Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health > Week 1 > Flashcards

Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What does pelvic girdle not include?

A

Coccyx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is each hip bone a fusion between?

A
  1. Ilium
  2. Ischium
  3. Pubis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What muscle attaches to iliac fossa?

A

Iliacus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is part of both ischium and pubis?

A

Ischiopubic ramus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What part of ischium to yo sit on?

A

Ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What attaches at pubic tubercle?

A

Inguinal ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What type of joint is pubic symphysis?

A

Secondary Cartilaginous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the inguinal ligament attach between?

A

ASIS and pubic tubercle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

On vaginal examination what can be felt at 4 and 8 o clock positions?

A

Ischial spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What ligament attaches between sacrum and iscjhial spine?

A

Sacrospinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does sacrotuberous ligament attach to?

A

Sacrum and ischial tuberosity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What ligaments ensure the inferior part of sacrum is not pushed superiorly when weight is suddenly transferred vertically through the vertebral column (jumping/late pregnancy)?

A

Sacrotuberous ligament

Sacrospinous ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

At what point in pregnancy do sacrospinous and sacrotuberous ligaments relax?

A

Later pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What do the sacrospinous ligament and sacrotuberous ligament form?

A

Lesser and greater sciatic foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is a straddle injury?

A

Fracture of all four pubic rami

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is at risk of damage in trauma to bony pelvis?

A

Common iliac artery + common iliac vein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What diamteres of the female pelvis are larger than the males both at pelvic inlet and outlet?

A

AP

Transverse diamters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Is the subpubic angle or pubic arch in female wider than male?

A

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What can be said about the pelvic cavity in a female?

A

Shallower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the vertex (fetal skul0?

A

Area of foetal skull: oiutlined by anterior and posterior fontanelles and the parietal eminences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is longer - occipitofrontal diamter or biparietal diamter in foetal skull?

A

Occipitofrontal - foetal head longer than it is wide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

At the pelvic inlet what diamter is wider- AP or transverse?

A

Transverse - foetus enters pelvic cavity facing either right or left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the distance of the foetal head from ichial spine referred to as?

A

Station - negative number means head is superor to spines, positive number means head is inferior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

When descending through the pelvic cavity what should be said about foetal head?

A

Rotate

Flexed position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

At the pelvic outlet the AP diamter is wider than transverse diameter so baby should ideally leave cavity in what position?

A

Occipitoanterior OA position and head in extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the term for any treatment in which involves gametes outside the body?

A

Assisted conception treatment ACT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the biggest cause of infertility?

A

Male factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the alcohol limit for treatment ACT?

A

limit up to 4 units a week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What blood borne viruses are screened for in ACT?

A

Hep B/C

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How do you assess ovarian reserve?

A

Antral follicle count or AMH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

a simple procedure that uses a syringe to place semen into a woman’s vagina to assist her in getting pregnant?

A

Donor insemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

a fertility treatment that involves placing sperm inside a woman’s uterus to facilitate fertilization. The goal ofIUIis to increase the number of sperm that reach the fallopian tubes and subsequently increase the chance of fertilization?

A

Intra-uterine Insemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Duringwhat, are mature eggs are collected (retrieved) from your ovaries andfertilizedby sperm in a lab

A

IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

An in vitro fertilization procedure in which a singlespermisinjected directly into an egg?Defectivespermfunction remains the single most important cause of human infertility.

A

Intracytoplasmic sperm injection ICSI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What fertility treatment can be used for unexplained infertility, mild or moderate endometriosis and mild male factor infertility?

A

Intra Uterine Insemination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What fertility treatment is indicated in unexplained greater than 2 years duration, pelvic disease including tubual disease, anovulatory infertility, male factor infertility and pre-implantation genetic diagnosis?

A

IVF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is given as an injection to reduce cancellation from ovulation and allows precise timing of oocyte recovery by using HCG trigger?

A

Down regulation using synthetic gonadotrophin releasing hormone agonist

38
Q

Name three side effects of synthetic gonadotrophin releasing hormone?

A

Hot flushes and mood swings
Nasal irritation
Headaches

39
Q

What does injection of gonadotrophin hormone with (FSH or LH) cause?

A

Ovarain stimulation including Foolicular development

40
Q

Name some side effects of ovarian stimulation?

A

Mild allergic reactions

Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome

41
Q

What four things are looked for in assessment of sperm?

A
  1. Volume
  2. Density
  3. Motility
  4. Progression
42
Q

What state of human embryo implants?

A

Blastocyst

43
Q

How many embryos are normally transferred?

A

1 - then luteal support (progesterone) is given.

44
Q

What fertility treatment is indicated in severe male factor ifertility, previous failed IVF and preimplantation genetic diagnosis?

A

Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

45
Q

Name a complication of assisted reproduction techniques?

A

Ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome

46
Q

Abdominal pain/bloating
Nausea/diarrhoea
Breathlessness

47
Q

If a patient gets OHSS after embryo transfer how is it treated?

A
  1. Antithrombotic - TED stockings and fragmin
48
Q

Is multiple pregnancy common in IVF?

49
Q

What involves downregulation, ovarian stimulation, oocyte retrieval, embryo transfer and luteal support?

50
Q

What is the highly vascular region of the ovary?

51
Q

What arteries enter the hilum of the ovary from the braod ligament and supply blood to the organ?

A

Helicine arteries

52
Q

Where is the common site for ovarian cancer?

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

53
Q

Underneath the ovary’s simple cuboidal epithelium, what is the dense connective tissue called?

A

tunica albuginea

54
Q

Early in embryonic development (around week 6) germ cells from the yolk sac invade the ovaries and proliferate by mitosis to form what?

55
Q

What do oogonia undergo development and division via meiosis to form?

A

Mature oocytes or ova

56
Q

What is the term for the development of oocytes, the female germ cells, from oogonia?

57
Q

What is folliculogenesis?

A

Growth of follicle, which consists of the oocyte and any associated support cells

58
Q

What is the name of the process that is loss of oogonia and oocytes?

59
Q

Before birth, meiosis begins in the oocyte, but halts at what phase?

A

Prophase I

60
Q

What happens if the oocyte fails to associate with pregranulosa cells (follicel cells)?

61
Q

Initially the pregranulosa cells in a primoirdial follicle are squamous but what happens to them when follicle enters growth phase?

A

They become cuboidal

62
Q

In a primary follicle, stromal cells associate with the outside of the follicle and go on to from what?

63
Q

What special layer forms between the oocyte and the granulosa cells in a primary follicle?

A

Zona pellucida

64
Q

The theca interna secretes oestrogen precurosrs which are converted to oestrogen by what?

A

Granulosa cells

65
Q

In follicular development a space called the antrum forms and enlarges in the granulosa layer to form what?

A

Secondary follicle

66
Q

What are the very largest antral follicles called?

A

Graafian follicles

67
Q

One day before ovulation (release of oocyte from follicle) what happens to the largest Graafian follicle?

A

It completes meiosis 1 and produces one cell called a secondary oocyte

68
Q

Once the secondary oocyte begins second phase of meiosis where does it stop/

A

Metaphase II

69
Q

After ovulation what happens to the follicle?

A

It turns into corpus luteum with the theca and granulosa cells secreting oestrogen and progesterone

70
Q

If no implantation occurs what happens to corpus luteum?

A

Becomes corpus albicans

71
Q

If implantation occurs what does the placenta secrete to prevent degeneration of corpus luteum?

A

HCG - maintains progesterone levels

72
Q

Where does fertilisation usually occur in uterine tube?

73
Q

What part of uterine tube has folded mucosa and lined by simple columnar epithelium with ciliated cells and secretory cells?

74
Q

What part of uterine tube has epithelium lining mostly secretory with few ciliated cells?

75
Q

What are the three layers of uterus?

A
  1. Endometrium
  2. Myometrium
  3. Perimetrium
76
Q

What are the two layers of the endometrium and which one sheds?

A

Stratum Functionalis - sheds

Stratum Basalis

77
Q

What phase of the uterus involves glands becoming coiled with corkscrew appearance and secreting glycogen?

A

Secretory phase

78
Q

During what phase do arterioles in the functionalis undergo constriction, depriving the tissue of blood and causing ischemia, with resultant tissue breakdown, leakage of blood and tissue sloughing?

A

Menstrual phase

79
Q

On the cervix vaginal surface it has stratified squamous epithelium - what covers the transitioning?

A

Simple columnar epithelium

80
Q

What zone does cervical cancer most frequently occur in?

A

Transition zone

81
Q

Four layers of vagina?

A
  1. Non-keratinised stratified squamous epithelium
  2. Lamina propria
  3. Fibromuscular layer
  4. Adventitia
82
Q

What prevents growth of pathogenic bacteria in vagina?

A

Commensal bacteria metabolising glycogen to lactic acid

83
Q

Keratinized epithelium extends into the opening of the vagina to the level of the hymen, where there is a transition to non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium?

A

Labia minora

84
Q

Contains two tubes of erectile vascular tissue (corpora cavernosa), covered by a fibrocollagenous sheath covered by skin with rich innervation and a thin epidermis.

85
Q

In relation to issues specfiic to infertiltiy, what is there a right for?

A

To procreate

86
Q

In law, how long is embryo research permitted up to?

A

14 days (when primitive streak appears), but abortion permissible up to 24 weeks

87
Q

Name a few guidelines for NHS funded fertiltiy treatment in Scotland?

A
  1. Unexplained infertility of at least 2 years
  2. Female partner under age of 40
  3. Female BMI between 18.5 and 30
  4. Both partners non smoking
  5. Both partners abstain from illegal substances
  6. Neither partner should drink before treatment
  7. Not have a genetic child
88
Q

Give 5 examples of code of practice from Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority?

A
  1. Right to people getting proper consideration of their request
  2. Concerns for welfare of child
  3. Pleimplantation tissue typing
  4. Sex selection for medical conditions
  5. Embryo with 2 genetic mother for mitochondrial disease
89
Q

What are the four ethical values

A
  1. Autonomy - right to desicion
  2. Beneficence - best interset
  3. Non maleficence - do no harm
  4. Justice - fairness and equality
90
Q

When discussing reproductive ethics what 4 considerations must be made?

A
  1. Is it legal?
  2. Is it practical?
  3. Do we have all appropriate information?
  4. Is treatment ethical for all involved (principles)

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions