase

101
Q

What is the role of Leydig cells?

A

secretion of testosterone

102
Q

Where are the Leydig cells located?

A

found in interstitial spaces between seminiferous tubules

103
Q

Testosterone is mostly bound to this protein in the blood.

A

albumin

104
Q
A

5-alpha-reductase

105
Q

Which male accessory sex gland is responsible for secreting fructose, fibrinogen, and prostaglandins?

A

seminal vesicles

106
Q

Which male accessory sex gland is responsible for secreting proteolytic enzymes which help break down the clump of cum?

A

prostate

107
Q
A

Spermiogenesis

108
Q

FSH is secreted by the anterior pituitary and acts on which cells in the testes?

A

Sertoli cells

109
Q

Which cells in the testes are responsible for secreting inhibin? What is the MOA for inhibin?

A

Sertoli cells; negative feedback on anterior pituitary to stop FSH production

110
Q

In the ovary, what cell does LH act on?

A

Thecal cells

111
Q

In the ovary, what cell does FSH act on?

A

Granulosa cells

112
Q

What cell type in the ovary is responsible for producing estrogen? Why are they capable of doing this?

A

Granulosa cells; they express aromatase

113
Q

What is responsible for producing progesterone in the female?

A

corpus luteum

114
Q

When does the 1st meiotic division complete during oogenesis?

A

just before ovulation

115
Q

What is the epithelial lining of the epididymis?

A

pseudostratified columnar

116
Q

Primary oocytes are arrested in what phase before birth and throughout childhood until puberty?

A

prophase I

117
Q

In blacks, what comes first in puberty, pubic hair or breasts?

A

pubic hair

118
Q

In whites, what comes first in puberty, pubic hair or breasts?

A

breasts

119
Q

The onset of puberty determines the ultimate height, _____ puberty means a taller overall height.

A

later

120
Q

The penis will 1st grow in ___ then in ____.

A

length, width

121
Q

Who will have a growth spurt first, boys or girls?

A

girls, but boys ultimately taller

122
Q

What stage of puberty is gynecomastia present?

A

mid-puberty

123
Q

When will boys start growing facial hair?

A

3 years after pubic hair

124
Q

What percent does puberty weight gain account for ideal body weight?

A

50%

125
Q

Overweight girls by 20-30% will have a ____ onset of puberty.

A

earlier

126
Q

Overweight girls by >30% will have a ____ onset of puberty.

A

later

127
Q

In boys, will the limbs or trunk grow first?

A

limbs

128
Q

T/F? A disparity in timing of growth and mineralization increases fracture risk

A

true

129
Q

When is anovulation most common?

A

early cycles

130
Q

Earlier or later onset of perimenopause is correlated with most vasomotor symptoms.

A

later

131
Q

What happens to levels of FSH and estrogen during perimenopause?

A

FSH increases and estrogen decreases (but remember that this is variable)

132
Q

The _____ you enter menopause, the LONGER number of years you have hot flashes

A

EARLIER

133
Q

What is the average duration of hot flashes in females?

A

8.1 years

134
Q

_____ creates a concentration gradient for sperm to follow to reach the oocye

A

Progesterone

135
Q

This type of incontinence is caused by brain or spinal cord damage

A

neurogenic incontinence

136
Q

This type of incontinence is caused by physical stress to external urinary sphincter muscles and pelvic floor muscles

A

stress incontinence

137
Q

This type of incontinence is caused by the feeling of needing to go when you see a bathroom

A

urge incontinence

FOM4 (11 decks)

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