Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The inguinal ligament is formed from the reinforced edge of which muscle’s aponeuroses?

A

external oblique m.

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2
Q

What are the inguinal ligaments attachment sites?

A

ASIS and pubic tubercle

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3
Q

What are the contents of the inguinal canal?

A

spermatic cord (males), round ligament (females), genital branch of genitofemoral n., ilioinguinal n. (exits at superficial ring ONLY)

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4
Q

What are the contents of the lacuna musculorum?

A

iliopsoas m., lateral femoral cutaneous n., femoral n.

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5
Q

What are the contents of the lacuna vasorum?

A

external/internal iliac a./v., femoral ring, femoral branch of genitofemoral n.

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6
Q

~75% of all abdominal and femoral hernias are this type

A

indirect inguinal hernia

This occurs when the peritoneal contents pass through the deep and superficial inguinal rings

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7
Q

~25% of abdominal and femoral hernias are this type and most commonly associated with males older than 40

A

direct inguinal hernia

This is called direct bc it involves tearing of the tissue (tendon of the internal oblique and transversus abdominis m.)

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8
Q
A

E

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9
Q
A

C

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10
Q

Which cell type has a cell wall made of up chitin or cellulose?

A

fungi and plants, respectively

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11
Q

Which cell type has a cell wall made of up peptidoglycan?

A

bacteria

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12
Q

This cell type has 80S ribosomes

A

eurkaryotes

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13
Q

This cell type has 70S ribosomes

A

bacteria

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14
Q

What is the main component of peptidoglycan?

A

sugar and peptide units

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15
Q

What is the name of the bacteria which contain no cell wall?

A

Mycoplasma

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16
Q

Gram-____ bacteria have a cell wall composed of a thin layer of peptidoglycan surrounded by an outer membrane containing lipopolysaccharides (LPS) and lipoproteins.

A

negative

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17
Q

Which gram type of bacteria has a membrane composed of LPS and lipoproteins?

A

gram-negative

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18
Q

Gram-___ bacteria have a cell wall composed of a thick layer of peptidoglycan, which is responsible for retaining the purple dye in the Gram staining method.

A

positive

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19
Q

Which gram type bacteria contains teichoic acid?

A

gram-positive

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20
Q

Which gram-type bacteria contains periplasmic membranes?

A

gram-negative

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21
Q

Do all bacteria contain an outer capsule layer?

A

No

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22
Q

T/F All bacteria have a cytoplasmic membrane

A

true

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23
Q

T/F All bacteria have a peptidoglycan cell wall

A

false

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24
Q

T/F Gram-positives have as important additional feature a periplasmic membrane and LPS

A

false; its gram-negatives

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25
Q

T/F Gram-positives feature wall- and lipoteichoic acid and a thick cell wall

A

true

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26
Q

These are small circular pieces of DNA found in bacteria which contain 5-100 non-essential genes such as abx resistance genes, exotoxin genes, virulence factor genes

A

plasmids

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27
Q

What are the two major subunits of the bacterial ribosome?

A

30S (small) and 50S (large) particles makes up the 70S ribosome

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28
Q

These are the metabolic reserves found in bacteria and they typically store nutrients in a polymerized form (ex: glycogen as a glucose storage)

A

storage granules

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29
Q

What is the name of the protein appendices whose main function is for bacterial cell adhesion?

A

common pili

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30
Q

What is antigenic variation?

A

When bacteria alter their genetic sequence of their tip protein (pili) to evade immune response by the host

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31
Q

What is the name of the specialized pili used in the transfer of DNA? What is this transfer process called?

A

F-pili, conjugation

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32
Q

What is a type III secretion system?

A

It’s a dedicated machine for molecule secretion found in the membrane of bacteria. This system has a hollow needle that injects its effector proteins into the host to serve as a favor for survival

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33
Q

What are type IV secretion systems?

A

Similar to pili systems

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34
Q

What is the name of the dormant bacterial cells which are resistant to starvation, heat, desiccation, freezing, chemical disinfection, UV radiation, and many antibiotics?

A

bacterial endospores

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35
Q

Why are spores so stable?

A

no metabolism and non-reproductive, they also contain dipicolinic acid which dehydrates them

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36
Q

What is the two-component system?

A

the most important mechanism of signal transduction in bacteria

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37
Q

Which layer of the GI tract contains the blood and lymph vessels?

A

submucosa

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38
Q

Which layer of the GI tract lines the lumen?

A

mucosa

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39
Q

What is the name of the “pacemaker” cells of the GI tract?

A

Interstitial cell of Cajal

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40
Q

What are the 2 intrinsic nerve plexuses of the GI tract?

A

submucosal and myenteric plexuses

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41
Q

What is the function of the submucosal plexus?

A

regulates mucosal secretion

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42
Q

Where in the GI tract is the myenteric plexus found?

A

between the circular and longitudinal smooth muscles layers

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43
Q

Which division of the nervous system is responsible for feed forward activation? Which nerve specifically?

A

parasympathetic ns and vagus

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44
Q

As saliva travels in the salivary duct it becomes more hyper- or hypo- tonic?

A

hypertonic (it loses water)

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45
Q

As saliva travels in the salivary duct it becomes deficient in which ions and enriched with which?

A

loses Na+, Cl- and gains K+ and HCO3-

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46
Q

Which gland is responsible for 65% of the saliva production?

A

submandibular gland

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47
Q

Which gland is responsible for 30% of saliva production?

A

parotid gland

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48
Q

Which secretion from the stomach aids in the breakdown of carbohydrates in the stomach?

A

salivary amylase

49
Q

Which secretion from the stomach aids in the breakdown of protein in the stomach?

A

HCl and pepsin

50
Q

What is the effect of NO on the stomach?

A

it is the key NT which acts on the stomach smooth muscle cells to relax (plays a role in the vagovagal reflex)

51
Q

Increase chyme fluidity will have which effect on gastric emptying?

A

increased emptying

52
Q

Increased duodenal distension will ___ gastric emptying

A

decrease (bc duodenum needs time to digest)

53
Q

What effect does cholecystokinin (CCK) have on the stomach?

A

decrease gastric emptying

54
Q

GLP-1 and PYY have which effect on stomach?

A

decrease gastric emptying

55
Q

An acidic chyme will ____ emptying

A

decrease (to not injure SI)

56
Q

A hypertonic chyme will ___ emptying

A

decrease

57
Q

Increased fat in the stomach will ___ emptying

A

decrease

58
Q

What is the most potent inhibitor of gastric emptying?

A

increased fat

59
Q

Which cells of the stomach secrete HCl?

A

parietal cells

60
Q

Which cells of the stomach secrete pepsinogen?

A

chief cells

61
Q

Which cells of the stomach secrete Intrinsic factor?

A

parietal cells

62
Q

Which molecule secreted by the stomach aids in absorption of vitamin B12?

A

intrinsic factor

63
Q

Which cells of the stomach secrete gastrin?

A

G cells

64
Q

Which molecule secreted by the stomach stimulates histamine and HCl release from ECL/parietal cells and pepsinogen release from chief cells?

A

gastrin

65
Q

Which proteolytic enzyme secreted by the pancreas is responsible for cleavage of basic residues?

A

trypsinogen

66
Q

Which proteolytic enzyme secreted by the pancreas is responsible for cleavage between aromatic residues as well as leucine, glutamine, and methionine?

A

chymotrypsinogen

67
Q

Which proteolytic enzyme secreted by the pancreas is responsible for cleavage of C-terminal aromatic and neutral aliphatic residues?

A

carboxypeptidase A

68
Q

Which proteolytic enzyme secreted by the pancreas is responsible for cleavage of C-terminal basic residues?

A

carboxypeptidase B

69
Q

Which pancreatic exocrine secretion is vital for triglyceride catabolism?

A

lipase

70
Q

This is a key hormone released from the duodenal mucosa in response to the presence of fats and amino acids in the small intestine

A

CCK

71
Q

Which cells does CCK act on in the pancreas? What is the effect?

A

acinar cells to increase digestive enzyme output

72
Q

In response to a decrease in pH detected in the duodenum, what will the pancreas secrete? What is the effect?

A

secretin to cause duct cells to increase bicarbonate output

73
Q

What is the name of the resident macrophages of the liver>

A

Kuppfer cells

74
Q

What is the role of the hepatic portal vein?

A

carries nutrients from the small intestine to the liver

75
Q

What is the name of the capillaries which carry blood from the portal vein and hepatic artery to the central vein in the lobule in liver?

A

sinusoid

76
Q

What is the sphincter of Oddi?

A

regulates delivery of hepatic and pancreatic secretions to duodenum

77
Q

This is a double layer of peritoneum and houses neurovascular structures. It connects the posterior body wall and organ allowing it to be mobile.

A

mesentery

78
Q

Of the peritoneal ligaments, which are considered a part of the lesser omentum (along the lesser curvature of the stomach)

A

hepatogastric ligament and hepatoduodenal ligament

79
Q

Is the pancreas a retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal organ?

A

retroperitoneal

80
Q

Is the ascending and descending colon a retroperitoneal or intraperitoneal organ?

A

retroperitoneal

81
Q

What are the branches of the celiac trunk?

A

left gastric a., splenic a., common hepatic a.

82
Q

At which spinal level can you find the celiac trunk?

A

T11-L1

83
Q

What is the arterial supply of the stomach?

A

L/R gastric aa., L/R gastro-omental aa, short gastric aa

84
Q

What is the venous drainage of the stomach?

A

L/R gastric vv., L/R gastro-omental vv.

85
Q

What is the arterial supply of the pancreas?

A

splenic a. and its two main branches the greater pancreatic a. and the dorsal pancreatic a.

86
Q

What is the arterial and venous supply of the 1st and 2nd part of duodenum?

A

supraduodenal a/v, gastroduodenal a/v, pancreaticoduodenal a/v

87
Q

What is the arterial supply of the spleen?

A

splenic a. and short gastric aa.

88
Q

Embryologically, the stomach starts as a tubular structure and the dorsal border becomes which curvature?

A

greater (it grows faster)

89
Q

What is the name of the ligament which separates the right and left lobes of the liver?

A

falciform ligament

90
Q

Which smaller lobe of the liver is adjacent to the IVC?

A

caudate lobe

91
Q

Which smaller lobe of the liver is adjacent to the gallbladder?

A

quadrate lobe

92
Q

The remnant of the umbilical vein is what?

A

ligamentum teres

93
Q

The remnant of the ductus venosus is what?

A

ligamentum venosum

94
Q

What is the name of the artery which supplies the gallbladder?

A

cystic a.

95
Q

What contents are found within the triangle of calot?

A

cystic duct, cystic a., common hepatic duct, liver

96
Q

Which sympathetic nerves innervate the liver and where do they originate?

A

celiac and hepatic plexuses which originate from the thoracic splanchnic nerves

97
Q

The gut tube is lined internally with which embryological tissue?

A

endoderm

98
Q

Which embryological tissue surrounds the gut tube?

A

splanchnic lateral plate mesoderm

99
Q

Above the pectinate line, the epithelium of the gut tube is derived from which embryological tissue?

A

endoderm

100
Q

Below the pectinate line, the epithelium of the gut tube is derived from which embryological tissue?

A

ectoderm

101
Q

What is recanalization?

A

the process of vacuoles (openings) being added to the solid gut tube to create a lumen

102
Q

What is pyloric stenosis?

A

narrowing of the pyloric sphincter which manifests in projectile vomiting; No bile present

103
Q

Would you expect to find bile present in duodenal stenosis/atresia?

A

yes

104
Q

Describe the rotation of the foregut? What is its axis of rotation?

A

Foregut rotates 90 degrees counterclockwise and its axis is the SMA

105
Q

How many degrees does the midgut rotate and what is its axis?

A

total 270 degrees, superior mesenteric artery is its axis

106
Q

If a fetus presents with small intestine bunched to right side and large intestine bunched to left side then what can you concur about the rotation of the gut?

A

absence of rotation

107
Q

If a fetus presents with its SMA compressing the transverse colon and the duodenum sits anterior to the transverse colon then what can you concur about the rotation of the gut?

A

revered rotation

108
Q

If a fetus presents with the gut twisted in on itself causing constriction that prevents chyme from passing through then what can you concur about the rotation of the gut?

A

volvulus

109
Q

What is the medical term for failure of the gut tube to retract into the abdomen?

A

omphalocele

110
Q

Describe the 4 layers that make up the alimentary canal

A

Outer
1. serosa/adventitia
2. muscularis (responsible for peristalsis)
3. submucosa (vasculature)
4. mucosa
Inner

111
Q

At the lower esophageal sphincter there is an abrupt change of tissue cell type. What is the change?

A

From protective stratified squamous epithelium to secretory simple columnar epithelium

112
Q

What makes the esophageal sphincter prone to hiatal hernia?

A

with age the elastic fibers in the phrenoesophageal membrane and the diaphragm can become weak

113
Q

What portion of the stomach is this from?

A

cardia bc these glands predominantly produce mucous and lack parietal and chief cells. you can also tell because the gastric pit is shallow

114
Q

What is the name of the mucous glands of the duodenum which produce alkaline mucous to neutralize stomach acidity?

A

Brunner’s glands

115
Q

What structural component is unique to bacterial cell walls and provides rigidity and shape to the cell?

A

peptidoglycan

116
Q

A glycocalyx is also known as what?

A

bacterial capsule

117
Q

_____ epidemiology aims to investigate cause-and-effect relationships, often by testing specific hypotheses. It examines associations between exposures and outcomes to identify potential risk factors, protective factors, or causal relationships.

A

Analytical

Examples include case-control or cohort studies

118
Q

______ epidemiology involves collecting and analyzing data to describe the distribution of health-related events or diseases within a population. It focuses on “what,” “where,” “when,” and “who” without delving into causality or mechanisms of action.

A

Descriptive

Examples include cross-sectional studies

119
Q

How do you calculate cumulative incidence (CI)?

A

CI = # of new cases of disease/# of people at risk for disease