Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health > Week 6 part 1 > Flashcards

Week 6 part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What do the majority of arteries of pelvis and perineum arise from?

A

Internal iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the exceptions for arteries supplying perineum coming from internal iliac?

A

Gonadal artery - L2 abdo aorta

Superior rectal artery - continuation of inferior mesenteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

wHAT Divisions does internal iliac split into?

A

[psterioor and anterior division (anterior usually visceral and posterior usually parietal)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the median umbilical ligament a remnant of which connected internal iliac to placetna through umbilical cord?

A

Umbilical artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What artery of perineum is only present in males and its alternative in females is vaginal artery?

A

Inferior vesical artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Internal iliac splits into anterior and posterior divisions - what comes from posterior division?

A

PILLS - posterior, iliolubar artery, lateral sacral arteries, superior gluteal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A branch of what artery goes to supply prostate?

A

Prostatic branch of inferior vesical artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the trhee umbilical folds?

A
  1. Lateral umbilical fold - inferior epigastric vessels
  2. Medial umbilical fold - remnant of umbilical artery
  3. Median umbilical fold - urachus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What does anterior scrotal artery branch form?

A

External iliac artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What artery does middle rectal artery come off?

A

Internal pudendal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the uterine artery in females a homolog of?

A

Artery to vas deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Between whast two female arteries does an anastomosis occur between?

A

Uterine artery and ovarian artery

Uterine artery and vaginal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What two branches does ovarian artery split into?

A

Tubual branch

Ovarian branch - gives ovaries dual blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Where does venous drainage from pelvis mainly drain to?

A

Internal iliac vein - some via superior rectal to hepatic protal system, some via lateral sacral veins to internal vertebral venous plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sciatic nerve roots?

A

L4-S3, splits into tibial and common fibular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What lymph nodes does superior pelvic viscera go to?

A

External iliac nodes

Common liac, aortic, thoracic duct, venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What lymph nodes does inferior pelvic viscera go to?

A

Internal iliac nodes

Common iliac, aortic, thoracic duct, venous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What lymph nodes does superficial perineum go to?

A

Superficial inguinal nodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What nerve supplies perineum?

A

Pudendal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the commonest investigation n gynaecology/

A

Ultrasound - no ionising radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Does the patient need a full bladder for transabfdomnal ultrasound?

A

YES - Acts as an acoustic window, distended bladder displaceds gas filled bowel loops out of pelvis (gas scatters ultrqsound beam and degrades image wuality)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Higher frequency ultrasound has a shorter wavelength and better spatial resolution, but…….
…. Higher frequencies are more likely to be scattered in the body and the ultrasound transducer has to be close to the target organ

A

Transvaginal scanning - need empty bladder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Young Patient who gets admitted to a&e with acute abdominal pain that passes after 6 hours.

A

Ruptured ovarian cyst

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is second line investigation after ultrasound in patients presenting with acute abdominal pain?

A

CT scan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What imaging is used for staging of gynaecological malignancy, especially ovarian and endometrial cancers?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the only fatty lesion in dermatology?

A

Dermoid cyst - confirmed on CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

wHAT ENERGY does MRI use?

A

Radiofrequency energy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What does MRI give poor depiction of?

A

Lung parenchyma - CT scan instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What cancer is staged using MRI?

A

Cervical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Endometriosis is difficult to diagnose so patients may need what?

A

Diagnostic laparoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is used for assessment of tubal patency in patients with infertility?

A

Hysterosalpingography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What cancer are ascites, omental and peritoneal noduels common in?

A

Ovarian cancer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

StGING of ovarian cancer uses what imaging?

A

CT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is best method for extablishing abnormally thickened endometrium in post menopausal patient with PMB?

A

Transvaginal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Average age of menopause?

A

51

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Early menopause definition?

A

LESS than 45, premature is less than 40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Late menopause defnition?

A

Over 54

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What cells secrete oestrogens?

A

Granulosa cells

39
Q

What hormone proliferates endometrium, secondary sexual characteristics, hair distribution, body shape and fat distribution?

A

Oestrogen

40
Q

What three factors can raise FSH and LH?

A

Prior to ovulation
Raised with stopping COCOP or dep
Raised with breastfeeding or SSRIs

41
Q 
Hot flushes - 60-80% women, average 2 yrs, last 3-5 mins
Night sweats
Palpitations
Insomnia
Joint aches
Headaches
A

Menopause

42
Q

6 treatments for menorrhagia in menopause?

A
  1. Mefenamic acid
  2. Tranexamic acid
  3. Protesterones
  4. Intrauterine system
  5. Endometrial ablation
  6. Hysterectomy
43
Q

List some benefits of HRT in menopause?

A
  1. Symptom control
  2. Reduced osteoporotc fracture
  3. Reduced bowel cancer
  4. Possibly protective alzheimers
44
Q

List some disadvantages of HRT for menopause?

A

Breast cancer

Gallbladder disease

45
Q

Give two uterine causes for DUB?

A
  1. Endometrial polyps

2. Endometrial hyperplasia

46
Q

When do endometrial [polpys often occur?

A

Around/after menopause

47
Q

What might persistent oestrogen stimulation cause?

A

Endometrial hyperplasia

48
Q

Peak incidence of endometrial carcinoma?

A

50-60 years - in young women consider underlying predisposition e.g. PCOS or lynch syndrome

49
Q

What are most endometrial carcinomas/

A

Adenocarcinomas

50
Q

What are the two main clinico-pathological types of endometrial carcinoma?

A
  1. Endometriod - type I 80%

2. Serous (and clear cell) - type II

51
Q

What are endometrioid carcinomas related to and associated with?

A

Related to unopposed oestrogen

Associated with atypical hyperplasia

52
Q

What type of endometrial carcinoma: Not associated with unopposed oestrogen
Affect elderly post‐menopausal women
TP53 often mutated

A

Serous (and all clear cell, type II tumours)

53
Q

What endometrial type tumours have PTEN, KRAS and PIK3CA mutations, associated with atypical hyperplasia as precurosr lesion, microsatellite instability

A

Type I tumours - endometrioid and micunous

54
Q

Known risk factor for endometrial cancer?

A

Obesity - associated with endocrine and infalmmatory effects of adipose tissue, adipocytes express aromatase that converts ovarian androgens into oestrogens - inducing proliferation of endometrium

55
Q

What is Lynch syndrome?

A

Cancer predisposition syndrome - high risk of colorectal cancer, endometrial cancerand ovarian.

56
Q

What is inheritance like in Lynch syndrome?

A

Due to defective DNA mismatch repair gene, autosomal dominant inheritance

57
Q

What do lynch syndrome tumours show which is a characteristic of defective mismatch repair?

A

Microsatellite instability MSI

58
Q

wHAT TYPE of endometrial carcinoma has TP53 mutation and overexpression?

A

Type II - serous and clear cell phenotypes

59
Q

What is precursor lesion for endometrial carcinoma type II ?

A

Serous endometrial intraepithelial carcinoma

60
Q

Which type of endometrial carcinoma is more aggressive?

A

Type II - serous and clear cell

61
Q

Characterised by a complex papillary and/or glandular archietecture with diffuse, marked nuclear pleomorphism

A

Serous carcinoma of endometrium

62
Q

Treatment of endometrial carcinoma?

A

Hysterectomy: chemo/radiotherapy

63
Q

Endometrioid carcinoma are primarily graded by architecture - what are the three grades?

A
  1. 5% or less solid growth
  2. 6-50% solid growth
  3. > 50% solid growth
64
Q

What is description of stage I endometrial cancer?

A

COnfiend to uterus

65
Q

What stage of endometrial cancer does it involve vaginal or parametrial involvement?

A

IIIB, IIIC is metastases to pelvic and/or paraaortic lymph nodes

66
Q

What endometrial cancaer? Heterologous elements commonly seen in about 50% cases (rhabdomyosarcoma, chrondrosarcoma, osteosarcoma)
The presence of a rhabdomyosarcomatous component has the worst prognosis

A

Carcinosarcoma

67
Q

A malignant smooth muscle tumour commonly displaying a spindle cell morphology

A

Leiomyosarcoma - the most common uterine sarcoma

68
Q

What type of ovarian cysts are polycyctic ovaries?

A

Follicular

69
Q

Chocolate cyst?

A

Endometriosis on ovary

70
Q

Peritoneal spots or nodules
Fibrous adhesions
Chocolate cysts

A

Ovarian endometriosis

71
Q

What are epithelial ovarian tumours catogorised as?

A

Benign, borderline or malignant

72
Q

What epithelial ovarian tumour class is this: no cytological abnormalities, proliferative activity absent, no stromal invasion?

A

Benign

73
Q

What epithelial ovarian tumour class is this: cytological abnomralities, proliferative, no stromal invation

A

Borderline

74
Q

What epithelial ovarian tumour class is this: stromal invasion?

A

Malignant

75
Q

What are the two types of serous carcinoma of ovary?

A

High grade

Low grade

76
Q

What grade of serous carcinoma of ovary involves serous tubal intraepithelial carcinoma?

A

hIGH grade

77
Q

What are endometrioid and clear cell carcinoma of ovary strongly associated iwth?

A

Endometriosis of ovary

Lynch syndrome

78
Q

What is the diagnosis of endometrioiud and clear cell ovarian carcinoma often made on?

A

Ascitic fluid

79
Q

An ovarian tumour of transitional type epithelium, usually benign

A

Brenner tumour

80
Q

Give two types of germ cell ovarian tumours?

A

Dermoid cyst - mature, benign, cystic

Teratoma

81
Q

What are 95% of ovarian germ cell tumours?

A

Dermoid cysts - cystic, containing sebum and hair

82
Q

most common malignant primitive germ cell tumour
1-2% of all malignant ovarian tumours
Almost exclusively children and young women, average age 22

A

Dysgerminoma

83
Q

A type of ovarian sex cord/stromal tumour which is benign, may produce oestrogen causing uterine bleeding?

A

Fibroma/thecoma

84
Q

What ovarian sex cord/stromal tumours are rare and may produce androgens?

A

Sertoli-Leydig cell tumours

85
Q

What must be considered in all cases of ovarian tumours if they are bilateral and small?

A

Metastatic tumours - stomach, colon, breast, pancreas

86
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is IA

A

tumour confined to one ovary

87
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is IB

A

tumour confined to both ovaries

88
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is IC

A

Cancer involving ovarian surface/rupture/siurgical split/tumour in washings

89
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is 2A

A

extension or implants on uterus/fallopian tube

90
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is 2b

A

Extension to other pelvic intraperitoneal

91
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is 3A

A

Cancer cells in lining of abdomen, retroperitoneal lymph node metastasis

92
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is 3b

A

tumours of 2cm or smaller in lining of abdomen

93
Q

In FIGO staging of ovarian cancer - what is 4

A

Distant metastasis

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions