Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health > Week 3 part 2 > Flashcards

Week 3 part 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What kind of nerves are involved in pelvic floor muscle contraction e.g. during sneezing?

A

Somatic motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Uterine cramping/menstruation and contraction involve what types of nerve?

A

Sympathetic/parasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What carries pain from pelvic part of vagina and from perineum?

A

Pelvic vagina - visceral afferents

Perineal vagina - somatic sensory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Pain runs alongside what fibres in inferior aspect of pelvic organs (not touching perititneum) and in what fibres when touching the peritoneum?

A

Inferior - parasympathetic fibres

Superior - sympathetic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Name two structures crossing from pelvis to perineum?

A

Urethra

Vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What fibres deal with pain sensation above levator ani (pelvis)

A

Patasympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What fibres deal with pain sensation below levator ani (perineum)?

A

Pudendal nerve

S2-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Visceral afferents for pain travel back to T11-L2 from pelvic organs which touch the peritoneum. Give three of these structures? (sympathetic)

A

Uterine tubes
uTERUS
Ovaries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the cervix and superior vagina where do pain sensation visceral afferents travel back to?

A

S2-S4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

In relation to spinal and epidural anaesthetic: at what level does s[inal cord become cauda equina?

A

L2 vertebra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When does subarachnoid space end?

A

Level of S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In relation to spinal and epidural anaesthetic: what region is anaesthetic injected into?

A

L3-L4 region (L4 spinous process at most superior point on iliac crest)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Where does needle pass through for spinal anaesthetic?

A 
supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)
dura mater
arachnoid mater
finally reaches subarachnoid space (contains CSF)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does needle pass through for epidural?

A

supraspinous ligament
interspinous ligament
ligamentum flavum
epidural space (fat and veins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What do all spinal nerves and their named nerves contain?

A

Sympathetic fibres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you know if spinal anaesthetic is working?

A

Blockade of sympahtetic tone to all arterioles leading to vasodilation. Skin of lower limbs looks flushed, warm and reduced sweating
HYPOTENSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The pudendal nerve exits pelvis via … It passes posterior to … ligament. It reenters via … It travels in pudendal canal (passageway within … with … artery and vein), also nerve to obturator internus

A 
Greater sciatic foramen
Sacrospinous ligament
Lesses sciatic foramen
Obturator fascia
Internal pudendal artery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What landmark is used for administration of pudendal nerve block?

A

Ischial spines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During labour damage to what nerve and muscle could occur?

A

Pudendal nerve stretched
Excternal anal spincter muscle torn when weakened
Faecal incontinence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In an episiotomy - where is the mediolateral incision made into?

A

Ischioanal fossa (fat filled)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What triggers male/female differentiation?

A

Germ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the origin of male duct system?

A

Mesonephric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is origin of female duct system?

A

Paramesonephric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What controls descent of the testis?

A

Gubernaculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What do the paramesonephric ducts fuse to create?

A

Broad ligament of the uterus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Name three methods of doing a DNA or chromosome test on baby in utero?

A

Placenta - chorionic villus biopsy (good tissue)
Skin/urine cells - amniocentesis (poor tiossue)
Blood - fetal blood sampling (good tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

When can chorionic villus biopsy and amniocentesis be performed?

A

CVS - 12 weeks

Amniocentesis - 15 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

When can fetal blood samplimg be done?

A

18+ weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

fetal blood sampling miscarriage risk?

A

2%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What fetal DNA method of testing has a risk of confined placental mosaicism?

A

CVS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When can fetal DNA from maternal blood test be done?

A

8+ weeks (stable tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

A method to analyse whole genome?

A

Array CGH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

A method to analyse targeted genome?

A

FISH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

If ther eis high risk of chromosomal trisomyt on screening, fetal abnormality on scanning, and balanced chromosomal rearrangement in parent what should be done?

A

Array CGH or chromosome analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Name a method of non-invasibe prenatal testing (currently - sex determination and trisomy testing)?

A

Free fetal DNA in maternal circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Trisomy 13

A

Patau syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

45 X
Neck webbing
Oedema

A

Turner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Bilateral cleft lip

Postaxial polydactyly

A

Patau syndrome trisomy 13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is a robertsonian translocation?

A

Two acrocentric chromosomes stick end to end

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Robertsian translocation trisomy 14

A

Misscarriage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the two broad catagoeries for the small baby?

A
  1. Pre term delivery

2. Small for gestational age (intra uterine growth restriction/constitutionally small)

42
Q

Definition of preterm birht?

A

Delivery between 24 and 36.6 weeks

43
Q

What are survival rates for pre-term borht at 24 weeks and 32 weeks?

A

24 - 20/30%

32 - greater than 95%

44
Q

Give two causes of over distension that can lead to pre-term birht?

A

Multipel pregnanyc

Polyhydramnios

45
Q

Give a vascular cause of pre-term birht?

A

Placental abruption

46
Q

If you’ve had a pre term labour once before what is riks and what is risk if twice before?

A

Once - 20%
Twice - 40%

multiple pregnancies - 50% risk

47
Q

What is a pregnant women who has uterine anomalies, is a teenager, smokes, does cocaine and is skinny have an increased risk of?

A

Pre term birth

48
Q

Infant with a birthweight that is less than 10th centile for gestation corrected for maternal height, weight, fetal sex and birth order.

A

Small for Gestational Age

49
Q

Give three fetal factors for poor growth?

A
  1. Infection e.g. rubella, CMV, toxoplasma
  2. Congenital anomalies e.g. absent kidneys
  3. Chromosomal abnormalities e.g. Downs
50
Q

What are placental factors causing poor growth often secondary to?

A

Hypertension

51
Q

describe symmetrical IUGR?

A

Small head

Small abdomen

52
Q

describe asymmetrical IUGR

A

Normal head

Small abdomen

53
Q

What four things are done to assess fetal wellbeing?

A
  1. Assessment of growth
  2. Cardiotocography
  3. Biophysical assessment
  4. Ultrasound (umbilical arterial dioppler)
54
Q

Are accelerations on CTG good or bad?

A

Good - indicates good reflex reactivity of the fetal circulation

55
Q

Normal doppler ultrasound in pregnancy will show what?

A

Continuous high forward flow at the end of diastole

56
Q

Is IUGR a public health concern?

A

Yes

57
Q

What can monochorionic twin pregnancy, fetal anomaly, maternal diabetes, hydrops fetalis all cause which leads to large for dates pregnancy?

A

Polyhydramnios

58
Q

Discomfort
Labour
Membrane Rupture
Cord prolapse

A

Polyhydramnios

Diagnose with ultrasound

59
Q

Are Monochorionic / monozygous twins at higher risk of pregnancy complications ?

A

Yes

60
Q

Lamda sign on US?

A

Diachorionic twins

61
Q

Exaggerated pregnancy symptoms e.g. excessive sickness
High AFP
Large for dates uterus

A

Multiple pregnancy

62
Q

Give three consequences of maternal diabetes?

A
  1. Overgrowth of insulin sensitive tissues and macrosomia
  2. hYPOXIC STATE in utero
  3. Fetal metabolic reprogramming leading to long term diabetes and obesity risk
63
Q

What is diagnosis of Gestation diabetes based on?

A

GTT at 28 weeks
Fasting greater than 5.1
2 hours greater than 8.5

64
Q

In mother with diabetes in pregnancy what scan is offered at 18 weeks?

A

Fetal anomaly

65
Q

What is the transformation zone of cervix?

A

Squamo-columnar junctioj between ectocervical squamous and endocervical columnar epithelia

66
Q

Exposure of delicate endocervical epithelium to acid environment of vagina leads to physiological squamous metaplasia.

A

Cervical erosion or ectropion

67
Q

What occurs sometimes when when stratified squamous epithelium of the ectocervix (toward the vagina) grows over the simple columnar epithelium of the endocervix (toward the uterus)?

A

Nabothian follicles

68
Q

sub epithelial reactive lymphoid follicles present in cervix.

A

Follicular cervicitis

69
Q

Is a cervical polyp pre malignant?

A

No

70
Q

Give the two major types of cervical cancer?

A

Squamous carcinoma

Adenocarcinoma

71
Q

What do HPV 16 and 18 cause?

A

Cervical cancer

72
Q

What triples the risk of cervical cancer?

A

Smoking

73
Q

Vulnerability of SC junction in early reproductive age can increase risk for cervical cancer - name three?

A
  1. Age at first intercourse
  2. Long term oral contraceptive use
  3. Non-use of barrier contraception
74
Q

What types of HPV cause genital warts?

A

6 and 11

75
Q

What causes condyloma acuminatum?

A

Thickened papillomatous squaous epithelium with cytoplasmic vacuolation (koilocytosis) - HPV

76
Q

wHAT DOES HIGH RISK hpv TYPES 16 and 18 lead to?

A

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia

77
Q

What is detected in cervical smears to indicate cervical intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Infected epithelium remains flat, but shows koilocytosis

78
Q

What is the time line for HPV infection causing high grade CIN

A

6 months - 3 years

79
Q

What is the time line for high grade CIN causing invasive cance?

A

5-20 years

80
Q

What is the preinvasive stage of cervical cancer?

A

Cervical Intraepithelial Neoplasia

81
Q

Where does CIN occur?

A

At transformation zone

82
Q

What three things are assessed in histology of CIN?

A
  1. Delay in maturation/differentiation (immature basal cells occupy)
  2. Nuclear abnormalities (hyperchromasia, increased NC ration, pleomorphism)
  3. Excess mitotic activity (above basal layers, abnormal mitotic forms)
83
Q

What stage of CIN is: basal 1/3 of epithelium occupied by abnormal cells, raised mitotic figures in lower 1/3, surface cells quite mature but nuclei slightly abnormal?

A

CIN I

84
Q

What stage of CIN is: abnormal cells extend to middle 1/3, mitoses in middle 1/3, abnormal mitotic figures?

A

CIN II

85
Q

What stage of CIN is: Abnormal cells occupy full thickness of epithelium, mitoses, often abnormal in upper 1/3?

A

CIN III

86
Q

What are 75-95% of malignant cervica tumours? and the 2nd commonest female cancer worldside?

A

Invasive Squamous Carcinoma

87
Q

What does invasive squamous carcinoma develop from ?

A

Pre-existing CIN, therefore most cases preventable by screening

88
Q

Stage IB ISC?

A

Confined to cervix

89
Q

Name some symptoms of invasive carcinoma of cervix?

A
  1. Abnormal bleeding
  2. Pelvic pain
  3. Haematuria/UTI
  4. Ureteric obstructin
90
Q

Give some types of abnormal bleeding in Invasive carfcinoma of cervix?

A

Post coital
Post menopausal
Brownish or blood stained vaginal discharve
Contact bleeding - friable epithelium

91
Q

Where does Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CGIN) originate from?

A

Endocervical epithelium

92
Q

What is the preinvasive phase of endocervical adenocarcinoma?

A

Cervical Glandular Intraepithelial Neoplasia (CGIN)

93
Q

5-25% of cervical cancers?

A

Endocervical adenocarcinoma - worse prognosis than squamopuse carcinoma

94
Q

Higher S.E. Class
Later onset of sexual activity
Smoking
HPV again incriminated, particularly HPV18.

A

Adenocarcinoma

95
Q

What disease is associated with vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia?

A

Pagets disease

96
Q

Young women: often multifocal, recurrent or persistent causing treatment problems.

A

Vulvar Intraepithelial neoplasia

97
Q

Older women: greater risk of progression to invasive squamous carcinoma.

A

Vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia

98
Q

Who usually gets Vulvar Invasive Squamous Carcinoma

A

Elderly women, ulcer or exophytic mass

99
Q

what are verrucous an extremely well differentiated type of?

A

Vulvar Invasive Squamous Carcinoma

100
Q

Where does Vulvar Invasive Squamous Carcinoma spread to (nodes)?

A

Inguinal lymph nodes - most important prognostic factor

JL Reproduction and Sexual Health (18 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions